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Nursing Anatomy and Physiology provides students with a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the human body, emphasizing the interrelationships between organ systems. This course covers critical concepts such as cell structure, tissue types, and the anatomy and physiology of major systems including the nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, musculoskeletal, and urinary systems. Special attention is given to physiological processes and how they relate to health, illness, and nursing practice. Through integrated lectures and hands-on laboratory experiences, students gain essential knowledge required to assess, monitor, and support patients physiological well-being in a clinical setting.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Anatomy and Physiology 7th Edition by Valerie C. Scanlon
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Q1) The most superior area of the lower limb is the ____________________ area. Answer: femoral
Q2) Superior to the abdominal cavity is the muscle called the ____________________.
Answer: diaphragm
Q3) The lower boundary of the upper right and left abdominal quadrants is a line through the:
A)umbilicus
B)spleen
C)stomach
D)liver
Answer: A
Q4) The two iliac areas would be separated by which section of the body?
A)cross
B)frontal
C)midsagittal
D)midtransverse
Answer: C
Q5) The abdominal organs are covered by a membrane called the ____________________.
Answer: mesentery
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Q1) Which organic molecule is NOT part of cell membranes?
A)glucose
B)protein
C)phospholipid
D)cholesterol
Answer: A
Q2) The storage form for glucose in the liver is:
A)glycogen
B)true fats
C)pentose sugars
D)oligosaccharides
Answer: A
Q3) The term dissociation refers to:
A)ionic bonds
B)the breaking of bonds in a water solution
C)both A and B
D)both A and B and covalent bonds
Answer: C
Q4) The function of enzymes is to be ____________________,which speed up reactions.
Answer: catalysts
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Q1) A solution with a lesser salt concentration than cells is said to be:
A)hypertonic
B)hypotonic
C)isotonic
D)ginantonic
Answer: B
Q2) The cell organelles that sweep materials across a cell surface are ____________________.
Answer: (motile)cilia
Q3) The cell organelles that destroy damaged or misfolded proteins are the ____________________ .
Answer: proteasomes
Q4) In the process of active transport,molecules move from an area of ____________________ to an area of ____________________.
Answer: lesser concentration,greater concentration
Q5) Lysosomes are cell organelles that contain ____________________ to destroy pathogens or damaged cellular parts.
Answer: enzymes
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Q1) The cells that destroy pathogens that have entered the body are the:
A)platelets
B)RBCs
C)chondrocytes
D)WBCs
Q2) Fibroblasts are cells that produce:
A)the proteins collagen and elastin in connective tissues
B)the muscle fibers in skeletal muscle
C)the proteins in muscle tissue
D)the fibers in nerve tissue
Q3) Cartilage matrix differs from bone matrix in that cartilage is ____________________ and bone is not.
Q4) Red blood cells are produced in:
A)the liver
B)the red bone marrow
C)the spleen
D)all of these
Q5) The epidermis of the skin is made of ____________________ epithelium to help prevent water loss.
Q6) The type of muscle tissue found in the uterus is ____________________.
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Q1) In a cold environment,the arterioles in the dermis will:
A)dilate to lose heat
B)constrict to lose heat
C)constrict to conserve heat
D)dilate to conserve heat
Q2) The ____________________ secreted by the ____________________ inhibits the growth of bacteria on the skin.
Q3) The part of the integumentary system that connects the skin to the muscles is the:
A)epidermis
B)dermis
C)subcutaneous tissue
D)mucous membrane
Q4) The cutaneous receptors for pain are:
A)free nerve endings in the dermis
B)free nerve endings of Langerhans cells
C)encapsulated nerve endings in the dermis
D)encapsulated nerve endings in the epidermis
Q5) In the superficial fascia,the tissue that contains many white blood cells is
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Q1) An example of a gliding joint is the joint between two:
A)vertebrae
B)phalanges
C)ribs
D)carpals
Q2) The parts of the sternum are the ____________________,the body,and the ____________________.
Q3) The function of osteoblasts is to ____________________.
Q4) An example of a pivot joint is the:
A)atlas and axis
B)humerus and ulna
C)mandible and temporal bone
D)carpal and metacarpal of the thumb
Q5) The manubrium of the ____ articulates with the ____.
A)sternum/clavicles
B)clavicles/sternum
C)clavicles/ribs
D)ribs/sternum
Q6) The mastoid sinus is in the ____________________ bone and opens into the ____________________ cavity.
