Neuroscience for Psychology Majors Test Questions - 2012 Verified Questions

Neuroscience for Psychology Majors

Test Questions

Course Introduction

This course provides psychology majors with a comprehensive introduction to the field of neuroscience, emphasizing the biological foundations of behavior and mental processes. Students will explore the structure and function of the nervous system, neural communication, and the ways in which brain activity underlies cognition, sensation, emotion, and learning. The course covers major topics such as neuroanatomy, neurophysiology, and neuroplasticity, as well as contemporary research methods in neuroscience. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students will gain insight into how neuroscientific discoveries inform the understanding and treatment of psychological disorders.

Recommended Textbook

Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition by Bryan Kolb

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84 Chapters

2012 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Extension: A - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Descartes was an articulate proponent of _____.

A) monism

B) dualism

C) the cardiac hypothesis

D) nonmaterialism

Answer: B

Q2) The corpus callosum is the largest of the brain's:

A) subcortical nuclei.

B) commissures.

C) cortical lobes.

D) sensory nerves

Answer: B

Q3) Sherrington's studies of the reflex arc in dogs led him to conclude that:

A) there are gaps between individual communicating neurons.

B) communicating neurons are directly connected with one another.

C) all neural communication is electrical in nature.

D) reflexes are coordinated by the pineal body, even in dogs.

Answer: A

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Chapter 1: Extension: B - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) modern neuroscientists ___

A)pineal gland

B)heart

C)brain

Answer: C

Q2) Hodgkin and Huxley ___

A)chemical neurotransmission

B)electrical stimulation of muscle contractions

C)ionic conduction of nerve impulse

D)synapse

Answer: C

Q3) phrenology ___

A)positron emission tomography

B)failed in developing a functional atlas of the human brain

C)intelligence quotient

D)stereotaxic device

Answer: B

Q4) Sketch and label the main parts of a neuron.

Answer: See Figure Answer: 9 Major Parts of a Neuron in the text.

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Chapter 1: Extension: C - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) A cranioscopy was used for which purpose?

A) to surgically remove parts of the cerebral cortex

B) to excise subdural hematomas from the meninges of the brain

C) to measure the bumps and depressions of the skull

D) to observe the anatomical structures of an individual in a manner similar to the CAT scanner

Answer: C

Q2) So - called fluent aphasia, associated with damage to the left temporal lobe, was first accurately described and located by _____.

A) Marc Dax

B) Paul Broca

C) Carl Wernicke

D) Pierre Marie

Answer: C

Q3) Gall and Spurzheim were the first to propose the general theory that _____.

A) different parts of the brain had different functions

B) brains were composed of individual units called neurons

C) people use only a small fraction of their brains

D) head circumference is positively correlated with intelligence

Answer: A

Page 5

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Chapter 2: Extension: A - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) I left footprints over 3 million years ago. I was found by R. A. Dart. He named me:

A) Homo habilis.

B) Bigfoot.

C) Homo erectus.

D) Australopithecus.

Q2) The larger frontal lobes in primates have come to be associated with:

A) emotional processing.

B) visual functions.

C) balance and coordination.

D) complex social behaviors.

Q3) Down syndrome is an _____, while Tay - Sachs disease involves an _____.

A) inherited dominant allele; abnormality in chromosome number

B) inherited dominant allele; inherited dominant allele

C) inherited recessive allele; inherited dominant allele

D) abnormality in chromosome number; inherited recessive allele

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Chapter 2: Extension: B - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) Name three genetic engineering techniques, and describe a unique benefit or feature about each.

Q2) What are three types of animal studies that have made significant contributions to our understanding of the brain and behavior?

Q3) cave paintings (art) ___

A)30,000 years ago

B)15,000 years ago

C)7000 years ago

D)2 million years ago

Q4) routinely unexpressed as a trait ___

A)dominant allele

B)recessive allele

C)codominance

D)X chromosome

Q5) reading and writing ___

A)30,000 years ago

B)15,000 years ago

C)7000 years ago

D)2 million years ago

Page 7

Q6) Why might IQ tests be considered superficial or narrow measures of intelligence?

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Chapter 2: Extension: C - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) From the fossil record, it seems that monkey - like mammals or primates showed evidence of increasingly _____ that was unmatched.

A) longer tails

B) larger brains

C) more hair

D) longer jaws

Q2) Which is NOT a type of research that is currently being performed to reconstruct the story of human evolution?

A) qualitative

B) behavioral

C) archaeological

D) epigenetics

Q3) According to research by Hodos and Campbell, humans have inherited a complex striate cortex from which mammalian ancestor?

A) the bush baby

B) the opossum

C) the tree shrew

D) the rhesus monkey

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Chapter 3: Extension: A - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) Sensory and motor fibers that associate sensory and motor activity from one side of the body with the opposite side of the brain are called:

A) ipsilateral connections.

B) ventral spinal nerves.

C) decussations.

D) thalamocortical projections.

Answer Key

Q2) Components of the basal ganglia have functions related to:

A) somatosensation.

B) maintaining cortical arousal.

C) regulation of hormonal balance.

D) movement and habit learning.

Q3) The outermost layer of the brain covering is called the _____.

A) pia mater

B) meningeal layer

C) dura mater

D) arachnoid layer

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Chapter 3: Extension: B - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) Identify and describe four ways that the brain and spinal cord are protected from injury and infection.

Q2) Purkinje cell ___

A)axon bundle in the CNS

B)groups of cell bodies in the CNS

C)netlike

D)cerebellum

Q3) back ___

A)anterior

B)dorsal

C)posterior

D)ventral

Q4) Moruzzi and Magoun ___

A)functional organization of the precentral gyrus

B)cytoarchitectonic map of human cortex

C)functional associations of dorsal and ventral roots r

D)function of the reticular formation

Q5) What is the organization of the spinal cord described by the Bell - Magendie law?

Q6) Compare and contrast the functions of the spinal nerves and cranial nerves.

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Chapter 3: Extension: C - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) The _____ is usually considered to have six layers of cells and makes up over 80 percent of the total brain.

A) hippocampus

B) frontal lobe

C) cerebellum

D) neocortex

Q2) Match each of the given terms that is used when mapping the nervous system with the term that is its opposite: ventral-_____; medial-_____; ipsilateral-_____.

A) lateral; coronal; caudal

B) dorsal; lateral; contralateral

C) caudal; dorsal; dorsolateral

D) anterior; rostral; coronal

Q3) Experimental stimulation of which section of the brainstem produces a state of "general arousal" or "consciousness"?

A) the medulla

B) the pons

C) the reticular system

D) the periaqueductal gray

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Chapter 4: Extension: A - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) Multiple sclerosis is a neurodegenerative disorder in which:

A) myelin is damaged.

B) dendrites lose their spines.

C) neurotransmitter synthesis is blocked.

D) there is excess electrical activity.

Q2) The movement of the action potential from axon hillock to axon terminal is known as:

A) the graded potential.

B) the refractory period.

C) the nerve impulse.

D) anterograde transport.

Q3) Which of the following ions is LEAST likely to pass through the cell membrane when the neuron is at rest?

