Course Introduction
Nursing Anatomy Exam
Materials
Nursing Anatomy provides an in-depth exploration of the human body's structure and function, focusing on anatomical terminology, systems, and organs relevant to nursing practice. Students will learn about the organization of body tissues, major systems such as cardiovascular, respiratory, musculoskeletal, nervous, and integumentary, and their clinical significance to patient care. Emphasis is placed on understanding anatomical features in relation to common medical procedures and conditions, preparing future nurses to effectively assess, communicate, and respond to health needs in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy 4th Edition by Michael McKinley Dr
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28 Chapters
2698 Verified Questions
2698 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A First Look at Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The median space in the thoracic cavity is called the A)pleural cavity.
B)pericardial cavity.
C)mediastinum.
D)peritoneal cavity.
E)pericardium.
Answer: C
Q2) The directional term that means "in back of or toward the back surface" is A)posterior.
B)caudal.
C)cephalic.
D)anterior.
E)proximal.
Answer: A
Q3) A sagittal plane is a vertical line that divides the body into right and left parts.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Cell: Basic Unit of Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperplasia is defined as
A)the abnormal development of a tissue.
B)the movement or spread of malignant cells.
C)an abnormal growth of cells that invades surrounding tissue.
D)a generalized increase in the size of a part of an organ.
E)an increase in the normal number of cells within a tissue or organ.
Answer: E
Q2) The technical term for "cellular drinking" is _______________.
Answer: pinocytosis
Q3) An image produced by passing visible light through a specimen is obtained using the
A)transmission electron microscope.
B)light microscope.
C)scanning electron microscope.
D)dissecting scope.
E)ocular examination method.
Answer: B
Q4) A cell-mediated process that transports large molecules across the plasma membrane and out of the cell is called ________________.
Answer: exocytosis
4
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Chapter 3: Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not correct about fertilization?
A)It establishes the three primary germ layers.
B)It combines male and female genetic material.
C)It determines the sex of the organism.
D)It initiates cleavage.
E)It restores the diploid number of chromosomes.
Answer: A
Q2) The fetal period occurs during the
A)first three weeks of development.
B)third through the eighth week of development.
C)eighth through the twenty-fourth week of development.
D)last 30 weeks of development.
E)full term of pregnancy.
Answer: D
Q3) From which primary germ layer is the lining of the digestive tract derived?
A)Ectoderm
B)Mesoderm
C)Endoderm
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of epithelium has the appearance of a group of pillars lined up next to each other?
A)Simple squamous
B)Simple columnar
C)Simple cuboidal
D)Stratified squamous
E)Transitional
Q2) The walls of kidney tubules are formed by _____________ epithelium,which functions in resorbing materials filtered from blood plasma such as nutrients,ions,and water.
A)simple cuboidal
B)simple squamous
C)stratified cuboidal
D)stratified squamous
E)stratified columnar
Q3) If a person were unable to form saliva,what type of gland could be missing or malfunctioning?
A)Merocrine
B)Holocrine
C)Apocrine
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Chapter 5: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which number indicates a hair follicle?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q2) Among the uses of the yellow-orange pigment carotene is/are
A: Providing coloration to the skin
B: Acting as a precursor to Vitamin A
C: Reducing the number of potentially dangerous molecules formed during metabolic activity
D: Improving immune cell number
E: Improving immune cell activity
A)A,C,D,E
B)A,B,C,E
C)B,C,E
D)C,D,E
E)A,B,C,D,E
Q3) The epidermal ridges and dermal ________ increase the area of contact between the epidermis and dermis to help connect these layers.
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Chapter 6: Cartilage and Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteolysis is
A)demineralization due to hydrochloric acid activity.
B)the release of calcium and phosphate from the matrix.
C)the result of osteoclast activity.
D)the result of enzyme activity.
E)All of these answers are correct.
Q2) Which structure does not contain cartilage?
A)Larynx
B)Lung
C)Stomach
D)Knee
E)Ear
Q3) A fracture of the distal end of the radius is a _________ fracture.
Q4) Which type of cartilage is found in the intervertebral discs?
A)Hyaline cartilage
B)Fibrocartilage
C)Reticular cartilage
D)Articular cartilage
E)Elastic cartilage
Q5) Chondrocytes occupy spaces in the matrix called _________.
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Chapter 7: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sternal angle can be used as an anatomical landmark to identify the position of the
A)apex of the heart.
B)jugular vein.
C)second rib.
D)trachea.
E)hyoid bone.
Q2) This figure shows a superior view of a vertebra.Which number indicates the spinous process?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)6
E)7
Q3) Fontanelles persist into adulthood,but are usually gone by age 50.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The roof of the cranium is called the _________,or skullcap.
Q5) Each vertebral arch is composed of two pedicles and two _____________.
