Nursing Care Across the Lifespan Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of nursing care principles and practices applicable to individuals and families from infancy through older adulthood. Emphasizing holistic and culturally competent care, students will explore growth and development, health promotion, disease prevention, and the management of acute and chronic health conditions across different life stages. The course integrates evidence-based best practices and interdisciplinary collaboration, preparing students to assess, plan, implement, and evaluate nursing interventions tailored to the unique physical, psychological, social, and cultural needs of patients throughout the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pharmacology for Nurses 15th Edition by Bruce D. Clayton
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Chapter 1: Definitions, Names, Standards, and Information
Sources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about over-the-counter (OTC) drugs?
A) They are not listed in the USP-NF.
B) A prescription from a health care provider is needed.
C) They are sold without a prescription.
D) They are known only by their brand names.
Answer: C
Q2) An older adult experiencing shortness of breath is brought to the hospital by her daughter. While obtaining the medication history from the patient and her daughter, the nurse discovers that neither has a list of the patient's current medications or prescriptions. All the patient has is a weekly pill dispenser that contains four different pills. The prescriptions are filled through the local pharmacy. Which resources are appropriate to use in determining the medication names and doses? (Select all that apply.)
A) Martindale-The Complete Drug Reference
B) Physicians' Desk Reference, Section 4
C) Senior citizens' center
D) Patient's home pharmacy
Answer: B, D
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Chapter 2: Principles of Drug Action and Drug Interactions
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Q1) A patient developed hives and itching after receiving a drug for the first time. Which instruction by the nurse is accurate?
A) Stop the medication and encourage the patient to wear a medical alert bracelet that explains the allergy.
B) Explain to the patient that these are signs and symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction.
C) Emphasize to the patient the importance to inform medical personnel that in the future a lower dosage of this drug is necessary.
D) Instruct the patient that it would be safe to take the drug again because this instance was a mild reaction.
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse recognizes that which factors would contribute to digoxin toxicity in a 92-year-old patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Taking the medication with meals
B) Prolonged half-life of the drug digoxin
C) Impaired renal function
D) Diminished mental capacity
Answer: B, C
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4
Chapter 3: Drug Action Across the Life Span
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Q1) Why are elderly patients at increased risk for drug interactions and toxicity? (Select all that apply.)
A) They have a higher incidence of malnourishment.
B) Their renal function is enhanced.
C) They have increased use of multiple medications.
D) Hepatic function is reduced.
E) There are often issues with swallowing.
Answer: A, C, D
Q2) Which age-related change would most affect transdermal drug absorption in geriatric patients the most?
A) Difficulty swallowing
B) Diminished kidney function
C) Changes in pigmentation
D) Altered circulatory status
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Nursing Process and Pharmacology
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Q1) Which outcome statement identified by the nurse is written correctly?
A) After surgery, patient will express acceptance of loss of breast.
B) Patient will die with dignity.
C) At the end of the shift the nurse will determine whether the patient is more comfortable.
D) Within the next 8 hours, urine output will be greater than 30 mL/hr.
Q2) Which statement best describes the planning phase of the nursing process?
A) Administer insulin subcutaneously in the abdominal area.
B) High risk for falls related to hypotension
C) The patient will state the expected adverse effects of medication by end of teaching session.
D) Itching has resolved; medication given is effective.
Q3) Which is an example of an interdependent nursing action?
A) Assess lung sounds every 4 hours.
B) Educate the patient about the prescribed medication.
C) Administer Demerol 50 mg IM every 4 hours PRN.
D) Encourage the patient to express feelings.
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Chapter 5: Patient Education and Health Promotion
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Q1) Which actions by the nurse can foster patient responsibility for adhering to the therapeutic regimen? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assessing the patient's readiness to learn
B) Determining the patient's level of understanding of content
C) Determining the patient's education level and learning style
D) Maintaining an aloof attitude toward presented content
E) Documenting expected outcomes independently
Q2) In preparing for health teaching with a patient who has an auditory learning style, which would be most appropriate?
A) Pamphlets from a pharmaceutical company
B) Models of equipment used in a procedure
C) Verbal description of the steps of a procedure
D) A workbook with space to record actions and results
Q3) Which is the most intangible portion of the learning process?
A) Cognitive
B) Affective
C) Psychomotor
D) Eminent
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Chapter 6: A Review of Arithmetic
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Q1) 4.302 + 1.88 + 0.009 = _____
Q2) 0.62 = _____, _____, _____
Q3) 0.125 + 0.25 = _____
Q4) 300 = _____
Q5) Convert 2 tsp to milliliters (mL): _____
Q6) 0.5 \(\div\) 4 = _____
Q7) An IV of 750 mL was ordered to run over 6 hours with a set calibration of 10 gtt/mL. After 2 hours you notice that 300 mL has infused. Recalculate the flow rate in gtt/min.
