Neuroscience for Occupational Therapy Solved
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the principles of neuroscience as they relate to occupational therapy practice, providing students with a foundational understanding of the structure and function of the nervous system. Emphasis is placed on how neural processes influence human behavior, movement, cognition, sensation, and emotion, as well as how dysfunctions in these systems impact occupational performance. Students will examine neurological conditions commonly encountered in occupational therapy, learn to interpret neuroanatomical and neurophysiological information, and apply this knowledge to the evaluation and intervention planning process. The course integrates clinical case studies and evidence-based approaches to prepare future occupational therapists for informed, client-centered practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pedrettis Occupational Therapy Practice Skills for Physical Dysfunct
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Chapter 1: The Occupational Therapy Practice Framework
and the Practice of Occupational Therapy for People With
Physical Disabilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Framework refers to activities that are oriented toward interacting with the environment and are generally optional (may be delegated to another)as which of the following?
A) Activities of daily living (ADLs)
B) Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)
C) Performance skills
D) Areas of occupation
E) Context
Answer: B
Q2) To make her bed,the 10-year-old client will need to unfold the pillowcase and push the pillow all the way into the case so that the corners of the pillow and case match.This would be considered under which section of activity demands?
A) Social demands
B) Sequence and timing
C) Required actions
D) Required body function
E) Required body structures
Answer: C
3
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Chapter 2: The Occupational Therapy Practice Framework
and the Practice of Occupational Therapy for People With
Physical Disabilities
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Q1) An OT practitioner is working with a client with carpal tunnel syndrome.Which of the following is not a preparatory method that the OT can use with the client?
A) Cock-up splinting to hold the wrist in neutral to 10 degrees of extension
B) Tendon-gliding exercises for the long finger flexors
C) Ergonomic modification of the client's workspace
D) Ultrasound phonophoresis and iontophoresis to reduce inflammation
Answer: C
Q2) The OT practitioner observed a client playing a game of cards.During the game the client looped one elbow around the upright of her wheelchair,leaned toward the table,and grasped a card before going across the room to answer a phone call.The actions observed are primarily an example of which of the following?
A) Process skills
B) Performance patterns
C) Communication/interaction skills
D) Motor skills
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: History and Practice Trends in Physical
Dysfunction Intervention
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Q1) In 1972 Edward Roberts,at the University of California in Berkeley,initiated which of the following?
A) The disability rights movement
B) The interactional or sociopolitical model
C) The independent living movement
D) The interactional or sociopolitical movement
E) The social model
Answer: C
Q2) Which model views the individual as a passive participant in the intervention process?
A) Moral treatment
B) Disability rights movement
C) Interactional or sociopolitical model
D) Medical model
E) Social model
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Application of the Occupational Therapy
Practice Framework to Physical Dysfunction
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Q1) Occupational therapy services provided within the client's home require careful consideration of the environment.What issues would typically be addressed within this setting?
A) Changing the furniture arrangement to eliminate potential falls
B) Safety in meal preparation
C) Simplification of household cleaning tasks
D) All of the above
Q2) The practice setting places expectations and restrictions on the provision of occupational therapy services.The anticipated length of services varies from setting to setting; clients may receive only a few days of service or may receive ongoing consultative occupational therapy services for months.In which setting does the client typically receive intensive daily occupational therapy services for a few weeks?
A) Acute care hospital
B) Acute rehabilitation hospital
C) Day treatment setting
D) Outpatient clinics
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Chapter 5: Evidence-Based Practice for Occupational Therapy
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Q1) A need statement should specify who is the target of the problem,what changes are desired,what degrees of change is desired,and which of the following?
A) Data needed
B) Reflexive intervention one needs to provide
C) The Canadian Occupational Performance Measure
D) How one will recognize that change has occurred
E) The problem statement
Q2) The three sources of credible evidence in evidence-based practice are professionally generated evidence,scientific evidence,and which of the following?
A) Professional education
B) Professional experience
C) Client-generated
D) Scientific inquiry
E) Ethical considerations
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Chapter 6: Health Promotion and Wellness for People With
Physical Disabilities
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Q1) All of the following are examples of secondary preventive measures except:
A) Joint protection instruction
B) Energy conservation instruction
C) Ergonomic assessment and modification
D) Work simplification instruction
Q2) You are evaluating a 34-year-old woman who tells you that she is planning to quit smoking and has discussed her plans with her doctor and family.She said that she plans to quit at some point during the coming month.According to the transtheoretical model of health promotion,her statement is most consistent with which of the following stages?