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Q1) The organ system that transmits impulses to muscles to cause contraction is the:
A)nervous system
B)circulatory system
C)skeletal system
D)respiratory system
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of muscle tone? (Read carefully and select all of the correct statements.)
A)Good tone improves coordination.
B)It is a state of slight contraction.
C)The parietal lobes regulate skeletal muscle tone.
D)It is independent of nerve impulses except in stress situations.
E)The total muscle tone of the body produces a significant amount of body heat.
F)In a cold environment,decreased muscle tone is often felt as shiverin
Q3) Which statement is NOT true of the energy sources for muscle contraction?
A)When ATP is used up,muscle fatigue begins.
B)Glycogen is a form of stored energy.
C)Glycogen is made from glucose.
D)Creatine phosphate is a secondary energy source.
Q4) The organ system that is moved by muscles is the ____________________ system.
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Q5) Muscles that move the forearm must cross the ____________________ joint.

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Q1) In a cross-section of the spinal cord,the ____________________ matter is interior and is surrounded by the ____________________ matter.
Q2) Which body response is NOT paired with the correct division of the autonomic nervous system?
A)increased heart rate - sympathetic
B)bronchioles constrict - parasympathetic
C)vasodilation in muscles - sympathetic D)pupils constrict - sympathetic
Q3) Ascending tracts of the spinal cord may also be called ____________________ tracts,and descending tracts may also be called ____________________ tracts.
Q4) Which part of the brain is NOT paired with its correct function?
A)cerebellum - regulates coordination
B)pons - regulates blood pressure
C)thalamus - suppresses unimportant sensations
D)hypothalamus - produces ADH
Q5) The tissue fluid of the brain is ____________________.
Q6) The two largest parts of the right general sensory area of the cerebral cortex are for the ____________________.
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Q1) Pain that originates in an internal organ but is felt as cutaneous pain is called:
A)visceral pain
B)referred pain
C)deferred pain
D)psychogenic pain
Q2) The cutaneous receptors for pain and itch are called ____ and are found mainly in the ____.
A)free nerve endings/dermis
B)free nerve endings/epidermis
C)encapsulated nerve endings/dermis
D)encapsulated nerve endings/epidermis
Q3) The cranial nerve pair concerned with equilibrium is the ____________________.
Q4) The fluid of the eye that nourishes the lens and cornea is the ____________________.
Q5) The auditory areas are located in the ____________________ lobes of the ____________________.
Q6) The part of a sensory pathway that carries impulses to the central nervous system is the ____________________.
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Q7) Many of the sensory areas are located in the cerebral ____________________.

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Q1) Protein hormones are believed to exert their effects by activating certain ____ within a cell.
A)other hormones
B)enzymes
C)ribonucleic acid (RNA)molecules
D)genes
Q2) Epinephrine is secreted in ____ situations and mimics the effects of the ____ nervous system.
A)nonstressful/sympathetic
B)stressful/parasympathetic
C)nonstressful/parasympathetic
D)stressful/sympathetic
Q3) Which statement is NOT true of the male sex hormones?
A)FSH initiates sperm production in the testes.
B)Inhibin increases the secretion of FSh.
C)Testosterone is necessary for maturation of sperm.
D)LH increases the secretion of testosterone.
Q4) The direct stimulus for the secretion of estrogen is ____________________.
Q5) The pancreatic hormone that increases the conversion of glycogen to glucose by the liver is ____________________.
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Q1) Blood viscosity is created by ____ and is important to maintain normal ____.
A)platelets/flow
B)reticulocytes/blood oxygen level
C)WBCs/immunity
D)albumin/blood pressure
Q2) The viscosity of the blood is its ____________________ and depends on the presence of the plasma protein ____________________.
Q3) An abnormal clot that forms within a vessel is called a(n)____________________.
Q4) Old RBCs are phagocytized by macrophages in all of these organs except the:
A)red bone marrow
B)liver
C)spleen
D)lymph nodes
Q5) The hemoglobin value in a CBC has a normal range of ____________________ to ____________________ grams/100 mL of blood.
Q6) If less carbon dioxide is carried by the blood,the pH of the blood will
Q7) In the process of chemical clotting,the result of the second stage is
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Q1) The inferior vena cava returns blood from the ____________________ to the ____________________ of the heart.
Q2) Exercise cardiac output is 10,070 mL.What are the pulse and stroke volume?
