Non-Majors Biology Question
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Course Introduction
Non-Majors Biology provides an accessible introduction to the fundamental principles of biological science for students not specializing in biology. The course covers key concepts such as the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasis is placed on the relevance of biology to everyday life, current issues in biology, and the impact of biological advances on society. Laboratory and discussion components offer hands-on experience and foster critical thinking about scientific processes and discoveries. This course is designed to build scientific literacy and appreciation for the living world, making biological concepts engaging and applicable for non-science majors.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 11th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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2342 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: A View of Life
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Q1) A study is conducted to determine the average length and weight of loblolly pine tree needles in the southeast United States.Is this data obtained through observation or experimentation?
A)Observation
B)Experimentation
C)Neither observation nor experimentation
D)Both observation and experimentation
Answer: A
Q2) A cell is to a tissue as an atom is to a:
A)molecule
B)subatomic particle
C)electron
D)population
Answer: A
Q3) Both living and nonliving entities adapt to the environment
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The scale ranges from 1 to 15.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following elements is NOT one of the six most common elements in living organisms?
A)carbon
B)oxygen
C)iron
D)nitrogen
E)hydrogen
Answer: C
Q3) In a water molecule,
A)the oxygen atom is more electronegative than the hydrogen atoms.
B)the oxygen atom has an overall negative charge with the hydrogen atoms having an overall positive charge.
C)unequal sharing of electrons results in a polar molecule.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Chemistry of Organic Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Waxes consist of a glycerol bonded to three long-chain fatty acids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which statement below correctly describes why ATP is a high energy structure?
A)ATP contains 2 phosphate bonds that contain high levels of energy
B)ATP contains hydro-carbon chains that hold energy
C)ATP is composed of thymine which is a high energy molecule
D)the last two phosphate bonds are unstable and easily broken
E)the first phosphate bond is unstable and easily broken
Answer: D
Q3) A dehydration reaction can also be called a (an)_________ reaction since it forms water.
A)condensation
B)hydrolysis
C)isomeric
D)an energy-releasing
E)monomer formation
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is housed within the nucleus,but the mRNA code needs to leave in order to be translated into a protein.How does the mRNA code leave the nucleus if the nucleus is surrounded by the nuclear envelope?
A)The nuclear envelope dissolves in order to allow the mRNA code to leave.
B)The nuclear envelope contains pores that allow the mRNA to exit through.
C)A vesicle will bud off from the nuclear envelope containing the mRNA.
D)The mRNA will be coded into a protein within the nucleus.Then the protein leaves the nucleus.
Q2) Which cellular organelle is the most prominent?
A)nucleus
B)nucleolus
C)lysosome
D)mitochondria
Q3) If a researcher was interested in slowing down the movement of amoebas by disrupting their cell membranes,which protein filaments should she be studying?
A)actin
B)intermediates
C)microtubules
D)myosin
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Membrane Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cell junction will allow the movement of molecules between two plant cells?
A)plasmodesmata
B)gap
C)tight
D)adhesion
Q2) Which type of cellular process will most likely be used by an amoeba in order to obtain food?
A)phagocytosis
B)pinocytosis
C)exocytosis
D)receptor-mediated endocytosis
Q3) Which process is responsible for moving cellular wastes across the cell membrane?
A)endocytosis
B)exocytosis
C)pinocytosis
D)receptor-mediated endocytosis
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes
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Q1) Which statement is NOT true about enzyme inhibition?
A)In competitive inhibition,the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme.
B)In noncompetitive inhibition,the inhibitor binds to the allosteric site of the substrate.
C)In irreversible inhibition,a poison binds to the enzyme so that it can never work again.
D)Most inhibitors act in a reversible fashion.
E)All of the statements are true.
Q2) Which form of energy is NOT correctly associated with the related example?
A)kinetic energy: fat molecules
B)kinetic energy: movement of muscles
C)chemical energy: glucose
D)potential energy: water held behind a dam
E)potential energy: ATP
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a form of potential energy?
A)food
B)water in a dam
C)a muscle contracting
D)All of the choices are not potential energy.
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is most closely associated with the Calvin cycle?
A)ATP production
B)oxygen production
C)carbon dioxide fixation
D)carbon dioxide production
E)removal of electrons from water for passage through an electron transport system
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about the noncyclic electron pathway?
A)Electrons are boosted to higher energy level in Photosystem I.
B)Sunlight excites electrons in Photosystem II.