A) organic anions

B) sodium cations

C) potassium cations

D) chloride anions

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Chapter 4: Extension: B - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) Draw a simple diagram of a phospholipid bilayer, with "heads" and "tails" properly oriented.

Q2) Discuss the contribution of each of the following ions in the production of an action potential: K⁺, Na⁺, and Cl^-.

Q3) axon hillock ___

A)carries information to terminal buttons

B)collects information

C)integrates information

D)sends information to another neuron

Q4) A- ___

A)depolarization

B)protein anions (molecules)

C)hyperpolarization

D)maintains resting potential

Q5) mitochondria ___

A)energy source

B)protein transport

C)degrades foreign substances

D)protein formation

Page 14

Q6) Distinguish between concentration gradient and voltage gradients.

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Chapter 4: Extension: C - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) The _____ carries the message across the synapse.

A) axon

B) dendrite

C) neurotransmitter

D) mRNA

Q2) Tubules are primarily concerned with _____.

A) protein transport

B) degradation of foreign substances

C) providing energy to the cell

D) transcribing base-pair sequences from nuclear DNA

Q3) The resting charge in neurons is about _____.

A) +60 mV relative to the outside

B) -70 mV relative to the inside

C) +30 mV relative to the inside

D) -70 mV relative to the outside

Q4) Which ion form is the most appropriate match for potassium ion?

A) Cl^-

B) A^-

C) Na⁺

D) K⁺

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Chapter 5: Extension: A - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) Synapses characterized by wide clefts, large active zones, and round secretory vesicles are thought to be:

A) neuroendocrine.

B) modulatory.

C) excitatory.

D) inhibitory.

Q2) The substance that Otto Loewi found slowed the heart is now called _____.

A) epinephrine

B) acetylcholine

C) glutamate

D) norepinephrine

Q3) The ion that triggers the release of neurotransmitters into the cleft is _____.

A) Na⁺

B) K⁺

C) Ca²⁺

D) Cl^-

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Chapter 5: Extension: B - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) glycine ___

A) if the substance is a classical neurotransmitter or

B) if it is a neuroactive peptide.

Q2) GABA ___

A)tyrosine

B)dietary choline

C)glutamate

D)tryptophan

Q3) dopamine ___

A)Viagra

B)Alzheimer's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)opium

Q4) dopamine ___

A)tyrosine

B)dietary choline

C)glutamate

D)tryptophan

Q5) Describe the organization and function of the Renshaw loop.

Q6) List the key differences between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors.

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Chapter 5: Extension: C - Communication Between

Neurons

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Q1) Which neurotransmitter is used to treat Parkinson's disease?

A) histamine

B) acetylcholine

C) dopamine

D) NO

Q2) Which neurotransmitter is primarily affected by the drug Viagra?

A) met-enkephalin

B) acetylcholine

C) dopamine

D) nitric oxide

Q3) The effects of the opiate drugs are MOST closely matched by _____.

A) acetylcholine

B) met-enkephalin

C) dopamine

D) histamine

Q4) Transmitter - activated receptors are located _____.

A) on the presynaptic membrane

B) on the postsynaptic membrane

C) on both the pre- and postsynaptic membranes

D) in the nuclear membrane only

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Chapter 6: Extension: A - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) The blood-brain barrier is established by:

A) neurons and astrocytes.

B) neurons and smooth muscle cells.

C) endothelial cells and neurons.

D) endothelial cells and astrocytes.

Q2) Antipsychotic drugs are thought to exert their effects, at least in part, by blocking one type of:

A) glutamate receptor.

B) thought process.

C) dopamine receptor.

D) action potential.

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a stimulant?

A) LSD

B) caffeine

C) cocaine

D) amphetamine

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Chapter 6: Extension: B - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Distinguish between general stimulants and behavioral stimulants.

Q2) naloxone ___

A)adenosine agonist

B)opioid agonist

C)opioid antagonist

D)dopamine agonist

Q3) Explain how activation of the GABA receptor can cause sedation.

Q4) Identify and describe the three kinds of drug tolerance.

Q5) What is the blood-brain barrier?

Q6) caffeine ___

A)adenosine agonist

B)opioid agonist

C)opioid antagonist

D)dopamine agonist

Q7) area postrema ___

A)vomit response

B)Parkinson's disease

C)benzodiazepine

D)blood-brain barrier

21

Q8) What characterizes drugs that can easily reach the brain?

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Chapter 6: Extension: C - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Most of the drugs used to treat schizophrenia block a receptor for _____.

A) dopamine

B) glutamate

C) serotonin

D) acetylcholine

Q2) Which kind of tolerance causes the body to create more enzymes to break a drug down?

A) learned

B) cellular

C) metabolic

D) desensitization

Q3) What does the pineal gland have in common with the area postrema?

A) Both contain acetylcholine.

B) Both are in the epithalamus.

C) Both are unprotected by the blood-brain barrier.

D) Both are absent from the human brain.

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Chapter 7: Extension: A - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Which of the following techniques provides the MOST specific spatial and temporal information about the relationship between neural function and behavior?

A) positron emission tomography

B) functional magnetic resonance imaging

C) computed tomography

D) single-cell recording

Answer Key

Q2) The three - dimensional units used in the analysis of PET and MRI scans are known as:

A) voxels.

B) pixels.

C) integrals.

D) morphemes.

Q3) The readiness potential is associated with activity in the _____ indicating _____.

A) motor cortex; an impending movement

B) visual cortex; an impending movement

C) somatosensory cortex; stimulus expectancy

D) frontal cortex; stimulus expectancy

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Chapter 7: Extension: B - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Toga ___

A)Human Connectome Project

B)developed CT scan

C)proposed coherence theory

D)developer of EEG technique

Q2) Describe disadvantages of ERP and fMRI techniques when studying brain function in young subjects compared to fNIRS.

Q3) PET ___

A)detects neurotransmitter molecules

B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events

C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity

D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions

Q4) Describe the relative advantages of CT, PET, and MRI scans for medical applications.

Q5) What are the most desired characteristics of a dynamic imaging system? Which existing technology comes closest to meeting these characteristics?

Q6) What distinguishes the ERP technique from standard EEG techniques?

Q7) What are some of the experimental uses to which ERP technology can be put?

Q8) What brain activity does the EEG recorded from the scalp actually monitor?

Page 25

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Chapter 7: Extension: C - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Which method induces changes in electrical activity in the brain?

A) electrical recording

B) brain stimulation

C) X-ray imaging

D) dynamic imaging

Q2) The _____ technique provides excellent resolution but can only be applied with humans in exceptional circumstances.

A) ERP

B) single-cell recording

C) EEG

D) EKG

Q3) The use of annihilation events is part of the _____ technique of brain imaging.

A) PET

B) MEG

C) fMRI

D) EEG

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Chapter 8: Extension: A - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Damage to the posterior column somatosensory pathway would be expected to disrupt perception of:

A) pain and temperature.

B) fine touch and pain.

C) temperature and pressure.

D) fine touch and pressure.