A)102 bpm and 96 mL
B)104 bpm and 99 mL
C)106 bpm and 95 mL
D)108 bpm and 100 mL
Q3) The sensory nerves for the carotid and aortic receptors are the:
A)glossopharyngeal and vagus
B)vagus and accessory
C)accessory and facial
D)facial and glossopharyngeal
Q4) To calculate cardiac output,multiply ____________________ times ____________________.
Q5) The electrical activity of the heart may be seen in a tracing called a(n)____________________.
Q6) The part of the heart that initiates each beat is the ____________________,which is located in the ____________________.
Q7) Within the heart,backflow of blood is prevented by the ____________________.
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Q1) During exercise,blood flow to the skeletal muscles will:
A)increase
B)decrease
C)remain the same
D)be unpredictable
Q2) The circle of Willis is formed by the two ____________________ arteries and the ____________________ artery.
Q3) Two hormones that affect blood pressure because they affect blood volume are ____________________ and ____________________.
Q4) Veins are able to constrict and increase venous return because of their:
A)smooth muscle receiving parasympathetic impulses
B)valves receiving parasympathetic impulses
C)smooth muscle receiving sympathetic impulses
D)valves receiving sympathetic impulses
Q5) If venous return decreases,cardiac output will ____________________.
Q6) The function of valves in veins is to ____________________.
Q7) Two hormones that affect blood pressure because they affect the diameter of blood vessels are ____________________ and ____________________.
Q8) In veins,backflow of blood is prevented by ____________________.
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Q1) Backflow of lymph in the larger lymph vessels is prevented by ____________________.
Q2) Placental transmission of maternal antibodies to a fetus provides ____________________ acquired ____________________ immunity.
Q3) In the fetus,the organ that is important for the normal development of the immune system is the:
A)liver
B)spleen
C)thymus gland
D)lymph node
Q4) In adaptive immunity,the labeling of a foreign antigen by antibodies is called ____________________ and it results in ____________________ of the antigen.
Q5) In adaptive immunity,the ____________________ T cells activate B cells.
Q6) During the second exposure to a pathogen such as the chickenpox virus,antibodies are produced at a ____________________ rate of speed and in ____________________ amounts.
Q7) The component of immunity that is not specific to antigen is ____________________ immunity.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the upper respiratory tract? (Read carefully and select all of the correct statements.)
A)The stratified squamous epithelium of the nasal mucosa is a good barrier to pathogens.
B)The nasopharynx and oropharynx are air passages only.
C)The tonsils are the lymphatic tissue of the pharynx.
D)The nasal mucosa warms and moistens inhaled air.
E)The conchae increase the surface area of the nasopharynx.
F)The laryngopharynx opens into the larynx and the esophagus.
Q2) To compensate for a metabolic acidosis,the respiratory rate will ____________________ in order to ____________________ more carbon dioxide.
Q3) During breathing,the pleural membranes are kept together by the presence of ____________________.
Q4) Oxygen is released from hemoglobin to tissues when the PO<sub>2</sub> is ____________________ and the PCO<sub>2</sub> is ____________________.
Q5) The central nervous system (CNS)respiratory centers are located in the ____________________ and ____________________.
Q6) During swallowing,the larynx is covered by the ____________________.
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Q1) The function of the parietal cells of the gastric mucosa is to secrete:
A)pepsinogen
B)hydrochloric acid
C)gastrin
D)mucus
Q2) The liver synthesizes the nonessential amino acids by a process called:
A)protein synthesis
B)interamination
C)deamination
D)transamination
Q3) The process of breaking food into smaller pieces with more surface area is called:
A)chemical digestion
B)energy digestion
C)cell respiration
D)mechanical digestion
Q4) The ____________________ colon turns inferiorly at the spleen and continues as the ____________________ colon.
Q5) The ____________________ in saliva digests starch to maltose.
Q6) In gastric juice,pepsin is activated by ____________________.
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Q1) In cell respiration,the minerals ____________________ and ____________________ are part of some cytochromes.
Q2) Metabolism is the collective term for:
A)synthesis reactions
B)decomposition reactions
C)both A and B
D)both A and B and all other reactions in the body
Q3) A cheeseburger consists of 50 grams of protein,50 grams of carbohydrates,and 80 grams of fat.How many kilocalories are in this cheeseburger?