C)It produces ATP.
D)It produces NADPH.
E)It produces carbohydrates through carbon dioxide fixation.
Q3) If plants were only able to undergo the cyclic pathway,which of the following would NOT be true?
A)Plants would not produce oxygen.
B)Carbohydrate could still be produced but in much smaller quantities.
C)More NADPH would be produced during the cyclic electron pathway.
D)ATP production would decrease due to a smaller amount of H<sup>+</sup> being available.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Cellular Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why would an organism utilize alcohol fermentation if it is wasteful of the energy in food molecules and poses a threat of death due to high levels of toxic alcohol?
A)The organism can survive short spells of anaerobic conditions and maintain growth and reproduction.
B)If glucose levels are not high,there may be time to disperse the alcohol "waste."
C)Fermentation can provide a rapid burst of ATP since it does not have to go through the full breakdown cycle.
D)All of the choices are advantages.
E)None of the choices is an advantage; anaerobes only survive where aerobes cannot.
Q2) The final electron acceptor in glycolysis is oxygen and this step will occur within the matrix of the mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Glycolysis produces 1 pyruvate and 3 NADH coenzymes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Cell Cycle and Cellular Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to mitosis but not to cytokinesis?
A)it contains a checkpoint that will evaluate the quality of the cell
B)requires a large amount of ATP in order for the cellular mechanisms to function
C)if it is disrupted it can lead to an abnormal cell
D)it results in two daughter cells that are half the size of the original cell
Q2) Apoptosis
A)is programmed cell death.
B)is a process that acts to decrease the number of somatic cells.
C)frees the fingers and toes of the human embryo from their 'webbed' structure to independent structures.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The region that contains the genetic information in a bacterial cell is called the A)nucleus. B)nucleoid.
C)nucleolus.
D)nucleosome.
E)nucleoprotein.
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Chapter 10: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following steps would NOT lead to variation of genetic material?
A)crossing over of homologous chromosomes
B)crossing over of sister chromatids
C)the random alignment of the chromosomes during metaphase I
D)the combination of sperm and egg genes
Q2) Sex chromosome aneuploids are better tolerated and have a better chance of producing survivors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is true about the life cycle of plants but not of animals?
A)the gametophyte can be larger than the diploid generation
B)they use sexual reproduction to produce new offspring
C)they use meiosis in order to produce the gametes
D)they will have a haploid and diploid phase of the life cycle
Q4) In human females,when is meiosis II completed?
A)at ovulation
B)immediately after the sperm penetration of the secondary oocyte
C)immediately after the sperm penetrates the primary oocyte
D)None of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 11: Mendelian Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a pea plant shows a recessive phenotype,
A)the genotype may be TT or Tt.
B)the genotype may be Tt or tt.
C)the genotype can only be TT.
D)the genotype can only be tt.
E)the genotype may be TT,Tt,or tt.
Q2) Cystic fibrosis and Niemann-Pick Disease are common autosomal dominant disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which characteristic of pea plants were important in their selection as Mendel's research organism?
A)Peas are easy to cultivate.
B)Pea plants have a short generation time.
C)Pea plants are self-pollinating but can be cross-fertilized easily.
D)Many true-breeding varieties were available.
E)All of the above were important characteristics in Mendel's selection.
Q4) Each gamete carries one factor,now called an allele,for each inherited trait.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Molecular Biology of the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first codon to be deciphered was ______,which codes for ________.
A)AAA,proline
B)GGG,alanine
C)UUU,phenylalanine
D)TTT,arginine
E)CCC,glycine
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about DNA replication?
A)It proceeds in a 5'-to-3' direction only.
B)One strand of new DNA is replicated faster than the other strand at the replication fork.
C)DNA can only replicate at one point on a chromosome at one time.
D)It occurs more rapidly in bacteria than in eukaryotes.
E)Replication can only begin at a special origin of replication.
Q3) In the Watson and Crick model of DNA,the "steps" of the ladder are composed of A)sugars.
B)a purine and a pyrimidine.
C)two purines.
D)two pyrimidines.
E)a sugar and a phosphate molecule.
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Chapter 13: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DNA of a _______ is wrapped around histone molecules to form a "beaded string."
A)prokaryote
B)eukaryote
C)bacterium
D)All of the above.