Q8) 200 mL of solution containing 2 g of boric acid in water. _____
Q9) 1984 = _____
Q10) 4 - 0.8 = _____
Q11) 1 tsp = _____ mL
Q12) 1.5 \(\times\) 8.04 = _____
Q13) 3.75 - 1.5 = _____
Q14) 0.125/0.25 = _____
Q15) 1 qt = _____ cups Page 8
Q17) 1/18 + 1/9 + 1/12 + 1/4 = _____
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Principles of Medication Administration and Medication Safety
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Q1) Which is true regarding the unit dose drug distribution system?
A) The inventory is delivered to each nursing unit on a regular and recurring basis.
B) The system delivers one dose of each medication to be administered until the subsequent delivery of inventory.
C) The use of single-dose packages of drugs dispensed to fill each dose requirement as it is ordered.
D) The amount of inventory needed to dose all patients on the unit for a 24-hour interval.
Q2) Which is known as the "fifth vital sign"?
A) Temperature
B) Respirations
C) Pain
D) Pulse
Q3) Where would the procedures and treatments directed by the health care provider be found?
A) Summary sheet
B) Physician's order form
C) Physician's progress notes
D) History and physical examination form
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Chapter 8: Percutaneous Administration
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Q1) Which medications must be sterile?
A) Topical
B) Vaginal
C) Ophthalmic
D) Nasal
Q2) Which is the appropriate nursing action when administering a vaginal suppository?
A) Ask the patient to urinate prior to insertion.
B) Assist the patient to a side-lying position.
C) Keep suppository refrigerated prior to insertion.
D) Insert the suppository 1 inch into the vagina.
Q3) Which nursing assessment accurately describes the results of an intradermal skin test?
A) Itching and weeping
B) Erythema and induration
C) Swelling and coolness
D) Pallor and drainage
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Chapter 9: Enteral Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which route of administration would be ordered by the health care provider if a patient is vomiting?
A) Gastrostomy tube
B) Intradermal
C) Ophthalmic
D) Rectal
Q2) The nurse is administering an oral medication to a 90-year-old patient who has difficulty swallowing pills. One of the medications to be administered is a spansule-type capsule. What nursing considerations are important in this case? (Select all that apply.)
A) Wash hands before preparing medications and before administration.
B) Crush medications and administer with a soft food such as applesauce.
C) Check the patient's ID band with the MAR to ensure patient rights are followed.
D) Have an 8-ounce glass of water available.
E) Check with the pharmacist to see if the spansule medication comes in a liquid form.
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Chapter 10: Parenteral Administration: Safe Preparation of
Parenteral Medications
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Q1) After teaching a diabetic patient about proper disposal of used syringes and needles, which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Even needles with sleeves should be disposed of appropriately."
B) "It is unusual that anyone could get a needle injury or disease from used needles."
C) "It is important for me to use the designated container to dispose of my syringes and needles."
D) "I am going to purchase the 'Sharps by Mail Disposal System' once I am home."
Q2) Which part of the syringe contains the calibrations for drug volume measurement?
A) Plunger
B) Tip
C) Luer-lock
D) Barrel
Q3) Which information provided by the nurse is most important to include when teaching a patient about the use of an EpiPen?
A) "Hold the syringe at a 45-degree angle against the skin."
B) "Monitor the expiration date of this medication."
C) "After using the EpiPen, lie down for 1 hour."
D) "Place the syringe in a cartridge prior to using."
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Chapter 11: Parenteral Administration: Intradermal,
Subcutaneous, and Intramuscular Routes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer kindergarten immunizations at the local health clinic. Which anatomic site would be best for the injection of the immunizations containing 0.5 mL?
A) Rectus femoris
B) Dorsogluteal
C) Deltoid
D) Ventrogluteal
Q2) Which assessment by the nurse is most important to obtain prior to performing allergy sensitivity testing?
A) Identify areas of loose connective tissue.
B) Question the patient about frequency of exercise.
C) Determine if the patient is using aspirin.
D) Palpate and measure the size of induration.
Q3) Which statements are true about when administering medications parenterally?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Subcutaneous absorption is slower than intradermal absorption.
B) Two milliliters or less should be administered in a subcutaneous site.
C) The gluteal area is recommended for children.
D) Needles 1 to 1 1/2 inches in length are common for IM injections.
E) The scapular areas of the back may be used for intradermal injections
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Chapter 12: Parenteral Administration: Intravenous Route
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Q1) The nurse determines that an elderly patient's IV of D<sub>5</sub>0.2NS with 20 mEq KCl at 75 mL/hr is running 3 hours behind. After determining the IV site is patent, what action will the nurse take?
A) Call the health care provider to obtain an order to decrease the IV rate.
B) Administer a bolus to make up the deficit.
C) Recalculate the flow rate and slowly make up the fluids.
D) Maintain the ordered rate.
Q2) A diabetic patient requires the administration of insulin continuously at home. Which system would most likely be used in this instance?
A) Central line catheter
B) Microdrip set
C) Piggyback system
D) Syringe pump
Q3) What is the composition of hypotonic intravenous solutions such as 0.45% NaCl?