Q2) Groups of intervening synapses between a sensory receptor and sensory cortex are known as:

A) sensory ganglia.

B) neural relays.

C) sensory switches.

D) relay ganglia.

Q3) According to tonotopic theory:

A) each hair cell responds to a different pitch.

B) different points on the basilar membrane represent different intensities of sound.

C) the basilar membrane is uniform in its response to different sound frequencies.

D) different points on the basilar membrane represent different sound frequencies.

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Chapter 8: Extension: B - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) How might synesthesia occur? (Hint: there is no definitive answer to this one.)

Q2) Why doesn't complete destruction of the geniculostriate pathway in humans leave the person completely blind?

Q3) Compare stimulus frequency and intensity as used by the visual and auditory systems to create perceptions.

Q4) vision ___

A)lateral geniculate nucleus

B)dorsomedial nucleus

C)ventral posteromedial nucleus

D)ventrolateral nucleus

Q5) olfaction ___

A)lateral geniculate nucleus

B)dorsomedial nucleus

C)ventral posteromedial nucleus

D)ventrolateral nucleus

Q6) Differentiate between the geniculostriate and tectopulvinar visual systems, functionally and anatomically.

Q7) What functional properties are shared by all sensory systems?

Answer Key

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Chapter 8: Extension: C - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Pacinian corpuscles are receptors in the _____ sensory system.

A) balance

B) touch

C) pain

D) kinesthesis

Q2) The part of the visual system responsible for controlling pupil size is the _____.

A) frontal eye fields

B) pretectum

C) visual cortex

D) superior colliculus

Q3) Neural _____ modify messages between the sensory receptors and the brain.

A) receptive fields

B) relays

C) potentials

D) discharges

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Chapter 9: Extension: A - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) A patient who has difficulty with balance, posture, and coordination would MOST likely have a lesion in the:

A) brainstem motor areas.

B) orbitofrontal cortex.

C) posterior parietal cortex.

D) primary motor areas.

Q2) Research by Evarts found that the firing rate of neurons in the monkey motor cortex: A) increased as the amount of force required to make a wrist movement increased. B) decreased as the amount of force required to make a wrist movement increased.

C) was not related to the amount of force required to generate wrist movement. D) varied with the monkey's emotional state.

Q3) Parkinson's disease is caused by a loss of neurons that release the neurotransmitter: A) dopamine.

B) acetylcholine.

C) norepinephrine.

D) glutamate.

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Chapter 9: Extension: B - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) anterior corticospinal tract ___

A)synapse directly on muscles

B)control of body midline muscles

C)control of facial muscles

D)control of limbs and digits

Q2) What is meant by the term "movement lexicon"?

Q3) Differentiate between the "direct" and "indirect" pathways in the basal ganglia.

Q4) In what ways do motor neurons encode different characteristics of movements, as suggested by the studies of Evarts and Georgopoulos?

Q5) Describe the homunculus as mapped by Penfield. What changes have been made subsequently?

Q6) Identify the four general regions of the neocortex thought to produce most voluntary movement.

Q7) In terms of body topography, describe how spinal cord motor neurons activated by the lateral corticospinal tract differ from those activated by the anterior corticospinal tract. How do these two differ from motor neurons innervated by the corticobulbar tract?

Answer Key

Q8) Describe the feedback circuit that allows the cerebellum to correct movements.

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Chapter 9: Extension: C - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) In Evarts's experiment, when are neurons in the wrist region of the motor cortex inactive?

A) when the monkey prepares to flex its wrist

B) when the monkey flexes its wrist

C) when the monkey has more weight to move with its wrist

D) when the monkey brings its wrist back to the starting position

Q2) "Mirror neurons" got their name because they discharge:

A) only when a monkey sees another monkey or human make a movement.

B) when a monkey makes a movement or sees another monkey or person make that movement.

C) only when a monkey can see itself making a movement.

D) contralateral to the side of the body that makes the movement.

Q3) The flocculus is part of the _____.

A) basal ganglia

B) cerebellum

C) prefrontal lobe

D) thalamus

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Chapter 10: Extension: A - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) According to Luria's theory of cortical function, the motor unit corresponds to the: A) temporal lobe.

B) parietal lobe.

C) frontal lobe.

D) occipital lobe.

Q2) The simplest functional unit of the cortex is hypothesized to be the: A) circuit.

B) layer.

C) column.

D) blob.

Q3) Which of the following conditions is best associated with hyperactivity, sham rage, and intact thermoregulatory ability?

A) diencephalic

B) high decerebrate

C) low decerebrate

D) the spinal cord disconnected from the medulla

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Chapter 10: Extension: B - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Distinguish between specific and nonspecific cortical afferents.

Q2) What is a "plastic" neural system?

Q3) What is meant by the binding problem? What is a proposed solution?

Q4) Felleman and van Essen ___

A)decerebrate animals

B)sensory and motor unit theory

C)distributed hierarchy theory

D)behavior of the mesencephalic child

Q5) Luria ___

A)decerebrate animals

B)sensory and motor unit theory

C)distributed hierarchy theory

D)behavior of the mesencephalic child

Q6) ventral premotor cortex ___

A)auditory and visual

B)auditory and somatosensory

C)auditory, visual, and somatosensory

Q8) What are cortical blobs? What are cortical barrels? Page 34

Q7) What is the anatomical basis for the observation that "spinal" animals are alert but decerebrate animals are not?

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Chapter 10: Extension: C - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) What does the binding problem ask?

A) Which anatomical criteria could be used to delineate a hierarchy of cortical areas?

B) Can an area modify its inputs from another area before it even receives them?

C) How do sensations in specific channels combine into perceptions that translate as a unified experience that we call reality?

D) How does the theory of mind emerge in the brain?

Q2) The _____ is critically important in maintaining bodily homeostasis.

A) spinal cord

B) thalamus

C) hypothalamus

D) frontal cortex

Q3) The developmental failure of _____ neurons has been proposed to be associated with autism spectrum disorder (ASD).

A) cellular

B) von Economo

C) gestalt

D) subcortical

Answer Key

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Chapter 11: Extension: A - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Following damage to the left hemisphere, the most likely outcome would be a decline in:

A) mental rotation ability.

B) verbal ability.

C) pitch recognition.

D) emotional memory.

Q2) Visual images can be presented individually to each hemisphere using a device known as a(n):

A) oscilloscope.

B) dichotoscope.

C) tachistoscope.

D) periscope.

Q3) Which of the following factors does not usually influence laterality of function in humans?

A) genetics

B) gender

C) handedness

D) height

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Chapter 11: Extension: B - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) interference tests ___

A)motor system

B)visual system

C)speech production

D)somatosensory system

Q2) complex pitch perception ___

A) if there is typically a right-ear advantage

B) if there is typically a left-ear advantage

C) if there is no ear advantage.

Q3) tachistoscopic presentations ___

A)motor system

B)visual system

C)speech production

D)somatosensory system

Q4) Discuss how damage to Broca's area in a normal, right - handed individual could differentially affect reading aloud and singing "Happy Birthday."

Q5) Explain how cerebral functions differ more by "site" than by "side."

