Course Introduction
Nursing Anatomy Solved
Exam Questions
Nursing Anatomy is a foundational course that introduces students to the structure and organization of the human body, with a particular emphasis on anatomical systems and regions most relevant to nursing practice. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory work, and hands-on activities, students will explore the form and function of organs, tissues, and body systems, developing an understanding of their interrelatedness in maintaining health. This course equips nursing students with the knowledge required to accurately assess patients, understand the physiological basis of illness and injury, and apply anatomical concepts in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy 9th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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28 Chapters
3539 Verified Questions
3539 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Foundations: An Introduction to Anatomy
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124 Verified Questions
124 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ section through the umbilicus divides the human body into equal left and right portions.
A) cross-sectional
B) parasagittal
C) transverse
D) coronal
E) midsagittal
Answer: E
Q2) What is the anatomical term for Label N?
A) Palma
B) Popliteus
C) Patella
D) Pes
E) Planta
Answer: C
Q3) Cellular structures and the functions of major organelles focus attention at the cellular level.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Foundations: The Cell
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117 Verified Questions
117 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the anatomical term for Label K?
A) Peripheral glycocalyx
B) Gated channel
C) Peripheral proteins
D) Hydrophilic tails
E) Peripheral cholesterol
Answer: C
Q2) A/an ________ is a form of an anchoring junction that encircles a cell.
A) cytokeratin
B) macula adherens
C) CAM
D) adhesion belt
E) connexons
Answer: D
Q3) A passive process that allows passage of small inorganic ions and molecules, gases, and lipid-soluble materials in all cell types is called diffusion.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Foundations: Tissues and Early Embryology
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127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The relatively few ________ residing in connective tissues engulf damaged or dead cells or invading pathogens, and release chemicals that attract many more cells to activate the immune system.
A) mast cells
B) mesenchymal cells
C) fibrocytes
D) fixed macrophages
E) monocytes
Answer: D
Q2) ________ is highly vascularized, very active biochemically, and its individual cells contain numerous mitochondria, which gives the tissue a deep, rich color.
A) Elastic tissue
B) Reticular tissue
C) White adipose tissue
D) Areolar connective tissue
E) Brown adipose tissue
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cerumen is commonly known as ________.
A) salts
B) proteins
C) earwax
D) water
E) saliva
Q2) Each keratinocyte in the ________ contains tonofibrils.
A) stratum corneum
B) stratum basale
C) stratum granulosum
D) stratum spinosum
E) papillary layer of dermis
Q3) What is the structure indicated by Label D?
A) Stratum spinosum
B) Stratum corneum
C) Basal lamina
D) Stratum lucidum
E) Stratum
Q4) What is "baby fat" and what is its importance?
Q5) What is the clinical importance of tension lines / cleavage lines of the skin?
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System: Osseous Tissue and
Skeletal Structure
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142 Verified Questions
142 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes a central canal?
A) contains an artery
B) contains a vein
C) runs parallel to bone surface
D) also called Haversian canal
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) Osteoporosis is common in elderly males.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Identify the structure indicated by Label S.
A) Periosteum
B) Lacunae
C) Trabeculae of spongy bone
D) Interstitial lamellae of compact bone
E) Endosteum
Q4) Endochondral ossification forms the mandible.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) What kind of tissue(s)would most likely be found in a tissue sample taken from the interior of the epiphysis of the femur?
Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Axial Division
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150 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bone is not in direct contact with any other bone of the skeleton?
A) ethmoid
B) sphenoid
C) palatine
D) hyoid
E) zygomatic
Q2) Identify the structure indicated by Label C.
A) Inferior nasal concha
B) Ethmoid
C) Zygomatic bone
D) Sphenoid
E) Temporal bone
Q3) Identify the structure indicated by Label K.
A) Zygomatic bone
B) Sphenoid
C) Mandible
D) Palatine bone
E) Maxilla
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8
Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: Appendicular Division
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The second largest bone in the foot is the ________.
A) talus
B) calcaneus
C) medial cuneiform
D) second metatarsal
E) lateral cuneiform
Q2) Identify the structure indicated by Label B.
A) Lunate
B) Triquetrum
C) Hamate
D) Scaphoid
E) Pisiform
Q3) Identify the structure indicated by Label G.
A) Capitulum
B) Deltoid tuberosity
C) Greater tubercle
D) Lesser tubercle
E) Trochlea
Q4) How can the age of a skeleton be determined?