A) Precontemplation
B) Contemplation
C) Preparation stage
D) Termination
Q3) Which assumptions guide health promotion OT service?
A) Client-centered care, empowerment, enablement
B) Client-centered care and client compliance with procedures
C) Client compliance with procedures and therapist expertise
D) All of the above
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Chapter 7: Documentation of Occupational Therapy Services
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Q1) Which term below is not an example of skilled terminology?
A) Analyze
B) Maintain
C) Facilitate
D) Design
E) Adapt
Q2) Which of the following is not included as subjective part of a SOAP note?
A) Information reported by the doctor
B) Information reported by the client
C) Information reported by the caregiver
D) Information reported by the family
Q3) How often is documentation required?
A) Daily
B) Weekly
C) Monthly
D) Whenever occupational therapy (OT) services are provided
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Chapter 8: Documentation of Occupational Therapy Services
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Q1) Pick the best answer to explain what is wrong with using the following statement as the objective part of a note: "The client has decreased grip strength of the right hand,which limits his ability to open a jar."
A) It should be in the subjective portion of the note.
B) It does not state what interventions are planned.
C) It is not an objective measurement.
D) It is an interpretation of an objective measurement, rather than an objective measurement.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a long-term goal (also called discharge goal)?
A) The client will be able to dress self with a simple pullover shirt with no fasteners.
B) The client will be able to button and unbutton an article of clothing.
C) The client will be able to tie a pair of shoes.
D) The client will be able to dress independently.
E) The client will be able to put on and remove slacks.
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Chapter 9: Infection Control and Safety Issues in the Clinic
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Q1) To reduce the risk of cross-contamination,the occupational therapist should wash his or her hands before and after treating each client for at least:
A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 20 seconds
Q2) The occupational therapist should observe several precautions when providing intervention to a client who is catheterized.Which of the following precautions are appropriate?
A) Avoid crimping or stretching the catheter drainage tube, and place the urine catheter bag below the level of the bladder.
B) Avoid crimping and stretching the catheter drainage tube, and place the urine collection bag in the client's lap.
C) Avoid crimping and stretching the catheter drainage tube, and place the urine catheter bag above the level of the bladder.
D) Avoid crimping and stretching the catheter drainage tube, and place the urine catheter bag in a location convenient for the client.
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Chapter 10: Infection Control and Safety Issues in the Clinic
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Q1) In addition to teaching the client to use dyspnea control postures,the occupational therapist also teaches the client to use pursed-lip breathing to reduce shortness of breath while performing activities of daily living.Which of the following best describes pursed-lip breathing?
A) Inhaling slowly through pursed lips, then exhaling through the nose
B) Inhaling through pursed lips, then exhaling slowly through the nose
C) Inhaling slowly through the nose, then exhaling through pursed lips
D) Inhaling through the nose, then exhaling slowly through pursed lips
Q2) An OT practitioner is working with a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who has been admitted to the hospital with pneumonia.The client begins to experience some shortness of breath while seated at a table completing a meal preparation activity.Which of the following is the correct dyspnea control position to use for the client?
A) Client bends deeply at the waist, resting the chest on the thighs.
B) Client sits upright with arms relaxed at the sides of the body.
C) Client bends forward slightly at the waist, leaning the forearms on the table.
D) Client leans back against the chair backrest with arms resting in the lap.
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Chapter 11: Activities of Daily Living
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Q1) The occupational therapist is working with a client who has pain and weakness in her hands as a result of moderate to severe arthritis.To increase functional independence,the client may use which of the following?
A) Plate guards or scoop dishes
B) A commercially available sock aid
C) An extended handle reacher
D) Lever-type doorknob extensions
Q2) IADL skills needed for client safety and independence alone at home include all but which of the following?
A) The ability to retrieve a simple meal
B) The ability to ambulate independently
C) The ability to employ safety precautions
D) The ability to take medications.
Q3) The use of a wrist-driven flexor hinge splint may benefit a client with muscle function from spinal cord levels __________.