A) Fewer dissolved particles than blood
B) Approximately the same number of dissolved particles as blood
C) Higher concentrations of dissolved particles than blood
D) Electrolytes and dextrose
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Chapter 13: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) What is the primary response to alpha-1 receptor stimulation?
A) Bronchodilation
B) Tachycardia
C) Vasoconstriction
D) Uterine relaxation
Q2) Before the initiation of anticholinergic medications, it is important for the nurse to screen patients for which condition?
A) Hypertension
B) Infectious diseases
C) Diabetes
D) Closed-angle glaucoma.
Q3) Which nerve endings liberate norepinephrine?
A) Cholinergic
B) Adrenergic
C) Anticholinergic
D) Muscarinic
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Chapter 14: Sedative-Hypnotics
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Q1) Which sleep pattern stage diminishes as an effect of aging?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q2) The nurse finds that a patient is extremely agitated, yelling out frequently, and attempting to get out of bed without assistance. What is the nurse's initial action?
A) Administer zolpidem after taking the patient's vital signs.
B) Close the patient's door for privacy after administering Tylenol.
C) Administer benzodiazepine before calling the health care provider.
D) Spend uninterrupted time listening to the patient.
Q3) The nurse is assessing a patient who is being evaluated in an outpatient clinic for complaints of back pain. The patient reports taking diphenhydramine for insomnia related to job stress. Which statement by the nurse is accurate regarding this medication?
A) "This medication should only be taken for 1 week."
B) "This medication can cause nausea."
C) "The medication should not be taken after eating a high-fat meal."
D) "This is an herbal medication that has been used for hundreds of years."
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Drugs Used for Parkinsons Disease
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Q1) The nurse is providing education to a patient recently placed on selegiline disintegrating tablets. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "This medication will help slow the development of symptoms."
B) "I will place the tablet on my tongue before breakfast."
C) "I may need to use a stool softer for constipation."
D) "I should not push the tablet through the foil."
Q2) Which reaction occurs as a result of prescribing carbidopa-levodopa?
A) Idiosyncratic
B) Additive
C) Hypersensitivity
D) Tolerance
Q3) The nurse is providing information to a patient recently prescribed entacapone. Which statement is correct?
A) This medication is not to be taken with carbidopa-levodopa.
B) Dosage is adjusted according to the patient's response.
C) There will be fewer incidences of dopaminergic effects, such as confusion.
D) This medication increases the production of dopamine in the brain.
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18
Chapter 16: Drugs Used for Anxiety Disorders
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Q1) Which drugs may increase the toxic effects of benzodiazepines? (Select all that apply.)
A) Alcohol
B) Antihistamines
C) Analgesics
D) Sedatives
E) Vitamins
F) Hypnotics
Q2) Which patient is most likely to respond quickly to antianxiety therapy with benzodiazepines?
A) Patient with a history of long-term anxiety
B) Patient with recent anxiety reactions
C) Patient with severe depression in addition to being anxious
D) Patient with incidents of auditory hallucinations
Q3) Which is true regarding psychological drug dependence?
A) It is easier to treat than physiological dependence.
B) It is not considered a true addiction.
C) It is easily controlled by influencing the patient's perceptions.
D) It requires medical intervention to treat.
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Page 19
Chapter 17: Drugs Used for Mood Disorders
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Q1) On what is the choice of tricyclic antidepressants based?
A) The need to decrease the action of norepinephrine, dopamine, or serotonin
B) Patient age and gender
C) An absence of adverse effects such as orthostatic hypotension
D) The need for stimulation and increased mental alertness
Q2) What is the action of MAOIs on neurotransmitters?
A) Blocking their reuptake
B) Increasing their production
C) Blocking their destruction
D) Increasing their reuptake
Q3) The nurse is teaching a patient about medication treatment for depression. The patient asks how long it will take before sleep and appetite will begin to improve. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) 3 days
B) 1 week
C) 4 weeks
D) 2 months
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Chapter 18: Drugs Used for Psychoses
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Q1) Which statement is true regarding the adverse effects associated with antipsychotic medications?
A) Tardive dyskinesia is a common, reversible condition.
B) Painful dystonic reactions can occur in the first 72 hours of initiation of therapy.
C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a common adverse effect.
D) Pseudoparkinsonian symptoms can cause Parkinson's disease.
Q2) Which adverse effects may occur as a result of antipsychotic drug therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Acute dystonia
B) Akathisia
C) Weight loss
D) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
E) Hypoglycemia
F) Tardive dyskinesia
Q3) To what does potency of an antipsychotic medication refer?
A) Severity of adverse effects associated with the drug
B) Length of time that it takes to reach a therapeutic blood level of the drug
C) Milligram doses used for the medication
D) Effectiveness of the drug in alleviating psychotic behavior
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Drugs Used for Seizure Disorders
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Q1) Which dose is within the acceptable range for administering IV phenytoin (Dilantin) to a patient with a seizure disorder?