Q6) gentler slope of Sylvian fissure ___

A) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the left hemisphere

Page 38

B) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the right hemisphere.

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Chapter 11: Extension: C - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Electrical stimulation of the right _____ lobe has produced déjà vu experiences and dreaming states in patients.

A) occipital

B) frontal

C) temporal

D) parietal

Q2) Blindfolded subjects typically do better with the right hand at _____.

A) object recognition of nonsense shapes

B) Braille reading

C) object recognition of nonsense shapes and Braille reading

D) neither object recognition of nonsense shapes nor Braille reading

Q3) If the left carotid artery is injected with an anesthetic drug, within a few seconds:

A) the arm and the leg on the same side will fall to the bed with flacid paralysis.

B) speech will probably be interrupted.

C) speech will invariably be interrupted.

D) the arm and leg on the same side will be hypertonic.

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Chapter 12: Extension: A - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Using writing as the criterion, approximately _____ % of the population appears to be left - handed.

A) 6

B) 16

C) 2

D) 10

Q2) Anatomical asymmetries, including those of the brain:

A) are present before birth.

B) emerge at puberty.

C) emerge in adulthood.

D) decrease during development.

Answer Key

Q3) According to studies by Goldstein and colleagues, sex - dependent differences in human brain structures are greatest in regions in which the results of studies of nonhumans show:

A) developmental similarities in gonadal hormone-receptor expression.

B) a role in theory of mind.

C) a high ratio of gray matter to white matter.

D) developmental differences in gonadal hormone-receptor distribution.

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Page 40

Chapter 12: Extension: B - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) verbal impairment following left - hemisphere lesions ___

A) if it is truer for males than for females

B) if it is truer for females than for males

C) if there is no reliable sex difference.

Q2) better computational ability ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q3) better target - throwing and catching ability ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q4) superior mental rotation ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q5) Explain how Annett's theory of handedness predicts that the population consists of 12.5% left - handed people.

Q6) Briefly describe some behavioral tests that reliably distinguish between males and females.

Q7) What explanations may account for the larger cross - sectional areas of the corpus callosum in left - handed individuals?

Page 41

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Chapter 12: Extension: C - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) In men, compared with women, apraxia is more likely to be caused by damage to the _____ of the brain.

A) frontal left hemisphere

B) posterior left hemisphere

C) frontal right hemisphere

D) cingulate areas on both sides

Q2) In Japanese speakers, kanji and kana are:

A) affected equally by left-hemisphere injury.

B) unaffected by left-hemisphere injury if the person also speaks another language.

C) differentially affected, kana much more than kanji, by left-hemisphere damage.

D) differentially affected, kanji much more than kana, by left-hemisphere damage.

Q3) Intrahemispheric connectivity appears to be greater in ______, and interhemispheric connectivity is greater in _________.

A) females; males

B) females; females also

C) males; females

D) males; males also

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Chapter 13: Extension: A - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) The role of the visual pathway in the monkey brain that goes from V1 to the temporal lobe is visual:

A) guidance of action.

B) identification of location.

C) object recognition.

D) motion detection.

Q2) The superior temporal sulcus is characterized by significant numbers of _____ neurons.

A) polysensory

B) color-coding

C) movement-sensitive

D) depth-perception

Q3) Milner and Goodale base some of their model of vision beyond the occipital lobe on the finding in monkeys that many neurons in the posterior parietal lobe respond to visual stimuli only if _____.

A) the monkey reaches for the stimulus

B) the stimulus is moving

C) the stimulus is meaningful to the monkey

D) the stimulus is brightly colored

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Chapter 13: Extension: B - The Occipital Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is meant by the term "blindsight"? Give an example from one or more of the case studies given.

Q2) monocular blindness ___

A)one optic nerve

B)medial visual cortex

C)one optic tract

D)optic chiasm

Q3) visuospatial agnosia ___

A)right medial occipitotemporal damage, including at the fusiform and lingual gyri

B)bilateral damage below the calcarine fissure at the temporal junction

C)anterior temporal lobe damage

D)bilateral lateral occipital lobe damage

Q4) What is a scotoma? What do such phenomena tell us about the organization of the visual system?

Q5) Briefly list the main functional role of each of the following: V1, V2, V3, V4, and V5.

Q6) Account for the curious case in which a patient could draw a simple object more accurately from memory than when the object was actually present.

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Page 44

Chapter 13: Extension: C - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) Which region of the brain is associated with object analysis?

A) the lateral occipital

B) the superior temporal sulcus

C) the lateral intraparietal sulcus

D) the ventral intraparietal sulcus

Q2) Destruction of one optic nerve will produce _____.

A) scotoma

B) monocular blindness

C) homonymous hemianopia

D) bitemporal hemianopia

Q3) A patient who loses the ability to copy a drawing of an object, but can draw that object from memory, is demonstrating _____.

A) prosopagnosia

B) visuospatial agnosia

C) associative agnosia

D) visual form agnosia

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Chapter 14: Extension: A - The Parietal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The supramarginal gyrus and angular gyrus make up the:

A) superior parietal lobe.

B) inferior parietal lobe.

C) primary somatosensory cortex.

D) postcentral gyrus.

Q2) One characteristic common to MOST posterior parietal neurons in the monkey brain is that they are responsive to _____.

A) movements of the animal's eyes or arms toward a stimulus

B) the shape of visual stimulus

C) being touched on the upper lip by a stimulus

D) changes in the color of a visual stimulus

Q3) Contralateral neglect is MOST likely a result of impaired:

A) working memory.

B) object recognition.

C) attention to one side of space.

D) behavioral inhibition.

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Chapter 14: Extension: B - The Parietal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the activity of neurons in the posterior parietal lobe of monkeys in response to stationary visual stimuli with and without reaching and with and without attentional focus on the stimulus.

Q2) right-left discrimination ___

A) if the percentage of subjects showing the symptom is greater following left parietal lobe damage

B) if the percentage of subjects showing the symptom is greater following right parietal lobe damage.

Q3) Areas PE and PF ___

A)greatly expanded in the human brain

B)anterior zone of parietal lobe

C)secondary somatosensory cortex

D)ventral border of the lateral parietal lobe

Q4) astereognosis ___

A)inability to recognize objects by touch

B)inability to name and locate body parts

C)lack of awareness of one's own illness

D)inability to do arithmetic

Q5) What is the difference between astereognosis and simultaneous extinction?

Page 47

Q6) Describe the two stages of recovery of contralateral neglect.

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Chapter 14: Extension: C - The Parietal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is more likely after left parietal damage?

A) unilateral neglect

B) cube counting

C) dressing disability

D) more errors in Weigl's Sorting Test

Q2) Which is NOT one of the classic symptoms of Gerstmann syndrome?

A) finger agnosia

B) apraxia

C) agraphia

D) acalculia

Q3) The ability to point to a touched area of the body without actually being able to feel the touch at a conscious level is called _____.

A) afferent paresis

B) blind touch

C) spooky

D) autopagnosia

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Chapter 15: Extension: A - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an example of temporal lobe cross - modal matching?