Page 9
Q6) The ________ forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum.
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Chapter 8: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows the humerus.The _________ articulates with the depression indicated by number 8.
A)head of the radius
B)trochlea of the radius
C)olecranon of the ulna
D)coronoid process of the ulna
E)styloid process of the ulna
Q2) A pollex has ______ phalanges.
A)2
B)3
C)14
D)10
E)7
Q3) This figure shows the bones of the ankle and foot.Which number indicates the lateral cuneiform bone?
A)2 B)6 C)7 D)8 E)9
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The joint known as the "wrist" is the radiocarpal joint.Why is the ulna not considered to be part of this joint?
A)There is no articular cartilage at the distal end of the ulna.
B)The ulna is fused to the carpals,preventing true articulation.
C)There is an articular disc between the ulna and the radiocarpal joint.
D)The radiocarpal joint is condylar,but the ulnar surface is planar.
E)The ulnar collateral ligament does not extend to the carpals.
Q2) Which is not a cartilaginous joint?
A)First costochondral joint
B)Intervertebral joint
C)Second costochondral joint
D)First sternocostal joint
E)Second sternocostal joint
Q3) Which is not a type of joint found in the foot?
A)Intertarsal
B)Tarsometatarsal
C)Metatarsophalangeal
D)Intermetatarsal
E)Interphalangeal
Q4) A joint in which the bone can move in two planes is said to be __________.
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue and Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of pennate muscle configuration is A)unipennate.
B)bipennate.
C)multipennate.
Q2) A muscle whose name has "profundus" in it is located A)on the front.
B)deep.
C)on the side.
D)parallel to the midline.
E)superficially.
Q3) ______________ are Z disc proteins that anchor and interconnect the thin filament ends at either end of a sarcomere.
Q4) When a muscle is isometrically contracted,its length _______ change. A)does
B)does not
Q5) A fan-shaped muscle that exerts a point-focused contraction force is a _______________ muscle.
Q6) Skeletal muscle contraction requires large amounts of energy in the form of ___________ in order to complete the sequence of cyclic events that lead to sarcomere shortening.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the abdominal muscles is innervated by spinal nerves T7-T12?
A)Rectus abdominis
B)Transversus abdominis
C)Internal oblique
D)External oblique
E)None of these choices is correct.
Q2) Muscles of the vertebral column are simple,having only one origin and one insertion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The superficial layer of the urogenital triangle contains three muscles.Select the exception.
A)Puborectalis
B)Bulbospongiosus
C)Ischiocavernosus
D)Superficial transverse perineal
Q4) As the diaphragm contracts,the vertical dimensions of the thoracic cavity are decreased.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of these muscles,except one,adduct the arm.Select the exception.
A)Infraspinatus
B)Teres minor
C)Supraspinatus
D)Coracobrachialis
E)Triceps brachii
Q2) Which muscle inserts on a tendon that extends toes 2-5?
A)Gastrocnemius
B)Extensor digitorum longus
C)Extensor hallucis longus
D)Fibularis longus
E)Tibialis anterior
Q3) What muscle is known as the "swimmer's muscle"?
A)Deltoid
B)Latissimus dorsi
C)Trapezius
D)Coracobrachialis
E)Triceps brachii
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14
Chapter 13: Surface Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The triangle of auscultation is so named because it is used to more clearly hear cardiac sounds.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The bulge under the mandible is the _________ gland,which is found in the _________ triangle.(Same word for both blanks).
Q3) The MP joint is the more distal of the MP,PIP,and DIP joints.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ______________ anatomy is the branch of gross anatomy that examines shapes and markings on the surface of the body as they relate to deeper structures.
Q5) The triangle of auscultation is bounded by the rhomboid major,the trapezius,and the A)deltoid.
B)occipitalis.
C)teres major.
D)gluteus maximus.
E)latissimus dorsi.
Q6) The posterior neck region is also referred to as the ______________ region.
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Chapter 14: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true regarding the action of an oligodendrocyte?
A)Each oligodendrocyte can form a myelin sheath around many axons simultaneously.
B)An oligodendrocyte is responsible for forming part of the blood-brain barrier.
C)Oligodendrocytes function only within the PNS.
D)Each oligodendrocyte can wrap only a 1mm portion of a single axon.
E)A neurolemmocyte attacks pathogens.
Q2) What do all glial cells have in common?
A)They help to transmit the nerve signals.
B)They transfer blood to the various neurons.
C)They assist neurons in their respective functions.
D)They all attack pathogens.
E)They absorb extra blood and cerebrospinal fluid.
Q3) The neurons that are responsible for integrating information by retrieving,processing,storing,and "deciding" how the body responds to stimuli are
A)sensory neurons.
B)motor neurons.
C)accessory neurons.
D)correlation neurons.
E)interneurons.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cranial nerve that passes through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone is the __________ nerve.