Q2) When a bacterium is introduced to a new environment that is an appropriate medium for that species to grow,fission allows a rapid expansion of the population (2-4-8-16-32-64 ...etc.).But there is usually a slight lag before the bacteria actually begin building up such a logarithmic growth curve.What is the best explanation?
A)It takes time for sub-cellular units to evolve the ability to digest new media.
B)A bacterium is not actively producing all the enzymes it can code for,and it takes time to induce and amplify the production of the currently needed enzymes.
C)Binary fission becomes more and more efficient.
D)A new media dissolves away repressor proteins.
E)Structural genes act more slowly than metabolic genes.
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true about restriction enzymes EXCEPT
A)they are made by bacteria and viruses.
B)hundreds of different ones have been isolated and purified.
C)they produce single-stranded complementary ends that can join to two different DNA strands by complementary base pairing.
D)each enzyme cuts DNA at a different specific base sequence.
Q2) A transgenic organism is
A)one that contains a gene from another organism of the same or different species.
B)one produced by cloning a mutant cell.
C)one that acts as the donor for DNA to be moved into another organism.
D)one produced by the polymerase chain reaction.
E)any genetically modified organism resulting from laboratory research.
Q3) To carry out a polymerase chain reaction (PCR),you must have DNA polymerase and A)a blueprint or gene map of the sequence you wish to copy.
B)the nucleotides to synthesize new DNA strands.
C)a DNA synthesizer machine.
D)a DNA probe.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Darwin and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which naturalist wrote a 44-volume natural history on plants and animals,and suggested migration,environmental influences,isolation,and overcrowding might affect how organisms descend with modifications?
A)Darwin
B)Lamarck
C)Cuvier
D)Lyell
E)Leclerc
Q2) Cutting off the tails of mice over several generations should cause the tails of their offspring to become shorter,according to the ideas of which of these scientists?
A)Darwin
B)Lamarck
C)Cuvier
D)Lyell
Q3) Which of the following ideas was most commonly held in the eighteenth century?
A)evolution by natural selection over time
B)genetic change through mutation
C)the fixity of species
D)changes in a species through adaptation to the environment
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Page 17
Chapter 16: How Populations Evolve
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perissodus are small,scale-eating fish that live in Lake Tanganyika in Africa.They attack larger fish from behind.The right-mouthed Perissodus attack on the left side of the larger fish and the left-mouthed Perissodus attack on the right side of the larger fish.The existence of the right-mouthed variety ensures the equally successful existence of the left-mouthed variety.This is an example of:
A)a heterozygous advantage
B)frequency dependent selection
C)genetic drift
D)sexual selection
Q2) In the case of the peppered moths in England,when Kettlewell set up cameras to document that more white or black moths were eaten by birds on clean or sooty trees,he was verifying which factor involved in evolution by natural selection?
A)The organisms vary in traits and that these traits may be acquired during a lifetime.
B)The variation is inherited.
C)More young are born than can survive,so there will always be competition.
D)Some individuals are better adapted to a particular environment than other individuals.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Speciation and Macroevolution
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Q1) In which model of evolution are many transitional forms predicted?
A)punctuated equilibrium
B)gradualistic
C)Neither punctuated equilibrium or gradualistic.
D)Both punctuated equilibrium and gradualistic.
Q2) Female Anolis distinguish males of their species by the color of their dewlap,a colorful flap of skin in the neck region.This is an example of
A)a postzygotic isolating mechanism.
B)a prezygotic isolating mechanism.
C)temporal isolation.
D)hybrid inviability.
Q3) A _____ is the first cell that results when an egg is fertilized by a sperm.
A)spermatogonium
B)gastrula
C)zygote
D)blastula
Q4) Diagnostic traits can be used to distinguish between species of living organisms only.
A)True
B)False
19
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Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life
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Q1) The formation of the ozone shield during the Precambrian era created favorable conditions for the evolution of terrestrial life forms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following molecules are believed to have been absent from the primitive reducing atmosphere?
A)water vapor (H<sub>2</sub>O)
B)carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)
C)hydrogen (H<sub>2</sub>)
D)oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)
E)nitrogen (N<sub>2</sub>)
Q3) If the hypothesis that protocells were based on an "RNA world" is correct,what would be necessary to shift to a "DNA world"?
A)an enzyme or reaction capable of removing one oxygen from ribose in nucleotides
B)enzymes for reverse transcription of RNA into DNA
C)new enzymes to replicate the DNA
D)new enzymes for transcribing DNA back to RNA
E)All would be necessary to switch to a "DNA world."