A) perceiving both the form and color of an object simultaneously

B) using the left hemisphere and the right hemisphere simultaneously to perceive a voice

C) making an association between the vocal characteristics and the face of a well-known pop singer

D) distinguishing among melodies played in the Lydian, Aeolian, and Locrian scales

Q2) Brain scans of subjects watching a section of a movie suggest that neurons within the temporal lobe:

A) respond in a stereotypical manner to naturalistic audiovisual stimuli.

B) respond in a highly individual manner to naturalistic audiovisual stimuli.

C) are insensitive to naturalistic audiovisual stimuli.

D) distinguish between the good, the bad, and the ugly among us.

Q3) Neurons in the middle temporal gyrus project to neurons in the opposite hemisphere by way of the:

A) corpus callosum.

B) anterior commissure.

C) perforant pathway.

D) inferior temporal gyrus.

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Page 49

Chapter 15: Extension: B - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Identify the five projection pathways of neuronal connections in the temporal lobe of the monkey.

Q2) Wechsler Memory Scale ___

A)verbal memory

B)language comprehension

C)nonverbal memory

D)auditory processing

Q3) impaired long - term memory ___

A)hippocampus, both hemispheres

B)Brodmann's area 41, right hemisphere

C)Brodmann's area 42, left hemisphere

D)Brodmann's area 37, both hemispheres

Q4) Rey Complex - Figure test ___

A)verbal memory

B)language comprehension

C)nonverbal memory

D)auditory processing

Q5) What evidence is there that the response of inferotemporal lobe neurons in the monkey brain can be modified by experience?

Q6) Distinguish between loudness and timbre.

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Chapter 15: Extension: C - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The temporal lobes are involved in each of these EXCEPT:

A) processing auditory input.

B) visual object recognition.

C) memory functions.

D) identifying tactile information.

Q2) The "temporal - lobe personality" is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT:

A) egocentricity.

B) pedantic speech.

C) perseveration in talking.

D) conscientiousness.

Q3) The medial temporal cortex and amygdala on each side of the brain are connected via the _____.

A) corpus callosum

B) stria terminalis

C) arcuate fasciculus

D) anterior commissure

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Chapter 16: Extension: A - The Frontal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) In experiments with nonhuman primates, damage to the _____ has been found to produce a deficit in spatial working memory.

A) principal sulcus

B) orbital cortex

C) primary motor cortex

D) superior temporal sulcus

Q2) Tests measuring finger - tapping speed and grip strength BEST measure the function of the:

A) superior frontal gyrus.

B) premotor gyrus.

C) postcentral gyrus.

D) precentral gyrus.

Q3) Poor temporal memory is a common symptom of damage to the:

A) supplementary motor cortex.

B) ventrolateral prefrontal cortex.

C) orbitofrontal cortex.

D) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

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52

Chapter 16: Extension: B - The Frontal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Distinguish between pseudopsychopathy and pseudodepression, functionally and anatomically.

Q2) What are the effects of left or right unilateral frontal lesions on verbal fluency, design copying, and understanding the meaning of proverbs?

Q3) convergent thinking ___

A)Wisconsin Card-Sorting test

B)standard IQ test

C)Word-Fluency test

D)delayed nonmatching to sample

Q4) Discuss the relationship between the prefrontal cortex anatomy, performance on the gambling task, and addictive behaviors.

Q5) Name four cognitive skills impaired by dorsolateral frontal cortex damage.

Q6) altered sexual behavior ___

A)Broca's area

B)the orbital cortex

C)the primary motor cortex

D)frontal eye fields

Q7) Differentiate between the roles of premotor and supplementary motor cortices in the sequencing of motor movements.

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Chapter 16: Extension: C - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) Disturbances in _____ typically occur only after bilateral frontal - lobe damage.

A) verbal fluency

B) time orientation

C) understanding proverbs

D) verbal learning

Q2) Abnormalities in the dopaminergic projection from the tegmentum to the prefrontal regions occur in _____.

A) schizophrenia

B) Parkinson's disease

C) Alzheimer's disease

D) Huntington's disease

Q3) Damage to _____ is associated with altered sexual behavior.

A) areas 8 and 9

B) the dorsolateral prefrontal area

C) the orbital prefrontal area

D) area 44

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54

Chapter 17: Extension: A - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Damage to the body (middle region) of the corpus callosum would MOST likely impair a subject's ability to:

A) match left and right limb position with eyes closed.

B) use external cues to control impulsive behavior.

C) read aloud words presented selectively to the right hemisphere.

D) name an odor presented to the right nostril.

Q2) The MOST posterior portion of the corpus callosum is called the:

A) splenium.

B) genu.

C) uncinate.

D) rostrum.

Q3) Visual agnosia and alexia are each probably due to damage to white matter in the _____ hemisphere.

A) anterior left

B) posterior left

C) anterior right

D) posterior right

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Chapter 17: Extension: B - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the therapeutic value of the severing of commissures in the treatment of epilepsy?

Q2) How would Liepmann account for apraxia of the left hand only? (Hint: a diagram may prove useful.)

Q3) Identify the three major types of fiber pathways found in the neocortex.

Q4) What is the "zipper hypothesis"?

Q5) apraxia ___

A)lack of sense of smell

B)inability to make coordinated voluntary movements

C)difficulty copying geometric designs

D)inability to read

Q6) How would an individual with agenesis of the corpus callosum respond to requests to verbally name odors presented to left and right nostril? Justify your answer.

Q7) What do discussions regarding disconnecting cognitive functions conclude about the concept of localization of function within the brain?

Q8) Could one reproduce Downer's experiment with commissurotomy patients? If no, why not?

Q9) What is meant by the term topographic with respect to callosal organization? Page 56

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Chapter 17: Extension: C - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Who further developed the Dejerine and Liepmann concept of "disconnexion syndromes"?

A) Sperry

B) Wernicke

C) Mishkin

D) Geschwind

Q2) The incidence rate of agenesis of the corpus callosum is:

A) 1 per 100,000.

B) 5 per 1000.

C) 5 per 100,000.

D) 1 per 1000.

Q3) Preilowski (1975) performed an experiment in which he required commissurized patients to draw a diagonal line using the popular children's toy Etch A Sketch. What was being tested in this experiment?

A) artistic abilities

B) the ability to use both hands in concert

C) divergent thinking

D) spatial abilities

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Chapter 18: Extension: A - Learning and Memory

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Q1) Fear conditioning is hypothesized to depend on connections between the:

A) amygdala and hypothalamus.

B) amygdala and cerebellum.

C) hippocampus and cerebellum.

D) amygdala and thalamus.

Q2) Korsakoff's syndrome is an amnesic disorder that MOST commonly results from:

A) psychological trauma.

B) chronic alcoholism.

C) thiamine overdose.

D) traumatic brain injury.

Q3) Memory impairments associated with retrograde amnesia following traumatic brain injury are:

A) more pronounced for older memories than for newer memories.

B) more pronounced for newer memories than for older memories.

C) the same regardless of the age of the memory.

D) greatest for information learned after the point of injury.