A) 5 mg/min
B) 30 mg/min
C) 60 mg/min
D) 100 mg/min
Q2) Patients taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for control of seizures must be aware of the risk for which of the following adverse effects? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blood dyscrasias
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Urinary retention
D) Gingival hyperplasia
E) Insomnia
F) Sedation
Q3) For which condition may carbamazepine (Tegretol) be used?
A) Tardive dyskinesia
B) Psychotic episodes
C) Trigeminal neuralgia pain
D) Sedation
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Page 22
Chapter 20: Drugs Used for Pain Management
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Q1) An 86-year-old patient who was admitted with gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to salicylate therapy is being discharged. As the nurse reviews the discharge medication list, the patient states that she doesn't understand why Tylenol doesn't work as well as the aspirin she had been taking. What would be the nurse's best response?
A) "Tylenol and aspirin are chemically the same drug."
B) "Tylenol is appropriate for only minor pain."
C) "Tylenol does not help with inflammatory discomfort."
D) "A therapeutic blood level must be established with Tylenol."
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient's pain. When the patient describes his pain as cramping and burning, which component of the pain history is being addressed?
A) Depth
B) Location
C) Quality
D) Severity
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Chapter 21: Introduction to Cardiovascular Disease and Metabolic Syndrome
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Q1) Metabolic syndrome includes which key characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Abdominal obesity
C) Low high-density lipoproteins
D) Hypertension
E) Osteoporosis
Q2) In addition to type 2 diabetes and heart disease, which conditions are associated with metabolic syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dementia
B) Insomnia
C) Renal disease
D) Obstructive sleep apnea
E) Orthostatic hypotension
F) Polycystic ovary syndrome
Q3) What is the incidence of metabolic syndrome in the United States?
A) 1 in 4000
B) 1 in 400
C) 1 in 40
D) 1 in 4
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Chapter 22: Drugs Used to Treat Dyslipidemias
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Q1) The nurse is preparing medications for a patient. When is the best time for the nurse to administer lovastatin (Mevacor)?
A) 2 hours after breakfast
B) During the patient's dinner
C) 1 hour before breakfast
D) 30 minutes<sup> </sup>before lunch
Q2) What is the desired effect of any antilipemic therapy?
A) Reduced LDLs and total cholesterol levels
B) Reduced HDLs and total cholesterol levels
C) Reduced LDLs and HDLs
D) Reduced HDLs and dietary cholesterol levels
Q3) What will the nurse review when teaching a patient about therapy with statins? (Select all that apply.)
A) Statins are the most potent antilipemic agents available.
B) Statins should be taken with food.
C) Statins replace dietary therapy for the control of hyperlipidemia.
D) Statins cause mild increases in HDL levels.
E) Statins are administered in the morning when cholesterol production is high.
F) Statins reduce inflammation, platelet aggregation, and plasma viscosity.
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Page 25
Chapter 23: Drugs Used to Treat Hypertension
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Q1) Which is true about postural hypotension during therapy with direct vasodilators?
A) It indicates a therapeutic effect.
B) It gradually resolves with continued medication use.
C) It is a dose-limiting complication of drug therapy.
D) It is a precursor to hypertensive crisis.
Q2) Which medication is often administered with hydralazine to reduce reflex physiological responses to the drug?
A) Beta blockers
B) Renin inhibitor
C) ACE inhibitor
D) Angiotensin II receptor blocker
Q3) Which medication lowers blood pressure by directly inhibiting renin?
A) Aliskiren (Tekturna)
B) Eplerenone (Inspra)
C) Diltiazem (Cardizem)
D) Reserpine
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Chapter 24: Drugs Used to Treat Dysrhythmias
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Q1) A patient is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. The nurse anticipates that which drug will be used in the treatment of this dysrhythmia?
A) Disopyramide (Norpace)
B) Flecainide (Tambocor)
C) Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
D) Mexiletine (Mexitil)
Q2) A patient who is started on phenytoin (Dilantin), who is also taking amiodarone (Cordarone), should be assessed for what possible effect?
A) CNS depression and sedation
B) Decrease in effectiveness of phenytoin
C) Respiratory depression
D) Increase in serum phenytoin levels
Q3) Which statement is true regarding the antidysrhythmic agent adenosine (Adenocard)?
A) It is synthesized from petroleum products.
B) It is created through recombinant DNA.
C) It is extracted from plants.
D) It is a naturally occurring chemical in the body.
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Chapter 25: Drugs Used to Treat Angina Pectoris
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Q1) How do beta-adrenergic blocking agents reduce myocardial oxygen demand?
A) By inhibiting the stimulation of norepinephrine and epinephrine
B) By increasing the production of dopamine and acetylcholine
C) By delaying the destruction of acetylcholinesterase and cholinesterase
D) By enhancing the sensitivity of alpha receptors and beta receptors
Q2) Which statement about ranolazine (Ranexa), a fatty oxidase enzyme inhibitor, is true?