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Chapter 19: Taxonomy,systematics,and Phylogeny
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phylogenetic trees with proportional branch lengths
A)indicate relatedness among organisms.
B)indicate the relative number of nucleotide pair differences between groups.
C)are constructed by comparing DNA sequences of homologous genes and calibrating this molecular clock with the fossil record.
D)All of the above are true.
E)indicate relatedness evolutionary time.
Q2) Order these major taxonomic categories into an increasingly inclusive hierarchy.
A)genus,species,class,order,family,domain,kingdom,phylum
B)species,genus,family,order,class,phylum,kingdom,domain
C)domain,kingdom,phylum,class,order,family,genus,species
D)class,order,family,genus,species,kingdom,phylum,domain
Q3) Which of the following best represents analogous structures?
A)the arm of a human and the wing of a bat
B)the arm of a human and the leg of a human
C)the wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bee
D)the wing of a bat and the wing of a butterfly
Q4) New data about rRNA led to the three domain system of classification.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Viruses,bacteria,and Archaea
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Q1) An environmental change,such as exposure to ultraviolet light,may cause a lysogenic bacterium to enter a lytic cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a virus is latent,it
A)cannot be a retrovirus.
B)has not entered a lytic cycle.
C)has not entered a lysogenic cycle.
D)is gaining a new envelope via "budding."
E)is easy to develop immunity against it.
Q3) Which group of Archaea are chemoautotrophic anaerobes that will use hydrogen as an electron donor?
A)Halophiles
B)Methanogens
C)Thermoacidophiles
D)Cyanobacteria
Q4) A lichen is a symbiotic relationship between cyanobacteria and fungi.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Protist Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) Which disease is mismatched with the incorrect causative agent?
A)fish kills - dinoflagellate
B)fish ick - a ciliate
C)malaria - an amebozoan
D)African sleeping sickness - a trypanosome
Q2) A flagellated protist that is sexually transmitted is
A)Plasmodium.
B)Giardia.
C)Entamoeba.
D)Trichomonas.
E)Paramecium.
Q3) The 1840s Irish potato famine was caused by a water mold parasite on potatoes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the characteristic(s)apply to the Supergroup Archaeplastida?
A)They contain plastids that originated from endosymbiotic cyanobacteria.
B)They include multicellular and unicellular organisms.
C)They include land plants and the green algae,Chlorophyta.
D)All of the above apply.
E)They include only multicellular organisms that contain plastids.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Fungi Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following statements describes a mycorrhizae?
A)A mycorrhizae is a mutualistic relationship between fungi and the roots of most plants.
B)A mycorrhizae is a mutualistic relationship between bacteria and the roots of most plants.
C)A mycorrhizae is a parasitic relationship between bacteria and the roots of most plants.
D)None of these statements describes a mycorrhizae.
Q2) Crustose,fruticose,and foliose are varieties of A)rusts and smuts.
B)mushrooms. C)yeasts. D)lichens.
E)mycorrhizae.
Q3) An asexual spore produced by a sac fungus or club fungus is called a(n) A)mycelium.
B)conidiospore.
C)ascospore.
D)basidiospore. E)hypha.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Plant Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) As plants invaded the land,there was
A)greater availability of light for photosynthesis.
B)greater concentrations of carbon dioxide.
C)increased threat of desiccation of unprotected cells.
D)All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following statements about lycophytes is correct?
A)The megaspores will develop into female gametophytes.
B)The microspores will develop into female gametophytes.
C)The megaspores will develop into male gametophytes.
D)Lycophytes were the first land plants to evolve megaphylls.
Q3) Identify the species that is not classified as a pteridophyte.
A)Marchantia
B)Equisetum
C)Hart's tongue
D)Psilotum
Q4) Asexual reproduction in the liverwort Marchantia is by means of
A)the detachment of gemmae.
B)budding of daughter cells.
C)fragmentation of filaments of cells.
D)the fusion of antheridial and archegonial products.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Flowering Plants: Structure and Organization
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Q1) Which statement is NOT true about vascular tissue in plants?
A)In leaves,the vascular tissue is found in the leaf veins.
B)In stems,the vascular tissue is found in the vascular bundles.
C)Phloem cells are hollow and nonliving,and they form a continuous pipeline that transports sugars.
D)Xylem cells are hollow and nonliving,and they form a continuous pipeline that transports water and minerals.