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: Articulations
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131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label K.
A) Anterior cruciate ligament
B) Fibular collateral ligament
C) Patellar ligament
D) Posterior cruciate ligament
E) Tibial collateral ligament
Q2) An example of angular motion away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane is ________.
A) flexion
B) abduction
C) extension
D) rotation
E) adduction
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label J.
A) Tibial collateral ligament
B) Anterior cruciate ligament
C) Posterior cruciate ligament
D) Medial meniscus
E) Fibular collateral ligament
Q4) What are the components of a synovial joint?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Muscular System: Skeletal Muscle Tissue and
Muscle Organization
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145 Verified Questions
145 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A muscle whose contraction is mostly responsible for a movement is said to be the ________ for that movement.
A) synergist
B) agonist and fixator
C) antagonist
D) fixator
E) agonist and prime mover
Q2) In the case of the triceps brachii, the shoulder is the ________; the olecranon is the
A) origin; insertion
B) insertion; origin
C) agonist; antagonist
D) synergist; fixator
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q3) Identify the specific structure indicated by Label T.
A) Lysosomes
B) Synaptic vesicles
C) Peroxisomes
D) Nuclei
E) Lipid vesicles
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System: Axial Musculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label Q.
A) Latissimus dorsi
B) Internal oblique
C) Psoas major
D) Transversus abdominis
E) Quadratus lumborum
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label S.
A) Iliotibial tract
B) Vastus lateralis muscle
C) Tensor fasciae latae
D) Fibularis longus muscle
E) Pectineus muscle
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label G.
A) Rectus abdominis
B) External oblique
C) Transversus abdominis
D) Internal intercostals
E) Internal oblique
Q4) What would be the consequences of a lacerated trigeminal nerve in terms of muscular control?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System: Appendicular
Musculature
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135 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label DD.
A) Pectoralis major
B) Platysma
C) Pectoralis minor
D) Serratus anterior
E) Internal intercostal
Q2) The brachialis muscle is innervated by the median nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label F.
A) Rectus abdominis
B) Serratus anterior
C) External oblique
D) Transversus abdominis
E) Internal oblique
Q4) The supinator muscle is found in the lateral compartment of the forearm.
A)True
B)False
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Q5) What emerging measures are done to relieve compartment syndrome, and what can occur if these measures are not done?
Chapter 12: Surface Anatomy and Cross-Sectional Anatomy
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129 Verified Questions
129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label D.
A) Vertebra prominens (C7)
B) Acromion
C) Inferior angle of scapula
D) Trapezius muscle
E) Vertebral border
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label I.
A) Thoracic aorta
B) Spinous process of T8
C) Spinal cord
D) Ribs 7 & 8
E) Esophagus
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label B.
A) Vastus lateralis muscle
B) Adductor longus muscle
C) Gluteus maximus muscle
D) Gluteus medius muscle
E) Tensor fasciae latae muscle
Q4) How does the process of palpation reveal anatomical structures to the student of anatomy?
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Chapter 13: The Nervous System: Neural Tissue
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neuron, which has several dendrites and a single axon that may have one or more branches is a multipolar neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A neuron in which the dendrite and axonal processes are continuous, and the cell body lies off to one side is called a bipolar neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A connection between the brain and other organs and systems in the body is called a pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label F.
A) Synaptic vesicles
B) Glial cells
C) Axon terminals
D) Mitochondria
E) Telodendria
Q5) What would be the consequences of severing the spinal cord from the brain?
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Chapter 14: The Nervous System: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label HH.
A) Deep fibular nerve
B) Saphenous nerve
C) Sural nerve
D) Sciatic nerve
E) Tibial nerve
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label Q.
A) Median nerve
B) Axillary nerve
C) Musculocutaneous nerve
D) Ulnar nerve
E) Radial nerve
Q3) Brachial plexus nerves arise from one or more trunks or cords whose neurons indicate their positions relative to the ________.
A) brachial artery
B) clavicle
C) subclavius muscle
D) C4 vertebra
E) axillary artery
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Q4) Why are spinal taps done in the lumbar region when a CNS infection is suspected?
Chapter 15: The Nervous System: Sensory and Motor Tracts
of the Spinal Cord
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which area of the brain controls reflex motor patterns related to eating, drinking, and sexual activity?
A) mesencephalon
B) hypothalamus
C) pons
D) medulla oblongata
E) basal nuclei
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label F.