A) It causes coronary artery vasodilation.
B) It causes no gastrointestinal side effects.
C) It causes QT interval prolongation.
D) It elevates LDL levels.
Q3) A patient has been diagnosed with angina pectoris and an elevated LDL cholesterol level. The health care provider has prescribed HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. What is the primary indication in using this medication?
A) Reduce coronary vessel spasm
B) Simplify oxygen requirements of the cardiac cells
C) Lower cholesterol levels
D) Dilate the coronary arteries
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28
Chapter 26: Drugs Used to Treat Peripheral Vascular Disease
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Q1) The nurse is assessing the patient's leg for peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and is unable to palpate the pedal pulse in either foot. Which action will the nurse take first?
A) Contact the health care provider for further orders.
B) Request x-ray studies of the lower extremities.
C) Request that the patient lie flat.
D) Obtain a Doppler ultrasound device for auscultation.
Q2) Which are necessary steps in the assessment of the patient preparing for treatment of PVD with pentoxifylline (Trental)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Check for intolerance to caffeine.
B) Obtain baseline data on pain that may be present.
C) Obtain test results for PT and aPTT.
D) Perform baseline gastrointestinal assessment to determine if the patient has nausea, vomiting, or dyspepsia.
E) Ask specifically if the patient has any cardiac symptoms or dizziness.
F) Schedule the patient for an exercise stress test.
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Chapter 27: Drugs Used to Treat Thromboembolic Disorders
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Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about dietary implications while on warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which salad is highest in vitamin K?
A) Fruit
B) Pasta
C) Potato
D) Spinach
Q2) Which are accurate nursing interventions when administering heparin subcutaneously? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assessment of recent aPTT levels
B) Massaging the site after injection of medication
C) Aspirating after needle insertion
D) Documentation of ecchymotic areas
E) Monitoring of vital signs
Q3) What is the mechanism of action of drugs used to treat thromboembolic disease?
A) Dissolving clots and preventing formation of new clots
B) Making platelets more flexible and preventing formation of new clots
C) Causing vasodilation and increased blood flow
D) Preventing platelet aggregation and inhibiting clot formation
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Chapter 28: Drugs Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with heart failure has been prescribed nesiritide (Natrecor). Which statements are true regarding this medication? (Select all that apply.)
A) It increases preload.
B) Cardiac ventricles secrete this hormone in response to fluid overload.
C) It suppresses aldosterone.
D) It promotes norepinephrine secretion.
E) It causes vasodilation.
Q2) Which are true statements about vasodilators? (Select all that apply.)
A) They reduce systemic vascular resistance.
B) They increase afterload.
C) They reduce preload.
D) They decrease pulmonary congestion.
E) They increase tissue perfusion to muscles and organs.
F) They increase the volume of blood returning to the heart.
Q3) Which action of ACE inhibitors results in effective treatment of heart failure?
A) Increased afterload
B) Increased aldosterone
C) Increased preload
D) Increased cardiac output
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Chapter 29: Drugs Used for Diuresis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient assessment would alert the nurse to withhold a loop diuretic?
A) Crackles in the lung bases
B) +2 pitting peripheral edema
C) Serum potassium of 2.6 mEq/L
D) Weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days
Q2) Which foods will the nurse recommend for a patient taking loop diuretics?
A) Protein-rich foods such as poultry, whole grains, and fish
B) Fiber-rich foods such as yellow vegetables, nuts, and lentils
C) Potassium-rich foods such as raisins, figs, and bananas
D) Sodium-rich foods such as canned vegetables and processed foods
Q3) Which nursing interventions are performed for a patient who is on diuretic therapy?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Auscultation of lung sounds
B) Assessment of skin turgor
C) Initiation of electrolyte supplements
D) Positioning techniques
E) Monitoring of intake and output
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Chapter 30: Drugs Used to Treat Upper Respiratory Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are true of antihistamines? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reduce inflammation locally
B) Antagonize H1 receptors
C) May be administered orally
D) Are systemically distributed
E) Reduce nasal congestion
Q2) Which topically active aerosol steroids are highly effective for reducing sneezing, nasal itching, stuffiness, and rhinorrhea? (Select all that apply.)
A) Beclomethasone (Beconase AQ)
B) Prednisone (Deltasone)
C) Fluticasone (Flonase)
D) Flunisolide (Nasarel)
E) Budesonide (Rhinocort Aqua)
Q3) When does allergic rhinitis occur? (Select all that apply.)
A) Nasal mucosa become inflamed.
B) Exposure secondary to an allergen produces inflammation.
C) Histamine is released following allergen exposure.
D) The weather is cold during the winter.
E) A person has an initial exposure to an antigen.
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Page 33
Chapter 31: Drugs Used to Treat Lower Respiratory Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physical assessments are pertinent to the patient with asthma? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lung sounds
B) Patient color
C) Respiratory rate and effort
D) PEF
E) Pulse oximetry reading
F) Bowel sounds
Q2) Which statements are true regarding the nursing assessment of a patient with a respiratory disorder? (Select all that apply).