A) C6
B) C5
C) C4
D) A and B
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Activities of Daily Living
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Q1) Which of the following is the main technique used for a client with limited joint range of movement (ROM)to perform ADLs?
A) Compensatory strategy involving changing the method in which an activity is performed
B) Changing the environment where the activity is performed
C) Using an assistive device for the activity
D) Treatment, including remediation
Q2) The most commonly used methods to teach clients who have perceptual problems,poor memory,and difficulty following directions include all but which of the following?
A) Brief demonstration and oral instruction
B) Concrete step-by-step approach and instruction
C) Backward chaining
D) Activity performance along with the therapist
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an instrumental ADL (IADL)?
A) Care of others
B) Functional mobility
C) Toilet hygiene
D) Bowel and bladder management
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is recommended that wheelchair footplates clear the floor by a minimum distance of ________________.
A) 2 inches
B) 1 inch
C) 0.25 to 0.5 of an inch
D) 4 inches
Q2) A client at risk for foot drop deformity may benefit from the use of which orthotic?
A) Supramalleolar orthosis (SMO)
B) Knee-ankle-foot orthosis (KAFO)
C) Ankle-foot orthosis (AFO)
D) Hip-knee-ankle-foot orthosis (HKAFO)
Q3) Which ambulation aid would be recommended for a client who has a moderately unsteady gait as well as pain and weakness in the hands and wrists caused by arthritis?
A) Single point cane
B) Forearm crutches
C) Standard front-wheeled walker
D) Front-wheeled walker with forearm platforms
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Chapter 14: Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are an occupational therapist working with an individual with T1 spinal cord injury.Your client has paralysis of both legs.Upper extremity function is fully intact,but your client has limited upper trunk stability.Which of the following is the most appropriate type of transfer to use to maintain safety and maximize your client's independence in functional mobility?
A) Bent pivot transfer
B) Sliding board transfer
C) Stand pivot transfer
D) Transfer with mechanical lift
Q2) You are an occupational therapist,and your client is a 69-year-old man with left hemiplegia from a cerebrovascular accident.Your client has normal movement on his right side.He has a little movement in his left leg but none in his left arm.He has fair sitting balance but needs significant assistance to maintain a standing position.Which of the following is the most appropriate type of transfer to use to maintain safety and maximize your client's independence in functional mobility?
A) Bent pivot transfer
B) Sliding board transfer
C) Stand pivot transfer
D) Two-person dependent transfer
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Work Evaluation and Work Programs
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Q1) Which organization would an occupational therapist contact for more information about community work and rehabilitation programs?
A) National Governors Association Center for Best Practices
B) Department of Labor
C) State vocational rehabilitation program
D) All of the above
Q2) Which one of these risk factors is not usually included on an ergonomics checklist used by the ergonomics team?
A) Repetitions of task
B) Lunch break and break times
C) Use of vibration
D) Employee pay scale and benefits
Q3) _______ addresses "human performance and well-being in relation to one's job,equipment,tools,and environment."
A) Anthropometry
B) Ergonomics
C) Industrial hygiene
D) OSHA
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17
Chapter 16: Work Evaluation and Work Programs
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Q1) A factory worker on an assembly line has been referred to occupational therapy (OT)for treatment of his right biceps tendonitis,which is prohibiting him from performing at a productive level because of his high pain levels.What risk factor must be closely assessed in a job analysis?
A) Cold temperatures
B) Vibration
C) Repetitions of tasks within a time period
D) Contact stress
Q2) LD sustained a spinal cord injury (SCI)at the T-11 level resulting from a car accident.Before his injury he worked as a service manager at a car dealership.He would like to return to this job.What type of vocational evaluation would provide the most information to help him return to his previous job?
A) A specific vocational evaluation
B) A general vocational evaluation
C) Work hardening
D) Valpar 9 Total Body Range of Motion test
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Chapter 17: Americans With Disabilities Act and Related
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neighborhood restaurant needs to comply with ADA requirements to accommodate customers with disabilities.What is the first priority under Title III regulations?
A) Provide parking for the disabled and access into the restaurant.
B) Make the restrooms accessible for all people.
C) Make restaurant tables accessible to wheelchair users.