E)In roots,the vascular tissue is found in the central vascular cylinder.
Q2) Farmers have been able to genetically engineer a wide variety of crops that possess an enormous diversity of traits.If a farmer wanted to increase the ability of his crops to access ground water that is several meters below ground which type of root system would he want?
A)taproot
B)prop roots
C)fibrous roots
D)pneumatophores
E)aerial roots
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Chapter 25: Flowering Plants: Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Because most roots need gaseous oxygen as well as liquid water,the best soil for agricultural plants is
A)sand,since it has the greatest pore spaces.
B)clay,since it holds onto water better than silt or sand.
C)silt,because it is intermediate between sand and clay in size.
D)loam,which is a mixture of all size soil particles,and therefore is able to hold water but drain well.
E)All sizes of soil particles (sand,silt,clay)are equal in soil properties.
Q2) Rhizobium bacteria live in root nodules and
A)fix atmospheric nitrogen to NH<sup>4+</sup> to build organic compounds.
B)fix carbon dioxide so that the carbon may be used to build glucose.
C)increase the surface area,thereby increasing the water absorbing capacity of the plant's roots.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) The transpiration rate in plants is increased by A)wind.
B)elevated temperature.
C)increased sunlight intensity.
D)All of the choices increase the rate of transpiration.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Flowering Plants: Control of Growth Responses
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Q1) In order for signal transduction to work properly in plants the
A)correct hormone needs to bind to the appropriate receptor in order to enter the cell
B)relay proteins need to amplify the signal and convert it into one that will alter the cellular machinery
C)gene expression must change to produce the appropriate cellular process
D)All of the above.
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about photoperiodism?
A)A short-day plant flowers when the day length is shorter than a critical length.
B)A day-neutral plant flowers according to some form of regulation other than photoperiodism.
C)A long-day plant will flower when the day length is longer than a critical length.
D)The phytochrome form P<sub>fr</sub> is converted to P<sub>r</sub> in daylight,producing the active form that induces flowering in long-day plants.
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Chapter 27: Flowering Plants: Reproduction
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Q1) Seeds require _____________ for germination to occur.
A)oxygen for increased metabolism
B)adequate warmth
C)adequate water
D)All of the choices are required.
Q2) Double fertilization in an angiosperm produces
A)a diploid zygote and a haploid polar nucleus.
B)a diploid zygote and a diploid endosperm.
C)a diploid embryo and a triploid zygote.
D)a triploid embryo and a diploid endosperm.
E)a diploid zygote and a triploid endosperm.
Q3) Bee pollinated flowers
A)are red.
B)are predominately blue or yellow.
C)have little odor.
D)All of the choices apply.
Q4) Single plant cells can be stimulated to become a callus and then further stimulated to become a new entire plant.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Invertebrate Evolution
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Q1) Name one of the smallest,if not the smallest,animals that are sometimes referred to as "resurrection animalcules."
A)planaria
B)parasitic mites
C)fruit flies
D)parasitic
E)rotifers
Q2) If you live on a river delta or coastline,you may not be able to eat the local shellfish because of high levels of toxins,even though you may be able to drink the water taken from the same source.Why?
A)Shellfish seasonally produce toxic substances.
B)Shellfish regularly consume poisonous red tide organisms.
C)Most harmless native clams have been replaced by bad species.
D)Shellfish filter-feed and concentrate the dilute pollutants from the water,thus acting as early warning indicators of severe pollution.
Q3) The structure that directs food into the body of a rotifer is called the corona.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Vertebrate Evolution
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Q1) The duckbill platypus is different than most mammals because it
A)lacks hair.
B)is "cold-blooded."
C)doesn't secrete milk.
D)doesn't give birth,but lays eggs.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following features were required for the the evolution of the amphibians?
A)notochord,vertebrae,jaws,bony skeleton,lungs and 4 limbs
B)notochord,vertebrae,jaws,bony skeleton,lungs and amniotic eggs
C)notochord,vertebrae,jaws,cartilaginous skeleton,lungs and 4 limbs
D)notochord,mammary glands,jaws,bony skeleton,lungs and 4 limbs
Q3) The amphibians' common receptacle for the urinary,genital,and digestive canals is the A)vulva.
B)glottis.
C)cloaca.
D)tympanum.
E)operculum.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Human Evolution
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Q1) Mistakenly,it is sometimes said that "man comes from monkeys." A more correct way to explain the apparent sequence of human evolution is
A)monkeys have evolved less than humans.