A) Central cyanosis typically is observed on the fingers and earlobes.
B) Clubbing of the fingernails is a sign of hypoxia.
C) As oxygen levels diminish, mental alertness will progressively deteriorate.
D) The normal respiratory rate in an adult is 10 breaths/min.
E) Episodes of apnea are present in Cheyne-Stokes.
Q3) What is albuterol (Proventil) used to treat?
A) Acute bronchospasm
B) Acute allergies
C) Nasal congestion
D) Dyspnea on exertion
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Chapter 32: Drugs Used to Treat Oral Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication helps prevent or reduce mucositis in patients undergoing chemotherapy or radiation treatment?
A) Amlexanox paste (Aphthasol)
B) Palifermin (Kepivance)
C) Docosanol (Abreva)
D) Nystatin (Mycostatin)
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient's mouth and notes white, milk curd-appearing plaques attached to the oral mucosa. Which condition is present?
A) Thrush
B) Canker sores
C) Cold sores
D) Mucositis
Q3) Which assessment information is pertinent to oral health? (Select all that apply.)
A) Medication history
B) Dental history, visit frequency
C) Presence of halitosis
D) Amount of saliva present
E) Bowel sounds
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Chapter 33: Drugs Used to Treat Gastroesophageal Reflux and Peptic Ulcer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug therapy is aimed at reducing gastric acid secretions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Prokinetic agents
B) Antacids
C) H2 antagonists
D) Proton pump inhibitors
E) Coating agents
Q2) A patient who is taking NSAIDs to treat arthritis asks the nurse why misoprostol has also been prescribed. Which explanation by the nurse is accurate?
A) NSAIDs often cause GI irritation that can result in peptic ulcers.
B) NSAIDs promote the production of prostaglandins and reduce the incidence of gastric irritation.
C) Antiulcer medications eradicate the presence of bacteria in the stomach that cause ulcers.
D) Drug interactions are prevented when antiulcer medications are used in combination with NSAIDs.
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36
Chapter 34: Drugs Used to Treat Nausea and Vomiting
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient with nausea and vomiting. Which additional autonomic symptoms that often accompany vomiting will the nurse observe?
A) Bradycardia, diarrhea, and flushing
B) Pallor, sweating, and tachycardia
C) Urinary urgency, chills, and dizziness
D) Fever, hyperventilation, and bradycardia
Q2) The nurse would expect to administer which drug when treating hyperemesis gravidarum?
A) THC (Marinol)
B) Haloperidol (Haldol)
C) Dexamethasone (Prednisone)
D) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Q3) Why is drug therapy important for selected causes of nausea and vomiting? (Select all that apply.)
A) Relieves the distress associated with nausea and vomiting
B) Prevents aspiration of gastric contents into the lung
C) Prevents dehydration
D) Prevents electrolyte imbalances
E) Increases intracranial pressure
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Page 37
Chapter 35: Drugs Used to Treat Constipation and Diarrhea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instruction will the nurse include in the discharge teaching of a patient taking psyllium?
A) "Administer with a full glass of water."
B) "Limit the intake of high-fiber foods."
C) "Avoid mixing in juice."
D) "Fat-soluble vitamin deficiency is common."
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient with constipation. Which are causes of constipation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diet low in fiber and/or residue
B) Excessive fluid intake
C) Diet low in cheese and yogurt
D) Iron supplements
E) Use of morphine
Q3) Which drug would be most effective for an obstetric patient who is complaining of constipation secondary to her enlarging uterus and use of prenatal vitamins?
A) Saline laxative
B) Lubricant laxative
C) Stimulant laxative
D) Mineral oil
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Chapter 36: Drugs Used to Treat Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which instruction by the nurse is accurate to include when providing teaching to a patient recently diagnosed with diabetes who has been prescribed insulin?
A) Beta blockers can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia.
B) Lipodystrophy increases the absorption of insulin.
C) Infection will decrease the need for insulin.
D) Excessive exercise will increase the need for insulin.
Q2) The nurse is instructing a patient about insulin administration. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I may need more insulin if I have surgery."
B) "Once I open my insulin, I will store it in the refrigerator."
C) "I will date the insulin bottle when I open it."
D) "I will keep a spare bottle of insulin on hand."
Q3) After a blood glucose reading, it is determined that the patient should receive 4 units of Lispro and 8 units of NPH. Which action will the nurse take to administer these medications?
A) Draw up each insulin in separate syringes and administer two injections.
B) Draw up the NPH first and then the Lispro using the same syringe.
C) Administer the Lispro before the meal and the NPH after the meal.
D) Draw up the Lispro first and then the NPH using the same syringe.
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Page 39
Chapter 37: Drugs Used to Treat Thyroid Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient would be a candidate for radioactive iodine therapy?