A)optic
B)olfactory
C)trigeminal
D)oculomotor
E)abducens
Q2) Association tracts
A)connect different regions of the cerebral cortex with the opposite hemisphere.
B)extend between the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
C)link the cerebral cortex to the caudal brain regions and the spinal cord.
D)connect different regions of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q3) The amount of CSF within the brain at any given moment
A)is about 500 ml.
B)is somewhere around 1,000 ml.
C)ranges between 100 ml and 160 ml.
D)is about 50-60 ml.
E)ranges between 300 ml and 420 ml.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The posterior horns of the spinal cord contain
A)axons of motor neurons and cell bodies of interneurons.
B)axons of sensory and motor neurons.
C)axons of interneurons.
D)axons of sensory neurons and cell bodies of interneurons.
E)autonomic motor neurons.
Q2) This figure shows an anterior view of the spinal cord and meninges.What structure does number 7 indicate?
A)Arachnoid
B)Pia mater
C)Dura mater
D)Gray matter
E)White matter
Q3) The inferior tip of the spinal cord is the ___________ part.
A)thoracic
B)lumbar
C)coccygeal
D)cervical
E)sacral
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Pathways and Integrative Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Error-correcting signals are sent from the cerebellum through the ___________ and the brainstem to the premotor and primary motor cortices.
A)thalamus
B)hypothalamus
C)pituitary
D)pineal body
E)pons
Q2) Which pathways conduct information about limb position and the sensations of touch,temperature,pressure,and pain?
A)Sensory pathways
B)Motor pathways
C)Descending pathways
D)Visceral pathways
E)Both sensory and motor pathways
Q3) Only a fraction of our sensory impulses reach our conscious awareness.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the brain,the ________ is the integration and command center for autonomic functions.
A)medulla
B)cerebral cortex
C)spinal cord
D)brainstem
E)hypothalamus
Q2) Parasympathetic postganglionic axons from the otic ganglion cause an increase in secretion from the parotid salivary glands.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ________ ganglia differ from the sympathetic trunk ganglia segments in that they are single structures,rather than paired.
Q4) An axon takes the ______ nerve pathway if a preganglionic neuron synapses with a ganglionic neuron in a sympathetic trunk ganglion.
Q5) During its embryological development,the autonomic nervous system forms from A)neural tube cells.
B)neural crest cells.
C)both neural tube cells and neural crest cells.
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Chapter 19: Senses: General and Special
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gustatory cells within a taste bud are specialized neuroepithelial cells that have a(n)_________ life span.
A)24-hour
B)7-10 day
C)2-4 week
D)one-year
E)undetermined
Q2) The feature of the eye that converts light rays to nerve impulses is the A)cornea.
B)conjunctiva.
C)sclera.
D)pigmented layer of the retina.
E)neural layer of the retina.
Q3) Ear development begins during the _____ week of embryonic life.
A)1st
B)2nd
C)4th
D)6th
E)8th
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows the pituitary gland.Which numbers indicate structures that belong to the anterior pituitary?
A)2,3,4
B)6,7
C)6
D)3,4,6
E)1,9
Q2) The target cells for melanocyte-stimulating hormone are the cells that produce melanin in the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which region of the adrenal cortex synthesizes glucocorticoids?
A)Zona reticularis
B)Zona glucosa
C)Zona papillarosa
D)Zona fasciculata
E)Zona glomerulosa
Q4) Somatostatin suppresses the release of pancreatic polypeptide.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The leukocyte that releases histamine is the A)eosinophil.
B)basophil.
C)lymphocyte.
D)neutrophil.
E)monocyte.
Q2) Simply put,antibodies are molecules on the lookout for antigens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because it is found outside of (rather than within)cells,plasma is considered to be an _______________ fluid.
Q4) The percentage of the volume of all formed elements in the blood is called the _______________.
Q5) Among the constituents of plasma,sodium,potassium,and bicarbonate ions are classified as A)nutrients.
B)respiratory gases. C)wastes.
D)electrolytes.
E)None of these choices is correct.
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Chapter 22: Heart
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Q1) As blood is pumped into the arterial trunks past the semilunar valves,it
A)pushes against the cusps,forcing the valves open.
B)pushes against the cusps,forcing the valves closed.
C)fills the cusps,causing them to expand and block the backflow of blood.
D)fills the cusps,causing them to expand and open up for the flow of blood.
E)None of these answers is correct.
Q2) Normal passage of blood from the atria to the ventricles only happens if the atrioventricular valves are open.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is the _____________ that permits the compression necessary to pump large volumes of blood out of the ventricles.
A)negative pressure inside the ventricles
B)absence of oxygenated blood in the atria
C)arrangement of cardiac muscle in the heart wall
D)presence of skeletal muscle tissue in the heart skeleton
E)presence of papillary muscles in the ventricles
Q4) The term used to describe the inadequate blood flow to a structure caused by obstruction of the blood supply is _________________.