A) Tectospinal tract
B) Anterior spinothalamic tract
C) Medial reticulospinal tract
D) Vestibulospinal tract
E) Rubrospinal tract
Q3) The axons of most of the second-order neurons of the anterior spinocerebellar tract cross before entering the tract and then cross again within the cerebellum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Predict the effects of a superficial injury to the spinocerebellar tracts.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Nervous System: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure indicated by Label C.
A) Basilar artery
B) Infundibulum
C) Falx cerebri
D) Diaphragma sellae
E) Vertebral artery
Q2) The jugular foramen is the site for ingress and egress of which cranial nerves?
A) N X, XI, XII
B) N VIII, IX, X
C) N VI, VII, VIII
D) N IX, X, XI
E) N VII, VIII, IX
Q3) Identify the structure indicated by Labels Q.
A) Pineal gland
B) Septum pellucidum
C) Corpus callosum
D) Mamillary body
E) Corpora quadrigemina
Q4) Compare and contrast epidural and subdural hemorrhages.
Q5) What is cerebellar dysfunction?
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Chapter 17: The Nervous System: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long, unmyelinated axons leaving the ANS ganglia are called ________ fibers.
A) ganglionic
B) preganglionic
C) excitatory
D) postganglionic
E) inhibitory
Q2) The ________ plexus(es)contains descending branches of the vagus nerve and splanchnic nerves leaving the sympathetic chain on either side.
A) inferior mesenteric
B) hypogastric
C) esophageal
D) cardiac
E) celiac
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label E.
A) Inferior mesenteric ganglion
B) Lesser splanchnic nerve
C) Superior mesenteric ganglion
D) Lumbar splanchnic nerves
E) Cervical sympathetic ganglia
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Chapter 18: The Nervous System: General and Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label U.
A) Orbital fat
B) Sclera
C) Optic disc
D) Cornea
E) Fovea centralis
Q2) Which structure is a thin, semitransparent connective tissue sheet that separates the external ear from the middle ear?
A) cochlea
B) tympanic membrane
C) auricle
D) vestibule
E) cerumen
Q3) Which of the following is/are bony labyrinth feature(s)that provide(s)sensations of gravity and linear acceleration?
A) stapes
B) malleus
C) semicircular canals
D) incus
E) utricle and saccule
Page 20
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Chapter 19: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label G.
A) Mucous cells
B) Endocrine cells
C) Chief cells
D) Endothelial cells
E) Beta cells
Q2) In the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, the pars tuberalis, which wraps around the adjacent portion of the infundibulum, represents the major portion of the pituitary gland.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label J.
A) Inferior thyroid veins
B) Thyrocervical trunk
C) Brachiocephalic veins
D) Superior thyroid veins
E) Middle thyroid veins
Q4) How do the parathyroid glands function in opposition to the thyroid glands?
Q5) What are the effects of the secretions of the adrenal medulla on the body?
Q6) How does the role of the thymus change as an infant grows?
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A leukocyte with distinct bright orange-red cytoplasmic granules is called a(n)________.
A) eosinophil
B) monocyte
C) basophil
D) lymphocyte
E) neutrophil
Q2) Hemoglobin molecules consist of ________ globular protein subunits.
A) two
B) four
C) eight
D) sixteen
E) thirty-two
Q3) ________ clump together to form a temporary patch in the walls of damaged blood vessels.
A) Lymphocytes
B) Neutrophils
C) Monocytes
D) Basophils
E) Platelets
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which event occurs during the first phase of ventricular systole?
A) Chordae tendineae are loose.
B) Semilunar valves are open .
C) The volume of the ventricles changes dramatically.
D) Blood exits from the ventricles.
E) Atrioventricular valves are closed.
Q2) Which event typically occurs at the start of a cardiac cycle?
A) Ventricular blood pressure drops until reverse blood flow pushes the cusps of the semilunar valves together.
B) Atrial contraction forces a small amount of blood into the relaxed ventricles.
C) The semilunar valves open and blood is ejected.
D) Ventricular contraction pushes the atrioventricular valves closed.
E) The ventricles fully contract.
Q3) The broad, superior portion of the heart is the ________.
A) apex
B) base
C) sternocostal surface
D) pulmonary surface
E) anterior surface
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Cardiovascular System: Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label Z.
A) Inferior vena cava
B) Common iliac vein
C) Renal vein
D) External iliac vein
E) Lumbar vein
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label II.