A) 17-year-old woman with Graves' disease
B) 64-year-old woman with hypothyroidism
C) 46-year-old man with heart disease and thyroid cancer
D) 82-year-old man with myxedema crisis
Q2) Which is characteristic of antithyroid drugs that act on the thyroid gland? (Select all that apply.)
A) They are a physiologic hormone replacement.
B) They block synthesis of T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub> in the thyroid gland.
C) They destroy T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub>.
D) Immediate improvement is observed.
E) They may be used before subtotal thyroidectomy.
Q3) Which nursing diagnosis may be identified for a patient with hyperthyroidism?
A) Imbalanced Nutrition: More Than Body Requirements
B) Constipation
C) Disturbed Sleep Pattern
D) Ineffective Airway Clearance
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Chapter 38: Corticosteroids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is instructing a patient about adverse effects associated with corticosteroid therapy. Which information would be important to include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid crowds or people with an infection.
B) Monitor and care for your skin daily; change positions frequently.
C) Take medication on an empty stomach.
D) During periods of physical or psychological stress, higher doses of corticosteroids are necessary. Contact your health care provider.
E) Follow a diet low in sodium.
Q2) Which are appropriate measures for monitoring hydration and fluid balance in the patient on steroid therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Daily weights
B) Abdominal girth measurements
C) Reports of thirst
D) Neurologic assessment
E) Assessment for alteration in skin integrity
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Chapter 39: Gonadal Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient on oral contraceptive therapy will be at greatest risk for heart attack?
A) 34-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis
B) 28-year-old woman with history of eczema
C) 36-year-old woman who smokes half a pack per day
D) 36-year-old woman who has a history of abnormal Pap smears
Q2) The health of a patient receiving androgen therapy for breast cancer declines and she becomes bed bound. Which condition will this patient be at risk of developing?
A) Electrolyte imbalances
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Fluid overload
Q3) When teaching a patient about estrogen therapy, which drugs will the nurse identify as causing drug interactions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diazepam (Valium)
B) Warfarin (Coumadin)
C) Thyroid hormones
D) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
E) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
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42
Chapter 40: Drugs Used in Obstetrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessments will the nurse complete during routine pregnancy visits? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blood pressure
B) Hemoglobin
C) Weight
D) Fetal heart sounds
E) Glucose tolerance test (GTT)
Q2) Which medication is used to treat a patient with atonic uterus?
A) Estradiol
B) Ergonovine
C) Ergotamine
D) Egophony
Q3) Which test would the nurse anticipate to be done to determine if preterm labor is present in a patient whose symptoms are questionable?
A) Sonogram
B) Fetal fibronectin test
C) Amniocentesis
D) Doppler study
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43
Chapter 41: Drugs Used in Mens and Womens Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse working at the community health clinic receives a call from a teen client who reports that she has missed one of her birth control pills. Which response by the nurse is accurate? (Select all that apply.)
A) Take the missed pill now.
B) Take the next pill at the regularly scheduled time.
C) Come into the clinic for a pregnancy test.
D) Start with the next month's pill packet at day 1.
E) Take the missed pill and the next pill together at the next regularly scheduled time.
Q2) A patient diagnosed with benign prostatic hypertrophy asks why tamsulosin (Flomax), an alpha-1 adrenergic blocking agent, has been prescribed. Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
A) It inhibits the action of testosterone.
B) It improves sexual function.
C) It reduces the size of the prostate.
D) It increases urinary flow.
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Chapter 42: Drugs Used to Treat Disorders of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assisting with postpartum care for a mother who has given birth to her fourth child. She reports a moderate amount of urinary incontinence since the birth of the third child and is concerned that this problem will worsen. Which instructions may facilitate management of incontinence? (Select all that apply.)
A) Instruction of proper wiping techniques to prevent bacterial infection
B) Education on bladder training and Kegel exercises
C) Information on personal hygiene measures to prevent perianal breakdown
D) Information of incontinence products and appliances
E) Importance of establishing a regular toileting schedule
F) Importance of increasing fluid intake
Q2) How often is fosfomycin (Monurol) usually administered when used in the treatment of urinary tract infections?
A) In a one-time dose
B) Once per day
C) Once per week
D) Monthly
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Chapter 43: Drugs Used to Treat Glaucoma and Other Eye Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of administering a cycloplegic agent? (Select all that apply.)
A) Facilitate examination of the eye
B) Facilitate surgery on the eye
C) Cause pupillary dilation
D) Paralyze the ciliary muscle
E) Decrease the production of aqueous humor
Q2) A patient recently diagnosed with glaucoma is to begin drug therapy with carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. About which assessment would the nurse need to contact the health care provider? (Select all that apply.)
A) Electrolyte levels
B) Any signs of gastric symptoms before initiating drug therapy
C) Allergy to sulfonamides
D) Patient history of menopause
E) Elevated intraocular pressure levels
Q3) Which medication is used to produce miosis following a diagnostic procedure?