D) Make the menus more accessible for persons with visual limitations.
Q2) On the basis of the home evaluation,the OT practitioner has recommended a ramp for the front entrance of her client's apartment.The client's family is willing to build the ramp; however,the landlord is prohibiting it.What should the OT practitioner do?
A) Inform the family of their rights under the Fair Housing Act and provide resources for self-advocacy. Follow up and advocate when necessary.
B) Encourage the client's family to move.
C) Recommend a wheelchair that can climb steps.
D) Threaten the landlord with a lawsuit.
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Chapter 18: Leisure Occupations
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Q1) Samuel is a 47-year-old African American man who owns his own landscaping business.He recently fell off a ladder and hit his head on concrete,causing brain damage.He is able to move all extremities,use a front wheel walker,and speak coherently,although he has problems finding the right word.After completing the Canadian Occupational Performance Measure,the OT practitioner discovered that his most important goal is returning to work.Which leisure occupation do you think would be most appropriate to include in his intervention plan?
A) Gardening in raised beds, giving him the ability to self-direct the activity
B) Playing cards to strengthen his hands and cognitive abilities
C) Cooking, using energy-conservation techniques
D) Grooming a canine companion to improve sequencing abilities and hand movements
Q2) Which of the following age and culture-based activities would an OT practitioner assign to a 55-year-old Asian American woman who is recovering from a stroke?
A) Needlepoint
B) Adapted bowling
C) Swimming
D) Tile games (such as Mah Jong)
E) None of the above
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Americans With Disabilities Act and Related
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Q1) The Air Carrier Access Act of 1986 (ACAA)prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities by air carriers.However,airlines may exclude someone from flying if
A) The person's disability results in an appearance that would offend someone
B) There is a risk of affecting the safety of the flight
C) There are other people with disabilities on the flight already and the staff would be inconvenienced
D) They did not give prior notice of special needs to preboard
Q2) What year did Congress pass the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?
A) 1973
B) 1990
C) 2002
D) 1969
Q3) For the purposes of determining application of the ADA,"essential job functions" are best determined _________________.
A) On a case-by-case basis, looking at the facts of each situation
B) By the supervisor of the department
C) By the employees doing the job
D) By the written job description
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Chapter 20: Leisure Occupations
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Q1) Which of the following is not a benefit of leisure occupations for adults with physical disabilities?
A) Increased sense of self-worth
B) Increased ability to chew and swallow without aspirating
C) Improved or maintained perceptual abilities
D) Experience of intellectual stimulation
Q2) Adults with physical disabilities may give up leisure activities for which of the following reasons?
A) Because their clinical setting does not employ a recreational therapist
B) Because they all prefer watching television
C) Because they are not aware of ways to adapt valued activities so that they may participate in them again
D) Because they do not wish to learn new hobbies or crafts
Q3) Which group did the Centers for Disease Control identify as engaging in the least amount of physical activity?
A) African Americans
B) Women in all cultures
C) Hispanics
D) Asians
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Occupation-Based Functional Motion Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following is most important for the practitioner to keep in mind during the clinical observation when administering the occupation-based motion assessment?
A) The role that scapulohumeral rhythm will play in the client's success in completing these tasks
B) The possibility that loss of ROM and pain may be the greatest contributors to the client's inability to complete tasks successfully
C) The fact that people perform the same activity in a variety of ways depending on habits and learned experiences
D) The fact that the client may be using compensatory movements to complete tasks because of poor endurance and muscle weakness
Q2) The advantage of an occupation-based assessment over a functional motion assessment is that the occupation-based assessment affords the therapist the opportunity to do which of the following?
A) Observe movement patterns.
B) Observe compensatory motions.
C) Observe the effect of added resistance unto body structures.
D) Observe muscle strength and muscle imbalance.
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Chapter 22: Joint Range of Motion
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Q1) What is the average normal joint ROM (using the 180-degree method)for thumb metacarpophalangeal (MP)flexion?
A) 0-70 degrees
B) 0-90 degrees
C) 20-90 degrees
D) 20-50 degrees
E) 0-50 degrees
Q2) When joint motion is limited by the length of a muscle that crosses two joints,it is called ________________.