B)humans and monkeys share a common ancestor.
C)humans and monkeys are biologically identical.
D)evolution leads toward more perfect forms and humans therefore came after modern monkeys.
Q2) Homo erectus succeeded in new and colder environments because they occupied caves,used fire,and were more capable of obtaining and eating meat as a substantial part of their diet.This is an example of
A)the founder effect.
B)positive assortative mating.
C)adaptive radiation.
D)biocultural evolution.
Q3) Which of the following is not an anthropoid?
A)chimpanzee
B)human
C)New World monkey
D)lemur
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Animal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) _______ is responsible for receiving,interpreting,and producing a response to stimuli.
A)Muscle tissue
B)Nervous tissue
C)Epithelial tissue
D)Connective tissue
Q2) Which of the following is the most complex level of organization?
A)cardiovascular system
B)brain
C)columnar epithelium
D)heart
E)lungs
Q3) An average person has about _____ neurons.
A)100,000
B)1 trillion
C)2 million
D)1 billion
Q4) Homeostasis is ultimately controlled by the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Circulation and Cardiovascular Systems
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Q1) What is the main difference between an open circulatory system and a closed one?
A)An open system will have the blood leave the blood vessels and dump into the hemocoel while the closed one will retain the blood within the system.
B)An open system will keep the blood within the blood vessels while the closed one will dump the blood into the hemocoel.
C)An open system will have the blood leave the blood vessels and dump into the lungs or gills while the closed one will retain the blood within the system.
D)An open system will have the blood leave the blood vessels and dump into the lungs or gills while the closed one will retain the blood within the heomocoel.
E)The blood within a closed circulatory system does not contain hemoglobin.
Q2) Identify the correct flow of blood through a one-circuit system.
A)ventricle - gill capillaries - systemic capillaries - sinus venosus - atrium
B)ventricle - systemic capillaries - gill capillaries - sinus venosus - atrium
C)ventricle - gill capillaries - systemic capillaries - atrium - sinus venosus
D)ventricle - pulmonary capillaries - atrium - aorta - systemic capillaries
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Chapter 33: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) Anaphylactic shock
A)is characterized by a sudden and life-threatening drop in blood pressure.
B)occurs when the allergen has entered the bloodstream.
C)is an immediate allergic reaction.
D)All of the above are true.
E)None of these are true.
Q2) Which of the following statements about B cells is true?
A)B cells develop and mature in the bone marrow.
B)B cells carry receptor molecules on their cell surfaces.
C)B cells change into plasma cells after encountering an antigen and then produce antibodies.
D)Some B cells become memory cells.
E)All of the above are true.
Q3) Which antibody class is most prevalent in the bloodstream?
A)IgA
B)IgG
C)IgE
D)IgM
E)IgD
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Chapter 34: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Q1) A diet that is lacking in certain minerals such as iron can lead to osteoporosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of bile salts?
A)act as emulsifiers
B)needed for fat digestion
C)aid the enzyme lipase in the digestion of fat molecules
D)production of vitamin D
Q3) Which list of features is associated with the small intestine?
A)duodenum,bile and villi
B)duodenum,chyme and villi
C)cecum,bile and lacteals
D)lacteals,appendix and villi
Q4) Microvilli serve to
A)absorb nutrients.
B)secrete bile.
C)produce antibodies.
D)synthesize vitamins.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Systems
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Q1) A lung infection caused by bacteria which become encapsulated in the lungs is A)emphysema.
B)pneumonia.
C)rheumatic fever.
D)tuberculosis.
E)pulmonary fibrosis.
Q2) A disease in which the alveoli are distended and their walls damaged so that surface areas for gas exchange is reduced is A)bronchitis.
B)emphysema.
C)pulmonary tuberculosis.
D)pneumonia.
Q3) How is most carbon dioxide transported in the blood?
A)as gas bubbles of CO<sub>2</sub>,just as in carbonated soft drinks
B)as bicarbonate ions (HCO<sub>3</sub>)
C)on the free hemoglobins since they have lost their oxygen in the tissues
D)as carbon monoxide
E)as carbon compounds and oxygen radicals
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Chapter 36: Body Fluid Regulation and Excretory Systems
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Q1) What is the path of an excreted water molecule as it moves from the glomerulus to collecting duct?