A)Pilocarpine (Pilocar)
B)Mannitol (Osmitrol)
C)Atropine (Isopto-Atropine)
D)Epinephrine (EpiPen)
Page 46
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Chapter 44: Drugs Used for Cancer Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which signs and symptoms assessed by the nurse are indicative of thrombocytopenia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pinpoint red rash
B) Casts in urine
C) Brown, fatty stools
D) Increase in menstrual flow
E) Coffee ground emesis
Q2) Which are treatments that may be used alone or in combination for the treatment of cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Surgery
B) Radiation
C) Chemotherapy
D) Immunotherapy
E) Phlebotomy
Q3) What is the intended outcome of the chemoprotective drug amifostine (Ethyol)?
A) Decreased nausea and vomiting
B) Increased effectiveness of the chemotherapy
C) Maintenance of body weight
D) Decreased renal toxicity
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Page 47
Chapter 45: Drugs Used to Treat the Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication will be prescribed for a patient complaining of muscle spasms secondary to a back injury?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Morphine sulfate
C) Bethanechol (Urecholine)
D) Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
Q2) The nurse is examining a patient in the emergency department whose chief complaint is a dislocated shoulder. Which assessment data is needed to evaluate the patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Details related to the mechanism of injury
B) Degree of impairment
C) Pain level
D) Inspection of the affected part for swelling, capillary refill, bruising, redness, localized tenderness, deformities, and paresthesia
E) Elevation of the affected extremity
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Chapter 46: Antimicrobial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The health care provider has prescribed penicillin and probenecid for a patient with a sexually transmitted disease. What is the purpose of combining these medications?
A) To accelerate the excretion of the penicillin
B) To inhibit the absorption of penicillin to allow the drug to remain in the transport phase
C) To inhibit the excretion of the penicillin
D) To reduce toxic effects associated with penicillin
Q2) The nurse will monitor patients on cephalosporins and loop diuretics for which adverse effect?
A) Hepatic toxicity
B) Ototoxicity
C) Nephrotoxicity
D) Splenotoxicity
Q3) Which conditions may occur with the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics over an extended period of time?
A) Cross-sensitivity
B) Immunosuppression
C) Secondary infection
D) Immunity
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Page 49
Chapter 47: Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which can be directly absorbed from the GI tract into the bloodstream? (Select all that apply.)
A) Glucose
B) Sucrose
C) Fructose
D) Galactose
E) Lactose
F) Maltose
Q2) What is the average daily dietary intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of most healthy individuals in a group?
A) Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
B) Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)
C) Estimated Average Requirements (EAR)
D) Adequate Intake (AI)
Q3) What is the best way for the nurse to administer liquid iron?
A) With an antacid
B) Mixed with coffee
C) Sipped through a straw
D) Swished and then swallowed
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Chapter 48: Herbal and Dietary Supplement Therapy
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Q1) The use of which medication would alert the nurse to educate the patient about using Ginkgo biloba cautiously?
A) Antiemetics
B) Anti-inflammatories
C) Anticoagulants
D) Antibiotics
Q2) Which symptoms are consistent with a paradoxical response associated with melatonin use? (Select all that apply.)
A) Drowsiness
B) Agitation
C) Insomnia
D) Poor concentration
E) Jet lag
Q3) Which effects are attributed to green tea? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lower cholesterol
B) Lower triglycerides and LDLs
C) Raise HDLs
D) Lower blood glucose
E) Preventing calcium loss
F) Preventing viral infection
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Chapter 49: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which protects individuals who have been successfully rehabilitated from substance abuse from discrimination related to past addiction?
A) Americans with Disabilities Act
B) National Council on Alcoholism and Drug Dependence
C) Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives
D) American Medical Association
Q2) A 16-year-old male has been referred to the community mental health center following legal charges of driving under the influence. Which screening tests would be appropriate to use on this patient?
A) Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST)
B) Adolescent Alcohol Involvement Scale (AAIS)
C) Adolescent Drug Abuse Diagnosis (ADAD)
D) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2)
Q3) What effect will occur if a patient being treated with naltrexone (ReVia) for substance abuse ingests opioids or alcohol?
A) Increased euphoria
B) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
C) Deep sedation
D) An absence of the "high" associated with drugs
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Page 52
Chapter 50: Miscellaneous Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the rationale for administering acamprosate (Campral)?
A) Withdrawal from alcohol addiction
B) Maintenance of sobriety
C) Improvement of renal function
D) Correction of electrolyte imbalances
Q2) The nurse is providing information to a patient with chronic gout arthritis who is prescribed probenecid. Which information by the nurse is accurate regarding the action of this drug?
A) It prevents uric acid crystal formation.
B) It promotes uric acid excretion.
C) It provides analgesia.
D) It treats acute gout attacks.
Q3) Why is lactulose administered to a patient with end-stage liver disease and encephalopathy?
A) To increase daily urine output
B) To relieve constipation
C) To reduce formation of ammonia in the gut
D) To maintain electrolyte values within normal limits
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