A) Passive instability
B) Joint stiffness
C) Passive insufficiency
D) Joint weakness
E) Joint shortening
Q3) When measuring passive ROM,the therapist should not _______________.
A) Watch for signs of pain or discomfort
B) Hold the part securely above and below the joint being measured
C) Gently move the joint through its ROM
D) Ask the client to relax the part being measured
E) Force the joint through its ROM
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Chapter 23: Joint Range of Motion
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Q1) An OT practitioner is measuring the starting position of passive proximal interphalangeal (PIP)joint flexion in a client who has increased flexor tone in his wrist and fingers after a traumatic brain injury.The therapist should place the client's wrist in which position?
A) Neutral or flexion
B) Slight extension
C) Full extension
D) Any position, because wrist position has no effect on finger motion
Q2) An OT practitioner is reassessing a client's shoulder external rotation active ROM at discharge.During the initial evaluation,ROM measurements (0-15)were taken with the client seated and the humerus adducted because of the presence of shoulder pain.The client's pain has since resolved,and ROM has improved so that the client is now able to abduct the humerus to assume the alternative testing position.To document discharge ROM,what should the OT do?
A) State that the ROM has improved but measurements were not taken because pain has resolved.
B) Observe the motion and estimate the ROM.
C) Measure external rotation with the humerus abducted.
D) Measure external rotation with the humerus adducted.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Evaluation of Muscle Strength
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Q1) Which of the following does not belong with the others?
A) Good
B) Normal
C) 4
D) Moderate resistance
E) B and D
Q2) MMT accuracy can be negatively influenced by which of the following?
A) Placing the client on a comfortable soft surface
B) Repeating the test several times on the body part
C) Positioning the body part correctly
D) Palpating muscles before applying resistance
E) A and B
Q3) MMT would never be appropriate for a client with which of the following conditions?
A) Peripheral nerve injury
B) Spastic cerebral palsy
C) Muscular dystrophy
D) Spinal cord injury
E) Multiple sclerosis
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Chapter 25: Evaluation of Muscle Strength
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Q1) An OT practitioner is testing a client's shoulder strength.The client is able to actively abduct to 90 degrees against gravity.What should the therapist do next?
A) Apply resistance.
B) Reposition the client to test in the gravity-eliminated plane.
C) Assist the client into full abduction and then apply resistance.
D) Abduct the shoulder passively to assess available range of motion.
Q2) An OT practitioner is screening a client's wrist extension strength.The client is able to actively extend the wrist partially against gravity.Because of a joint limitation,the client's forearm cannot be placed in neutral rotation.What is the appropriate muscle grade?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
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27
Chapter 26: Evaluation of Sensation and Intervention for Sensory Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of these is not an example of protective sensory reeducation?
A) Using a screwdriver for 30 minutes without any gloves
B) Softening the amount of force used when gripping objects
C) Moisturizing the skin regularly to keep it supple
D) Checking for blisters or cuts
Q2) Why is it important to test temperature sensation before applying heat or cold modalities in the clinic?
A) To avoid burning the client
B) To know whether to adjust the thermostat in the room
C) To know whether to put a blanket on the client
D) To find out whether the client prefers heat over cold or vice versa
Q3) Why is it important to support the client's hand fully when performing a sensory evaluation?
A) So the client remains relaxed
B) To prevent the hand from moving, which could provide sensory information that interferes with the testing
C) To be sure that the client pays attention
D) To be consistent in technique among all clients
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Chapter 27: Evaluation of Sensation and Intervention for Sensory Dysfunction
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Q1) Semmes-Weinstein Monofilaments are used to test __________.
A) Sharp-dull
B) Proprioception
C) Pressure threshold
D) Sweating responses
Q2) Superficial fine touch receptors include which of the following?
A) Pacinian corpuscles
B) Ruffini's corpuscles
C) Meissner's corpuscles
D) Golgi tendon organs
Q3) Which statement is not true?
A) Axons with larger diameters transmit information more quickly.
B) Afferents are peripheral axons.
C) Afferents are categorized by the diameter of the axon.
D) Afferents with larger diameters transmit information more slowly.
Q4) Sensory reeducation includes all but which of the following?