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Chapter 23: Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) The popliteal artery supplies the A)hip joint.
B)ankle joint.
C)knee joint.
D)elbow joint.
E)palmar region.
Q2) A network of small arteries called the ___________ provides a blood supply to the tunica externa of very large vessels.
A)vasa vasorum
B)companion vessels
C)distributing arteries
D)fenestrated arteries
E)thoroughfare channels
Q3) The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the A)transverse colon.
B)transverse colon and descending colon.
C)sigmoid colon.
D)sigmoid colon and ascending colon.
E)transverse colon,descending colon,sigmoid colon,and rectum.
Q4) _________________ capillaries have pores within each endothelial cell.
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Chapter 24: Lymphatic System
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Q1) Lymphatic capillaries
A)are open at both ends.
B)are smaller in diameter than blood capillaries.
C)have wide gaps between endothelial cells.
D)lack a basement membrane.
E)are abundant in epithelial tissues.
Q2) The thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct empty lymph into the
A)superior vena cava.
B)subclavian veins.
C)inferior vena cava.
D)azygos vein.
E)brachiocephalic veins.
Q3) Which is not correct regarding the thymus gland?
A)It is a bilobed organ located in the mediastinum.
B)It is fully encapsulated by connective tissue.
C)Each thymic lobe is subdivided into lobules.
D)It reaches its maximum size at puberty,then regresses.
E)Its thymic corpuscles are the site of T-lymphocyte maturation.
Q4) Substances such as bacteria and viruses that are perceived as abnormal to the body and provoke an immune response are called ________________.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Respiratory System
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Q1) Which statement is true regarding secondary bronchi?
A)The right lung has two secondary bronchi and the left lung has three secondary bronchi.
B)The left lung has two secondary bronchi and the right lung has three secondary bronchi.
C)Each lung has two secondary bronchi.
D)Each lung has three secondary bronchi.
E)Each lung has four secondary bronchi.
Q2) Into what region of the pharynx do auditory tubes open?
A)Oropharynx
B)Nasopharynx
C)Laryngopharynx
Q3) In a patient with pneumonia,fluid and _________ accumulate in the lung alveoli.
A)erythrocytes
B)septal cells
C)leukocytes
D)chyme
E)mast cells
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Chapter 26: Digestive System
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Q1) The gastroenterologist has just determined that you have a blockage in your jejunum and he will have to perform surgery,making a small incision in the wall to remove the obstruction.What tunic will be cut first?
A)Mucosa
B)Submucosa
C)Tunica muscularis
D)Serosa
E)Adventitia
Q2) Which term describes the opening from the oral cavity to the oropharynx?
A)Fauces
B)Choana
C)Conchae
D)Fossae
E)Glossus
Q3) The process of swallowing is also called _____________.
Q4) With increasing age,the likelihood of developing GERD is increased.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Chewed food mixed with saliva is called a _____________,which is swallowed once mastication is complete.
28
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Chapter 27: Urinary System
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Q1) Which is not correct regarding the urinary bladder?
A)There are two ureteral openings.
B)The inferior portion of the bladder is called the apex.
C)The bladder is held in place by the median umbilical ligament.
D)The mucosa has rugae for distension.
E)The peritoneum covers only the superior surface of the bladder.
Q2) The capillaries of the glomerulus differ from other capillary networks in the body because they
A)carry only deoxygenated blood.
B)drain into an arteriole instead of a venule.
C)contain no endothelium.
D)absorb nutrients from the glomerular capsule.
E)secrete mucus.
Q3) The urinary and reproductive systems develop from A)mesoderm.
B)ectoderm.
C)endoderm.
D)mesoderm and ectoderm.
E)endoderm and ectoderm.
Q4) In males,the proximal portion of the urethra is called the __________ urethra.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The myometrium of the uterus is composed of A)skeletal muscle.
B)mucous membrane.
C)fibrous connective tissue.
D)loose connective tissue.
E)smooth muscle.
Q2) What is the correct order for the segments of the uterine tube,beginning at the ovary?
A)Infundibulum - isthmus - ampulla - uterine part
B)Uterine part - infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus
C)Ampulla - infundibulum - uterine part - isthmus
D)Infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus - uterine part
E)Uterine part - isthmus - ampulla - infundibulum
Q3) The ______________ is a comma-shaped structure that lies on the surface of the testis,and includes a head,body,and tail.
Q4) Decreased testosterone levels in males in their 50s signal a change called the male
Q5) In females,the _______ triangle contains the clitoris and the urethral and vaginal orifices.
Q6) The _______________ cells support,nourish,and protect developing sperm cells.
Page 30
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