A)loop of nephron-glomerular capsule-proximal convoluted tubule-distal convoluted tubule-collecting duct
B)glomerular capsule-proximal convoluted tubule-loop of nephron-distal convoluted tubule-collecting duct
C)distal convoluted tubule-glomerular capsule-proximal convoluted tubule-loop of nephron--collecting duct
D)proximal convoluted tubule-glomerular capsule-loop of nephron-distal convoluted tubule-collecting duct
E)glomerular capsule-proximal convoluted tubule-distal convoluted tubule-loop of nephron-collecting duct
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the three steps (processes)involved in urine formation?
A)countercurrent mechanism
B)tubular reabsorption
C)glomerular filtration
D)tubular secretion
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38
Chapter 37: Neurons and Nervous Systems
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Q1) Information gathering from the environment by a vertebrate is aided by which of the following?
A)paired eyes,ears,and olfactory structures
B)cephalization
C)bilateral symmetry with a vast increase in the number of neurons
D)All of the choices are information gathering aids.
Q2) Which of the following associations between structure and function is NOT correct?
A)axons - conduct signals away from the cell body
B)sensory neuron - take nerve impulses from the CNS to muscles or glands
C)cell body - contains nucleus and organelles
D)dendrites - receive signals and transmit them to the cell body
E)interneuron - convey nerve impulses between various parts of the CNS
Q3) The ascending tracts of the spinal cord are responsible sensory and motor functions of the peripheral nervous system that control the skeletal muscles.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Sense Organs
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Q1) If a fish suffers from a fungal skin infection that causes the cupula to become blocked,what will occur?
A)Water will not be able to enter the cupula which would prevent the cilia from bending.If the cilia do not bend in response to the water it will not initiate a nerve impulse and the fish will lose the ability to detect nearby objects.
B)Water will not be able to enter the cupula which would prevent the cilia from bending.If the cilia do not bend in response to the water it will over stimulate the nerve impulses and the fish will lose the ability to detect nearby objects.
C)Water will not be able to enter the cupula which would prevent the cilia from bending.The fungal infection would then be allowed to enter into the bloodstream through the cupula.
D)Water will not be able to enter the cupula which would prevent the cilia from maintaining its normal upright position.If the cilia do not stay upright it will not be able to initiate a nerve impulse and they will lose the ability to detect nearby objects.
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Chapter 39: Locomotion and Support Systems
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Q1) Which of the following lists the correct order of vertebral regions from superior to inferior?
A)thoracic-lumbar-sacrum-cervical-coccyx
B)cervical-lumbar-sacrum-thoracic-coccyx
C)cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacrum-coccyx
D)lumbar-sacrum-cervical-thoracic-coccyx
E)sacrum-cervical-thoracic-lumbar-coccyx
Q2) Which of the following statements about the development of bone in humans is NOT true?
A)Bone breakdown and replacement occur throughout life.
B)A primary ossification center forms in the middle of a long bone.
C)A secondary ossification center forms at the end of a long bone.
D)Bones may form within a cartilage model or within a membrane matrix.
E)A cartilaginous disk remains between the primary and secondary ossification centers until old age.
Q3) Which muscle list of structures is correctly organized from large to small?
A)muscle,muscle cell,myofibril,sarcomeres,filaments
B)muscle,muscle fibers,sarcomeres,filaments,myofibrils
C)muscle,sarcolemma,myofibrils,actin filaments,myosin filaments
D)muscle cells,myofibrils,filaments,sarcoplasm
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Chapter 40: Hormones and Endocrine Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What gland,located in the brain,produces melatonin?
A)pancreas
B)pineal gland
C)adrenal gland
D)thyroid gland
E)pituitary
Q2) Which of the following hormone is produced by the anterior pituitary gland that regulates the production of cortisol?
A)Adrenocorticotropic hormone
B)thyroxine
C)gonadotropic hormones
D)prolactin
E)melanocyte-stimulating hormone
Q3) What is a common function of T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub>?
A)Stimulate cells to metabolize faster.
B)Muscle contraction.
C)Cause the blood calcium to increase.
D)Blood phosphate levels decrease.
E)Cause an increase in the deposition of calcium in the bones.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI),a single sperm is injected into an egg in an attempt to create a zygote.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following STDs are bacterial infections EXCEPT A)AIDS.
B)chlamydia.
C)gonorrhea.
D)syphilis.
Q3) Luteinizing hormone (LH)triggers ovulation in females.What is its role in males?
A)It does not exist since males lack ovaries.