A) Contralateral upper extremity constraint
B) Stimulating localization
C) Tasks of recognition
D) Tasks of graded stimulus
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Chapter 28: Eating and Swallowing
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Q1) Mattias is concerned about his frequent drooling and difficulties controlling the food bolus within his mouth.His daughter's wedding is in 4 weeks,and he does not want to embarrass himself or his family by drooling or choking on food or liquids.Which strategies would be most appropriate?
A) His wife uses a side handgrip on Mattias to improve his head control, and he should only eat crumbly foods.
B) Mattias should frequently pat his mouth during the meal and alternate between cold and hot foods.
C) Mattias should lean back in his chair while eating to avoid drooling.
D) Mattias should only eat pureed foods and thin liquids while at the wedding.
Q2) A wet or gurgly vocal quality after an individual swallows is indicative of what?
A) Poor vocal fold control when talking
B) Poor respiratory support and a weak voice
C) Material collecting in the larynx
D) Nasal congestion
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Chapter 29: Evaluation and Treatment of Visual Deficits
Following Brain Injury
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Q1) All but which of the following could directly or indirectly result from a head injury?
A) Cataract
B) Diabetic retinopathy
C) Corneal scarring
D) Vitreous hemorrhage
Q2) Colonel Pickle sustained a right posterior cerebral artery lesion.After the stroke the Colonel experienced difficulty reading and would often lose his place in the text or find that the sentence he was reading did not make sense.He also experienced a change in depth perception wherein an object,usually the arm of a chair or a table edge on the left,would suddenly appear in front of him.The Colonel scheduled an evaluation with his ophthalmologist.Which of the following diagnoses did the ophthalmologist most likely make?
A) Glaucoma
B) Presbyopia
C) Left homonymous hemianopsia
D) Hemi inattention
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Chapter 30: Evaluation and Pain Management
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Q1) In working with Catalina,the occupational therapist should ensure that she takes her pain medications at least 30 minutes before the therapy session to promote maximal participation.Interventions include which of the following?
A) Instruction to bend from the waist when picking up heavy objects
B) Teaching her tasks and positions that move her body out of balance to challenge the low back muscles
C) Energy conservation and pacing during activities of daily living and instrumental activities of daily living
D) Use of a front-wheeled walker
Q2) Which of the following best defines pain?
A) An objective experience that is either acute or chronic
B) An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience, usually associated with actual or potential tissue damage
C) A physical disability with an emotional component
D) A negative sensation that always disrupts normal occupations
E) All of the above
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Chapter 31: Evaluation and Pain Management
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Q1) An occupational therapy (OT)practitioner has received an order to evaluate a middle-aged man because of shoulder pain that is impeding his ability to go back to work. The OT practitioner observes guarded movement,bracing,posturing,rubbing,and facial grimacing.These are examples of which of the following?
A) Asymmetry of the spine
B) Pain behaviors
C) Myasthenia gravis symptoms
D) Hypochondriasis
E) All of the above
Q2) Catalina's low back pain has led to the inability to work and engage in leisure occupations.Which of the following apply to her condition?
A) Is typical of a central pain syndrome
B) Needs to be treated by a physical therapist, not an occupational therapist.
C) Fortunately hasn't produced any fear of movement in Catalina
D) All of the above
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Chapter 32: Orthotics
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Q1) An OT practitioner is working with a client who must wear a thumb spica splint for 3 more weeks after cast removal for a scaphoid fracture.The physician has allowed the patient to use the hand with the splint in place for light activities.When making the splint,the therapist must be sure to position the thumb in what position to allow light activities?
A) Thumb extension
B) Thumb flexion
C) Palmar prehension
D) Hook grasp
Q2) An OT is working with a client experiencing upper extremity weakness from a spinal cord injury.The client wants to be able to use her arm to drive a power wheelchair.The therapist has set up a MAS,but the client is having difficulty horizontally abducting her shoulder enough to reach the joystick control.Which adjustment can the therapist make to facilitate this motion?
A) Roll the semireclining mount outwardly.
B) Pitch the semireclining mount toward the rear of the wheelchair.
C) Lower the semireclining mount on the wheelchair upright.
D) Move the rocker arm more proximally on the forearm support.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Orthotics
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Q1) Which is not true about a MAS?