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Chapter 18: Extension: B - Learning and Memory

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Sample Questions

Q1) face recognition ___

A) if it is more disrupted by left hemisphere lesions

B) if it is more disrupted by right hemisphere lesions

C) if there is no discernible difference between left and right hemisphere lesions on performance of the task.

Q2) What is the evidence to support the concept of short - term memory as distinct from other forms of memory?

Q3) diencephalon ___

A)episodic memory

B)confabulation

C)emotional coloring

D)recognition memory

Q4) What are the neural pathways that differentiate fear conditioning and classical conditioning?

Q5) Distinguish between episodic and semantic memory, and give an example of each.

Q6) What neural structures are thought to be involved in implicit memory? What is the evidence for or against including the motor cortex in this system?

Q7) Identify three theories on the role of the hippocampus in memory, and list objections to each.

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Chapter 18: Extension: C - Learning and Memory

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Q1) Nadel and Moscovitch's multiple - trace theory contends that there are three types of memory. Which type of memory is NOT included in their theory?

A) procedural

B) general semantic

C) autobiographical

D) factual semantic

Q2) Which is a good way to test for implicit priming of memory?

A) the mirror-drawing task

B) the Gollin Incomplete-Figures Test

C) analogies

D) the Corsi block-tapping test

Q3) The first evidence that the temporal lobes had a role in memory was provided by

A) Ebbinghaus

B) Lashley

C) Bekhterev

D) Scoville

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Chapter 19: Extension: A - Language

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Q1) According to MacNeilage, the critical ability associated with the development of language in humans involved changes in the:

A) brain, leading to greater visuospatial abilities.

B) vocal tract, allowing a greater range of formants.

C) brain, leading to a greater range of emotional vocalizations.

D) brain, leading to fine motor control and greater articulation.

Q2) Damage to the right hemisphere affects aspects of language, including:

A) sequencing of speech.

B) speech rhythm perception.

C) generation and perception of prosody.

D) syntactic organization.

Q3) Speech arrest has been observed in conjunction with electrical stimulation of which subcortical structure?

A) the pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus

B) the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus

C) the basolateral nucleus of the amygdala

D) mammillary bodies

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Chapter 19: Extension: B - Language

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Q1) Your patient has undergone a right hemispherectomy to remove cancerous tissue. What symptoms should the patient and the family expect?

Q2) anarthria ___

A)unintended word production

B)word-finding deficit

C)muscular incoordination

D)reading deficit

Q3) What is "Yerkish"? Is it really a language? If so, why? If not, why not?

Q4) retrieval of meaningful cue - related information ___

A)left inferofrontal cortex

B)left inferotemporal cortex

C)Broca's area

D)left visual cortex

Q5) anomia ___

A)unintended word production

B)word-finding deficit

C)muscular incoordination

D)reading deficit

Q6) About how long ago did human language develop? Gather the evidence for your answer.

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Chapter 19: Extension: C - Language

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Q1) Which neurosurgeon is responsible for mapping the language areas of the human cortex through the use of electrical stimulation given to patients before surgery?

A) Wernicke

B) Damasio

C) Penfield

D) Geschwind

Q2) Yerkish is _____.

A) a form of sign language

B) an artificial language involving keyboard symbols

C) the language spoken by ancient Yerks in Yerkey

D) a Pidgin language

Q3) According to Dronkers et al., damage to which language structure in the cerebral cortex leads to apraxia of speech (difficulty in producing sequences of speech sounds)?

A) insula

B) Broca's area

C) superior temporal gyrus

D) Heschl's gyrus

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Chapter 20: Extension: A - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) Social cognition includes the human ability to be aware of whom we are (selfawareness). Imaging and patient data provide evidence that the _____ network mediates this function.

A) right temporal-occipital network

B) left temporal-occipital network

C) left frontoparietal network

D) right frontoparietal network

Q2) Based on Gainotti's study of the effects of unilateral cortical lesions on emotionality, a patient who shows pronounced indifference to emotional situations would be MOST likely also to show deficits on:

A) the paragraph recall test.

B) a verbal IQ test.

C) the line bisection test.

D) tests of right-left discrimination.

Q3) The somatic marker hypothesis stresses the importance of emotional expression in:

A) reasoning processes.

B) habit learning.

C) fear conditioning.

D) reflex formation.

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Chapter 20: Extension: B - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) Goltz ___

A)emotions relation to logical thinking

B)rage responses in decorticate dogs

C)behavioral effects of hypothalamic stimulation in cats

D)behavioral effects of temporal lobe lesions in monkeys

Q2) decrease in frequency of spontaneous talking ___

A) if the behavior listed is more likely to be impaired by left-hemisphere lesions

B) if it is more likely to be impaired by right-hemisphere lesions.

Q3) "catastrophic" reaction ___

A) if the behavior listed is more likely to be impaired by left-hemisphere lesions

B) if it is more likely to be impaired by right-hemisphere lesions.

Q4) Discuss the evidence for and against the idea that emotion enhances the ability to think rationally or logically rather than impairs it.

Q5) What is sensory aprosodia? What is motor aprosodia?

Q6) Support or attack the following statement: The emotional complexity of mammals is due to evolutionary changes in the frontal lobes.

Q7) Describe the changes in social behaviors in monkeys with frontal cortex lesions.

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Chapter 20: Extension: C - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) Damage to _____ in the _____ hemisphere has been proposed to produce motor aprosodia.

A) Broca's area; left

B) the frontal orbital cortex; right

C) Broca's area; right

D) the temporal lobe; left

Q2) According to contemporary views, to add one structure to the original idea of Papez, which brain structure should be included in the "limbic system"?

A) the cingulate cortex

B) the amygdala

C) the pineal gland

D) the mammillary nucleus

Q3) Which is NOT a principal behavioral component that must be included in any substantive contemporary theory of emotion?

A) self-reported cognition

B) stereotypical motor behavior

C) unconscious behavior

D) physiology

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Chapter 21: Extension: A - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) In the context of spatial behavior, the term "egocentric" refers to the localization of environmental stimuli with reference to:

A) prominent, unchanging landmarks.

B) one's own body.

C) one's sense of self-importance.

D) imagined landmarks.

Q2) A neuron that reliably reacts with a burst of activity at regular intervals as an animal moves through the environment would BEST be classified as a:

A) grid cell.

B) place cell.

C) response cell.

D) head-direction cell

Q3) A common attribute of place, grid, and head - direction cells is:

A) stability in the face of changing environmental cues.

B) location only in the hippocampus.

C) sensitivity to changes in environmental cues.

D) location in rats, mice, and monkeys.

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Chapter 21: Extension: B - Spatial Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is the Morris water maze so useful in studying spatial behavior?

Q2) landmark agnosia ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

Q3) Discuss the role of the parietal lobe in spatial discriminations.

Q4) Discuss the role of temporal lobe structures in spatial behavior.

Q5) Distinguish between the two types of topographic disorientation.

Q6) egocentric disorientation ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

Q7) Marshall the evidence to support or attack the idea that the hippocampus serves as a "cognitive map."

Q8) Distinguish between place cells and head - direction cells.