A) Brachiocephalic vein
B) Internal jugular vein
C) Superior vena cava
D) Great saphenous vein
E) Inferior vena cava
Q3) What is the role of the azygos vein and its tributaries in returning blood to the vena cava?
Q4) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label C.
A) Brachiocephalic trunk
B) Brachial artery
C) Aortic arch
D) Right subclavian artery
E) Ascending aorta
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Chapter 23: The Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The capsule that covers the thymus divides it into ________.
A) two thymic lobes
B) many lobules
C) several unstructured nodules
D) several reservoirs for storage of hormones
E) lacteals
Q2) A typical B cell spends about ________ in a lymph node before moving to another location.
A) 20 minutes
B) 12 hours
C) 30 hours
D) 1 week
E) 2 months
Q3) Which is NOT TRUE regarding the thymus gland?
A) It is a bilobed organ located in the mediastinum.
B) It is fully encapsulated by connective tissue.
C) Each thymic lobe is subdivided into lobules.
D) It reaches its maximum size at puberty, then regresses.
E) Its thymic corpuscles are the site of T-lymphocyte maturation.
Q4) What role does the lymphatic system play in metastatic cancer?
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Chapter 24: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some degree of emphysema is normally found in individuals aged 50-70.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label CC.
A) Superior nasal concha
B) Epiglottis
C) Inferior nasal concha
D) Frontal sinus
E) Middle nasal concha
Q3) The apical bronchopulmonary segment is from which lobe of the lungs?
A) right middle lobe
B) right superior lobe
C) right inferior lobe
D) left superior lobe
E) left inferior lobe
Q4) Each pleural cavity actually represents a potential space rather than an open chamber, for the parietal and visceral layers are usually in close contact.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast eupnea and hyperpnea.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label M.
A) Rugae
B) Circular folds
C) Serosa
D) Pyloric sphincter
E) Villi
Q2) Which feature is seen on the medial surface of the stomach?
A) greater curvature
B) greater omentum
C) lesser curvature
D) body
E) pylorus
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label C.
A) Serosa
B) Mucosa
C) Longitudinal muscle layer
D) Circular muscle layer
E) Oblique muscle layer
Q4) How do aggregated lymphoid nodules protect the small intestine from infection?
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The capillaries of the glomerulus are ________.
A) sinusoidal
B) fenestrated
C) continuous
D) metarterioles
E) venules
Q2) Collagen fibers extend outward from the inner fibrous capsule through the perinephric fat to a dense outer layer known as the renal fascia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following are cells found between the endothelial cells of adjacent capillaries that play a role in regulating glomerular blood flow and filtration?
A) filtration slits
B) mesangial cells
C) podocytes
D) fenestrated cells
E) pyramidal cells
Q4) What is pyelitis? What is/are the cause(s)and consequences of this condition?
Q5) Why are women more susceptible to contracting urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each primary oocyte within an egg nest in the ovary is surrounded by a simple squamous layer of follicular cells. The oocyte and its follicle cells are called a
A) corona radiata
B) primordial ovarian follicle
C) secondary follicle
D) primary follicle
E) corpus luteum
Q2) Which is correct regarding chromosome numbers during oogenesis?
A) Primary oocytes are haploid, secondary oocytes are diploid.
B) Both primary oocytes and secondary oocytes are haploid.
C) Both primary oocytes and secondary oocytes are diploid.
D) Primary oocytes are diploid, secondary oocytes are haploid.
E) Primary oocytes are haploid, secondary oocytes may be haploid or diploid depending on their meiotic stage.
Q3) Progesterone and estrogen are produced by the corpus albicans.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What processes are involved in the maturation of the ova?
Q5) Briefly explain the process of spermatogenesis.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Embryology and Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure indicated by Label A.
A) Body stalk
B) Yolk stalk
Q2) Neural crest cells give rise to ________.
A) melanocytes of the skin
B) adrenal medullae
C) Schwann cells
D) laryngeal cartilages
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Identify the structure indicated by Label E.
A) Neural fold
B) Somite
C) Neural groove
D) Notochord
E) Neural plate
Q4) If a woman in the early stages of labor complains that she feels extreme pressure on her lower back, as if a bowling ball were pushing against her spine, and she is making little progress in dilation of the cervix, what might the problem be?
Q5) What are the potential effects of chromosomal abnormalities on the blastocyst?
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