A) Assists motion through linkage of ball-bearing joints
B) Compensates for proximal weakness in upper extremities
C) Allows for occupational performance
D) Can be used for therapeutic exercise
E) Adjustments require very little training to make
Q2) To increase range of motion before application of a splint,the occupational therapist should __________________.
A) Apply ice to the joint
B) Apply heat to the joint
C) Have the client complete an aerobic activity
D) All of the above
E) Only A and B
Q3) The distal transverse arch of the hand lies obliquely to the ___________.
A) Proximal interphalangeal joints of digits 2 through 5
B) Metacarpal joint of the thumb
C) Distal interphalangeal joints of digits 2 through 5
D) Wrist carpal bones
E) Metacarpal heads of digits 2 through 5
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Traditional Sensorimotor Approaches to Intervention
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the procedure of maximal resistance?
A) If resistance breaks the client's hold, apply additional resistance.
B) Strength is increased by movement against resistance that requires maximal effort by the client.
C) For clients with neurological impairment, very light resistance is usually ineffective and may not meet the client's needs.
D) If a client has spasticity, resistance cannot increase existing muscle imbalance.
Q2) Which of the following is not a contraindication for use of PNF techniques or procedures?
A) Traction for persons with fractures
B) Traction for persons who have had recent surgery
C) Multiple repetitions of rhythmic stabilization with maximal exertion for persons with cardiac involvement
D) Hold-relax techniques for persons with RSD/CRPS
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Chapter 35: Degenerative Diseases of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has three clinical subtypes.Which type is associated with a quicker progression and problems with dysphagia and dysarthria?
A) Progressive bulbar palsy
B) Progressive spinal muscular atrophy
C) Primary lateral sclerosis
D) Primary medial sclerosis
Q2) You are reviewing the medical record of your next patient,who has Parkinson's disease.The neurologist has indicated that this man has bradykinesia.What does this mean?
A) He has no movement available.
B) His movements are slow.
C) He has oscillations in his movements.
D) His movements are very erratic and quick.
Q3) Which form of multiple sclerosis is the most common and features repeated episodes in which the client has a loss of function and then the function returns?
A) Secondary-progressive
B) Primary-progressive
C) Relapsing-remitting
D) Progressive-relapsing
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Chapter 36: Cerebrovascular Accident Stroke
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Q1) Which is the most common form of stroke?
A) Ischemic
B) Embolic
C) Thrombotic
D) Hemorrhagic
Q2) Sequencing and timing are considered in which Framework section?
A) Performance skills
B) Performance patterns
C) Context
D) Activity demands
E) Client factors
Q3) Roles and routines are under which Framework section?
A) Performance skills
B) Performance patterns
C) Context
D) Activity demands
E) Client factors
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Chapter 37: Spinal Cord Injury
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Q1) The occupational therapist can help achieve the desired flexor tightness necessary for tenodesis grasp by doing which of the following?
A) Ranging finger flexion with the wrist extended and finger extension with the wrist flexed
B) Ranging finger flexion with wrist flexed and finger extension with wrist extended
C) Ranging finger flexion with wrist at neutral and extension with wrist extended
Q2) The person with C6 quadriplegia may be able to assist in transfers by locking the elbows in extension and performing shoulder _________________.
A) Depression, extension, and adduction
B) Depression, external rotation, and adduction
C) Adduction and elbow flexion
D) Horizontal abduction and humeral adduction
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Chapter 38: Spinal Cord Injury
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Q1) You are testing Rick's sensation/perception. Which of the following tests should be least relevant to his disability?
A) Touch and superficial pain
B) Position sense and stereognosis
C) Body scheme and visual spatial perception
D) Thermal and pressure sensitivity
Q2) When being trained to use the tenodesis wrist-hand orthosis or flexor hinge hand splint,Rick should be taught to perform palmar prehension by doing which of the following?
A) Flexing the wrist
B) Extending the wrist
C) Flexing the fingers
D) Extending the fingers
Q3) Which of the following is another primary goal in the early stage of OT for Rick?
A) Achieve independence in lower extremity dressing
B) Improve physical endurance
C) Learn transfer skills
D) Explore vocational possibilities
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Chapter 39: Disorders of the Motor Unit
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Q1) An occupational therapist has received an order to evaluate Jan,a 45-year-old photographer who has been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis.In what aspect of evaluation should the therapist have advanced training to perform?