A)1080 kcal
B)1100 kcal
C)1120 kcal
D)1140 kcal
Q4) In cell respiration,the energy product that contributes to body temperature is:
A)ATP
B)ADP
C)heat
D)light
Q5) The term for the total heat production by the body is ____________________.
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Q1) As part of the urination reflex,the internal urethral sphincter:
A)relaxes
B)contracts
C)goes into spasm
D)constricts
Q2) The renal pelvis is the:
A)cavity on the lateral side of the kidney
B)cavity on the medial side of the kidney
C)junction of the kidney and urethra
D)location of the kidney in the pelvic cavity
Q3) The trigone is on the ____________________ of the urinary bladder,and its boundaries are the openings of the ____________________ and ____________________.
Q4) In the kidneys,the processes of reabsorption and secretion take place in the ____________________ portion of the nephron.
Q5) Voluntary control of the urination reflex is provided by the ____,which ____.
A)internal urethral sphincter/contracts to permit urination
B)external urethral sphincter/contracts to prevent urination
C)internal urethral sphincter/relaxes to permit urination
D)external urethral sphincter/relaxes to prevent urination
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Q1) If the osmolarity of a solution decreases,this means that the relative amount of ____________________ has increased.
Q2) Most of the loss of body water is by way of ____________________,and secondary losses are by way of ____________________ and ____________________.
Q3) The term osmolarity means the:
A)receptors in the medulla that detect water
B)concentration of dissolved materials in a solution
C)movement of water through a membrane to an area of less salt
D)diffusion of water
Q4) Intracellular fluid makes up approximately ____ of the total body fluid and is found
A)one-fourth/within cells
B)one-third/surrounding cells
C)one-half/surrounding cells
D)two-thirds/within cells
Q5) Metabolic water is the water produced in the body during ____________________.
Q6) If the kidneys are excreting fewer hydrogen ions,the pH of body fluids will probably
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Q7) The specialized fluid ____________________ prevents friction in joints.
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Q1) Which statement is NOT true of the male reproductive glands?
A)The seminal vesicles and bulbourethral glands produce alkaline secretions.
B)The prostate gland contributes to ejaculation.
C)The secretion of the seminal vesicles contains fructose.
D)The bulbourethral glands empty into the prostate gland.
Q2) The myometrium of the uterus is made of ____________________ tissue,and its function is to ____________________.
Q3) In the ovary,the hormone that initiates development of an ovum is ____________________,which is secreted by the ____________________ gland.
Q4) The function of the flagellum of a sperm cell is ____________________.
Q5) From the ductus deferens,the ducts that carry sperm are the ____________________ and the ____________________.
Q6) The cervix of the uterus opens into the ____________________.
Q7) The ____________________ layer of the endometrium is lost in menstruation,then regenerated by the ____________________ layer.
Q8) The part of a sperm cell that contains the chromosomes is the ____________________.
Q9) The site of sperm deposition in women is the ____________________.
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Q1) A person who has two different genes for a particular trait is said to be:
A)homologous
B)homozygous
C)heterologous
D)heterozygous
Q2) For people,having dimples is dominant and having no dimples is recessive. Genetics problem: Dad has no dimples and Mom is homozygous for dimples.The percent chance that a child of theirs will NOT have dimples is ____________________.
Q3) The umbilical arteries carry blood from the ____________________ to the ____________________.
Q4) The sex chromosomes in women are called:
A)XX
B)YY
C)XY
D)XZ
Q5) The sex chromosomes in women are called ____________________.
Q6) A person has two genes for each genetic trait,and these genes are called ____________________ and ____________________.
Q7) During the ____________________ stage of labor,the cervix dilates.
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Q1) A disease that may be spread directly or indirectly from host to host is considered ____________________.
Q2) Septicemia is the presence of bacteria in the ____________________.
Q3) For viruses spread by vectors,the portal of entry is the ____________________.
Q4) The vector of epidemic typhus is a:
A)mosquito
B)tick
C)flea
D)louse
Q5) An infection that begins suddenly or progresses rapidly is called ____________________.
Q6) Bacterial cells that have capsules are:
A)able to resist phagocytosis by the host's WBCs
B)able to move by sliding
C)likely to be stuck in the host's respiratory mucus
D)able to resist boiling
Q7) A self-limiting disease is one that ____________________.
Q8) Skin is an excellent barrier to pathogens unless it is ____________________.
Q9) Worms are endoparasites,which means they affect the Page 24
Q10) Sources of infection for people are,in general,called ____________________.
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