B)It exists in rudimentary levels since LH is made by the anterior pituitary.
C)It controls production of testosterone.
D)It is exactly the opposite chemical from male hormones,in an antibody-antigen fashion.
Q4) Why does semen contain alkaline secretions?
A)Alkaline secretions are less viscous and the sperm can swim better.
B)The female vagina is acidic and thus not a favorable environment for sperm.
C)Sperm are only able to use fructose under alkaline conditions.
D)The pH of semen has no significance.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) Which of the following stages of embryonic development consists of only two layers of cells?
A)morula
B)blastula
C)early gastrula
D)late gastrula
Q2) The human embryo becomes a fetus at the end of the second month of gestation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the acrosome cap of the sperm were to fall off what would happen during fertilization?
A)The corona radiata would not be weakened by the enzymes found in the acrosome cap of the sperm.
B)The corona radiata would not be weakened by the fatty acids found in the acrosome cap of the sperm.
C)The zona pellucida would depolarize at a faster rate than if the acrosome cap was present.
D)None of the above would occur.
E)All of the above would occur.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Which of the following communication methods would be most effective for a species that lives in the tropical rainforest and is active at night?
A)chemical
B)visual
C)tactile
D)auditory
Q2) Which of the following cases is not an example of classical conditioning?
A)An advertiser using an attractive model to sell their line of clothing.
B)Giving a hunting dog an electric shock when it does not return to the owners side on command.
C)A baby crying when their diaper is wet and the parent picking them up.
D)All of the above are examples of classical conditioning.
E)None of the above are examples of classical conditioning.
Q3) Auditory communication is the most effective form of communication in every environment inhabited by animals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Population Ecology
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Q1) Most species are intermediate between r-strategists and K-strategists,and tend to have a type II survivorship curve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A population in which death rates are higher than birth rates,and the prereproductive group is smaller than the reproductive group,is best represented by an age structure diagram with a(n)______ -shape.
A)bell
B)urn
C)pyramid
D)S
E)J
Q3) A type II survivorship curve,drawn by plotting the number of individuals in a given population alive at the beginning of each age interval,is characterized by
A)most individuals dying of old age.
B)many individuals dying early in life.
C)individuals dying at a constant rate throughout time.
D)most individuals dying during their reproductive years.
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Chapter 45: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) The relationship between plants and their pollinators is a good example of parasitism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Consider the following food chain: hawk - rabbit - clover.Each species will contain a different amount of calories in its body (clover: 10 calories,rabbit: 500 and hawk: 1200).Each species has a different daily caloric requirement (clover: sunlight,rabbit: 100 calories,hawk: 300). How many clover plants,per day,does it take to support one rabbit?
A)approximately 100 plants
B)approximately 10 plants
C)approximately 50 plants
D)approximately 3 plants
E)approximately 1000 plants
Q3) Which type of succession would occur after a volcanic eruption?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)There won't be any succession after a volcanic eruption
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Chapter 46: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) The early explorers used sailing ships,which were blown by the major winds; therefore,Columbus and other sailors generally traveled from Europe to North America by the mid-latitude westerlies,and returned to Europe by the southern easterlies near the equator.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Incoming solar radiation affects
A)the rise and fall of air masses.
B)evaporation or precipitation of moisture.
C)the seasons.
D)All of these choices are directly or indirectly affected by solar radiation.
E)None of these are correct.
Q3) What is the correct order of biome distribution starting at the lowest elevation and moving to higher elevations?
A)tropical forest - deciduous forest - montane coniferous forest - alpine tundra
B)tropical forest - deciduous forest - desert - alpine tundra
C)deciduous forest - montane coniferous forest - tropical forest - alpine tundra
D)tropical forest - grasslands - montane coniferous forest - deciduous forest
E)montane coniferous forest - alpine tundra - temperate deciduous forest - savanna
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Conservation of Biodiversity
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Q1) In spite of hundreds of millions of dollars spent on insecticides targeted at pest control for agricultural and medical purposes,man has been unable to drive any to extinction.On the other hand,the extinction of many species of birds,fishes,plants,and insects species have occurred as a result of A)hunting.
B)farming.
C)disease.
D)habitat destruction.
E)scientific collecting.
Q2) Sustainable development is a pattern of resource use that attempts to preserve the environment while meeting the needs of humans in the present and future.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Biodiversity is described in terms of genetic,community,and landscape diversity. A)True
B)False
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