Q10) Discuss the role of the frontal lobe in spatial discriminations. Page 69

Q9) What evidence exists that neurogenesis may play an important role in spatial memory ability?

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Chapter 21: Extension: C - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) The form of topographic disorientation in which individuals cannot use prominent environmental features for orientation is called _____.

A) topographic amnesia

B) landmark agnosia

C) egocentric disorientation

D) geographic amnesia

Q2) Which is NOT a brain region where place cells have been found to exist?

A) the entorhinal cortex

B) the dentate gyrus

C) the subiculum

D) the hippocampus

Q3) Which is NOT a type of cell discovered in the hippocampus and thought to play a role in spatial behavior?

A) complex

B) grid

C) head direction

D) place

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Chapter 22: Extension: A - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) If a monkey is required to pay attention to the color and form of a stimulus in particular, Corbetta and colleagues found that _____ cortex(ices) is(are) activated.

A) the parietal

B) the occipitotemporal

C) both the parietal and occipitotemporal

D) neither the parietal nor the occipitotemporal

Q2) Who said, "Everyone knows what attention is. It is the taking possession by the mind, in clear and vivid form, of one out of what seems several simultaneously possible objects or trains of thought"?

A) Ann Treisman

B) Kolb and Whishaw

C) Roger Sperry

D) William James

Q3) Posner and Raichle suggest that _____ provides the "glue" that integrates features into a unitary object.

A) memory

B) the amygdala

C) attention

D) consciousness

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Chapter 22: Extension: B - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) What is "attentional blink"?

Q2) both selective and divided attention

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q3) What is the evidence that stress might have a detrimental effect on attention?

Q4) Why do patients with left parietal lesions generally not experience neglect while patients with right parietal lesions do?

Q5) Cite evidence that attention is not a "thing in a place" in the brain.

Q6) attention to shape

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q7) What evidence did Jeannerod and colleagues find regarding the dissociation between behavior and awareness?

Q8) Identify the different attentional mechanisms suggested by electrophysiological evidence from monkeys.

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Chapter 22: Extension: C - Attention and Consciousness

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Sample Questions

Q1) Temporary reductions in the field defect present in patients with contralateral neglect were observed by Rossetti after the use of _____.

A) aids to memory, such as taking notes on the location of objects

B) increased rewards for such reductions

C) prisms that shifted the visual field to the right

D) Contralateral neglect is impervious to attempts to reduce it.

Q2) Sensory neglect is a disorder that involves lesions to which brain region?

A) the right parietal cortex

B) the right temporal cortex

C) the right prefrontal cortex

D) the right visual cortex

Q3) The _____ works with the executive attentional network to keep unattended stimuli outside of conscious awareness.

A) amygdala

B) superior temporal gyrus

C) posterior parietal cortex

D) fusiform face area

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Chapter 23: Extension: A - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The main changes in the visual system following monocular deprivation in kittens are seen at the level of the:

A) visual cortex.

B) lateral geniculate.

C) retina.

D) synapses.

Q2) Kolb and colleagues demonstrated that tactile stimulation following lesions of the frontal cortex resulted in which of the following?

A) increased synaptogenesis

B) decreased synaptogenesis

C) increased synaptic pruning

D) decreased synaptic pruning

Q3) The two events that take place in the development of a dendrite are _____ and the growth of dendritic spines.

A) synaptic pruning

B) atheosis

C) arborization

D) myelogenesis

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Chapter 23: Extension: B - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the Kennard principle? Explain why it is good news for infants who suffer early damage.

Q2) What is one proposal about why some kinds of visuospatial orientation are impaired following early left - hemisphere injury?

Q3) Identify the five phases of synapse formation in the cerebral cortex of primates as proposed by Bourgeois.

Q4) What are the effects on language of early - onset lesions (prior to age 15 years of age) to the left hemisphere, compared with similar lesions in adults (20 years of age and over)?

Q5) What are the effects on visual cortical neurons of monocular deprivation during the early life of kittens?

Q6) Hubel and Wiesel ___

A)speech lateralization

B)ocular dominance columns

C)myelination index

D)cognitive development

Q7) What is the role of radial glial cells in neuron cell migration?

Q8) How is the adolescent brain different from that of a child and that of an adult?

Q9) What brain abnormalities have been found in children with ADHD?

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Chapter 23: Extension: C - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) Why do the authors think that a fifth stage of cognitive development not identified by Piaget occurs in later adolescence?

A) the emergence of increased sexual activity at that time

B) the importance of modern forms of education

C) the presence of a brain-growth spurt at that time

D) the increased ability to learn a foreign language at that time

Q2) The Hubel and Wiesel experiments demonstrate that visual experience is necessary to _____ functional connections in the brain.

A) form

B) validate

C) myelinate

D) differentiate

Q3) The Piaget stage of cognitive development, characterized by the ability to reason abstractly, is called the _____ stage and occurs around the age(s) of _____.

A) formal operational; 12

B) concrete operational; 12

C) formal operational; 7 to 11

D) concrete operational; 7 to 11

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Chapter 24: Extension: A - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) The MOST likely cause(s) of cerebral palsy is(are):

A) febrile convulsions.

B) birth or developmental injury.

C) toxins in the water or air.

D) herpes simplex.

Q2) The MOST typical cause of hydrocephalus is:

A) too much CSF production.

B) absence of lateral ventricles.

C) bad parenting.

D) obstruction to CSF flow.

Q3) The male - to - female ratio in autism is about:

A) 2 to 1.

B) 3 to 1.

C) 4 to 1.

D) 6 to 1.

Q4) CSF is made by the:

A) choroid plexus.

B) foramina of Magendie.

C) fourth ventricle.

D) ventral hypothalamus.

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Chapter 24: Extension: B - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) dyslexia ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q2) What are the four categories of potential causes of cerebral palsy? Give an example of each.

Q3) Bradley and Bryant ___

A)sluggish attention shifting

B)deficiency in phonemic awareness

C)too rapid presentation of sounds

D)cerebral palsy

Q4) What is the basic premise of the Geschwind-Galaburda hypothesis? Do you find any flaw in this premise?

Q5) autism ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q6) Distinguish between cerebral palsy and hydrocephalus.

Page 79

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Chapter 24: Extension: C - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) _____ is treated by the insertion into one lateral ventricle of a valve and a tube that passes into a jugular vein to drain into the cardiac atrium.

A) Cerebral palsy

B) Hyperlexia

C) Fragile-X syndrome

D) Hydrocephalus

Q2) _____ is a term describing unusual reading ability in otherwise cognitively impaired persons, such as children with autism.

A) Hypsography

B) Hyperlexia

C) Hypergraphia

D) Hypolexia

Q3) Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD) produces a wide range of brain abnormalities, including all of the following EXCEPT:

A) abnormal gyri.

B) abnormal clusters of cells.

C) underdeveloped brains.

D) enlarged ventricles.

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Chapter 25: Extension: A - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of

the Adult Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sugita found that properties of neurons in area _____ changed following monkeys' adaptive changes to prisms.

A) V1 and V4

B) V4

C) V1 but not V4

D) V4 but not V1

Q2) Ramachandran and Hirstein found that following hand amputations the cortical map of the hand could be detected by stroking the:

A) opposite hand.

B) face.

C) ear lobes.

D) arm.

Q3) The work of Nudo and colleagues underscores the importance of _____ in recovery from brain damage.

A) the use of affected body parts

B) edema-reducing drugs

C) equipotentiality

D) preventing spinal shock

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Chapter 25: Extension: B - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the sequence of recovery (four stages) seen by Twitchell in brain - damaged patients?

Q2) Elbert et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q3) Jacobs et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q4) Why do the authors of the textbook call compensation the "problem of the threelegged cat"?

Q5) What evidence is there that motor maps can be modified by experience?

Q6) Pantev et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia Page 82

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Chapter 25: Extension: C - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) _____ is a progressive degenerative disease that is found in individuals with a history of multiple concussions and other closed - head injuries that is characterized by neurofibrillary tangles, plaques, and cerebral atrophy and expanded ventricles due to cell loss.

A) Caenorhabditis elegans

B) Chronic traumatic encephalopathy

C) Focal hand dystonia

D) Kindling

Q2) Which would be a case of complete recovery rather than compensation?

A) a patient with hemianopia who redirects his gaze so that visual stimuli fall in the unaffected part of his visual field

B) an infant whose language functions are lateralized to the right hemisphere, at a cost to right-hemisphere function

C) a cat that is able to regain prior levels of agility following the amputation of a leg

D) a posttrauma head-injury patient who no longer demonstrates sensitivity to bright lights, numbness of the body, or speech difficulty

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Chapter 26: Extension: A - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) The corpus callosum is particularly vulnerable to damage following:

A) migraine stroke.

B) open-head trauma.

C) closed-head trauma.

D) embolism

Q2) Not all of the problems with closed - head trauma occur at the time of the accident.

Which of the following is a delayed effect?

A) contrecoup contusion

B) stretching of nerve fibers

C) hydrocephalus

D) microscopic lesions

Q3) "Cerebral vascular accident" is another term for:

A) stroke.

B) ischemia.

C) cerebral hemorrhage.

D) aneurysm.

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Chapter 26: Extension: B - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) The authors of your text list six ways in which cerebral trauma can affect brain function. Identify five of these (or all six).

Q2) edema ___

A)abnormal blood vessels

B)accumulation of fluid

C)transient ischemia

D)blood trapped under skull

Q3) Identify the types of secondary - brain injury that can occur with closed - head injuries.

Q4) Identify the types of primary - brain injury that can occur with closed - head injuries.

Q5) What is the difference, in terms of both causes and symptoms, between paraplegia and Brown - Séquard syndrome?

Q6) How much time can pass after a vascular emergency before supportive therapies are no longer effective? Why do you think time is of the essence in these cases?

Q7) Describe the major types of vascular disorders that a practicing clinical neuropsychologist must know about.

Q8) What is the difference between an angioma and an aneurysm?

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Chapter 26: Extension: C - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) Masses of enlarged and tortuous cortical vessels that are supplied by one or more large arteries are called:

A) angiomas.

B) aneurysms.

C) thrombolitic vessels.

D) embolitic vessels.

Q2) A female patient experiences constriction of blood vessels (vasospasm) leading to impaired sensory function. Which disorder did the patient most likely suffer?

A) seizure

B) hematoma

C) migraine stroke

D) cerebral hemorrhage

Q3) An infarct is _____.

A) a ballooning blood vessel

B) a region of dead tissue

C) a blood clot that blocks a major blood vessel

D) a blood clot that obstructs circulation

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Chapter 27: Extension: A - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) The main neurotransmitter system implicated in schizophrenia is:

A) acetylcholine.

B) dopamine.

C) norepinephrine.

D) serotonin.

Q2) Which of the following disorders is NOT classified as a mood disorder?

A) depression

B) bipolar disorder

C) mania

D) obsessive-compulsive disorder

Q3) In the seventeenth century, many people burned as witches in the English village of Bures actually suffered from:

A) Parkinson's disease.

B) Huntington's disease

C) Tourette's syndrome.

D) Alzheimer's disease.

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Chapter 27: Extension: B - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) coprolalia ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q2) According to the textbook, what three factors make the sensitization model of bipolar disorder intriguing for understanding bipolar disorder?

Q3) autosomal dominant allele ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q4) amyloid plaques ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q5) Under what conditions would you favor psychosurgery for agitated schizophrenics?

Q6) Distinguish between type I and type II schizophrenia, according to the text.

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Q7) What are the symptoms and underlying brain changes in Parkinson's disease?

Chapter 27: Extension: C - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) The abnormal movements seen in adults with Huntington's disease are thought to be caused by the hyperactivity of neurons secreting _____.

A) dopamine

B) acetylcholine

C) GABA

D) B-APP

Q2) The positive symptoms of Parkinson's disease include all of the following EXCEPT _____.

A) tremor at rest

B) disorders of posture

C) muscular rigidity

D) involuntary movements

Q3) Which symptom of Parkinson's disease can manifest as a lack of blinking, blank facial expression, difficulty making repetitive movements, or the absence of rigidity?

A) akinesia

B) disorder of locomotion

C) disorder of righting

D) disturbance of speech

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Chapter 28: Extension: A - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) The process of working backward from behavioral assessment to predicting areas of brain damage is:

A) beset with interpretive problems.

B) relatively easy with adequate training.

C) accomplished only by experienced neurologists.

D) not an option that has been explored.

Q2) The mean IQ score on the FSIQ is:

A)50.

B)80.

C)100.

D)120.

Q3) Which is NOT a goal of assessment in clinical neuropsychology?

A) diagnosing the presence or absence of brain damage

B) facilitating patient care

C) identifying unusual brain organization

D) classifying disorders.

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Chapter 28: Extension: B - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) Identify some factors that can make interpretation of neuropsychological tests difficult.

Q2) memory functions ___

A)Proteus Maze Test

B)Rey Complex-Figure Test

C)automobile puzzle

D)Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q3) What are the particular challenges to neuropsychological testing that managed health care poses?

Q4) Discuss how right - versus left - hemisphere damage would likely affect performance and verbal scores on the Weschler Scales.

Q5) conceptual functions ___

A)Proteus Maze Test

B)Rey Complex-Figure Test

C)automobile puzzle

D)Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q6) Why is postinjury intelligence testing not necessarily useful?

Q7) Identify two of the tests for intellectual and conceptual functions in the Boston Process Approach.

92

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Chapter 28: Extension: C - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) Which is NOT a composite - type test?

A) Benton's neuropsychological investigation

B) Oxford neuropsychological procedures

C) Western Ontario procedures

D) the Luria-Nebraska Battery

Q2) Warrington and her colleagues found that lesions of the _____ hemisphere depress verbal IQs.

A) left

B) right

Q3) During the Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test, Stroop Test, and Chicago Word - Fluency Test, imaging has shown that subjects demonstrate activation in the _____.

A) amygdala

B) frontal lobe

C) temporal lobe

D) hippocampus

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