A) Dysphagia
B) Manual muscle testing
C) Home evaluation
D) Running groups
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a disorder of the neuromuscular junction?
A) Postpolio syndrome
B) Muscular dystrophy
C) Guillain-Barré syndrome
D) Myasthenia gravis
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Chapter 40: Disorders of the Motor Unit
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Q1) During a Backpack Awareness Day event,occupational therapy (OT)students educated middle school-aged children about carrying the correct amount of weight and wearing their backpacks correctly to prevent injury of which peripheral nerve?
A) Brachial plexus
B) Axillary nerve
C) Median
D) Long thoracic
Q2) An occupational therapist is treating an 18-year-old man who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy.He has expressed fear and anxiety over his declining bodily functions.How might the therapist respond?
A) Help him and his family find meaningful activities in which to participate as individuals or as a family.
B) Encourage the use of humor and to play and laugh together.
C) Refer him for psychological counseling.
D) Refer him to a spiritual advisor.
E) All of the above.
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Chapter 41: Arthritis
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Q1) Rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis are two of the more than 100 conditions that make up the rheumatic diseases.These conditions __________________.
A) Are the main reason children under 12 visit a physician
B) Are easily diagnosed by the physician
C) Seldom respond to medications
D) Seldom result in a visit to a physician
E) Are the main reason that adults over the age of 65 visit a physician
Q2) A clinical symptom of rheumatoid arthritis in the acute stage includes which of the following?
A) Hot and red joints
B) Increased joint movement
C) Pain that decreases with movement
D) Joint deformities
E) Asymmetrical joint involvement
Q3) A common hand deformity in rheumatoid arthritis includes which of the following?
A) Metacarpophalangeal (MP) ulnar deviation and wrist ulnar deviation
B) MP radial deviation and wrist ulnar deviation
C) MP ulnar deviation and wrist radial deviation
D) MP radial deviation and wrist radial deviation
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Arthritis
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Q1) A clinician is evaluating a client with rheumatoid arthritis.In addition to the client-centered interview,occupational profile,and occupational performance evaluation,the therapist wishes to document the clinical status.The clinician notices severe hand deformities and joint enlargements that may make goniometric measurements difficult.How should the therapist go about documenting digit flexion?
A) The therapist will be unable to measure the joint flexion because of the deformities.
B) The therapist should measure the distance from the fingertips to the distal palmar crease with a ruler.
C) The therapist should measure over the joint enlargements at each joint.
D) The therapist should account and subtract for the enlarged joint in determining the joint flexion.
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44
Chapter 43: Hand and Upper Extremity Injuries
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Q1) A client arrives for evaluation with loss of sensation of the volar surface of the thumb,index,and middle fingers.What nerve is involved?
A) Radial nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Posterior interosseous nerve
D) Median nerve
Q2) A client arrives for evaluation with the inability to extend her wrist,thumb,or MP joints of her right dominant hand.What nerve is involved?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Musculocutaneous nerve
Q3) What does digital clawing indicate?
A) Weakness or absence of the extensor muscles
B) Weakness or absence of the intrinsic muscles of the hand
C) Weakness or absence of the flexor muscles of the hand
D) Flexor tenosynovitis
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45
Chapter 44: Low Back Pain
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Q1) Which of the following best defines spinal stenosis?
A) The narrowing of the intervertebral foramen that decreases the space where the spinal nerve exits or enters the spine
B) A type of muscular weakness
C) A condition that never causes low back pain
D) A condition that is caused by the sciatic nerve
Q2) In working with Pilar,the occupational therapist will teach her the concepts of body mechanics,which include ___________________.
A) Avoiding twisting movements, holding objects close to the body, lifting with the legs
B) Teaching her tasks and positions that move her body out of balance to challenge and strengthen the low back muscles
C) Forceful dynamic stretching of the upper and lower back
D) Balancing on one leg while reaching overhead
E) All of the above
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Chapter 45: Hand and Upper Extremity Injuries
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Q1) Which of the following is the most common injury to the wrist?
A) Colles' fracture
B) Scaphoid fracture
C) Lunate fracture
D) Pisiform fracture
Q2) Positive Phalen's test is associated with which of the following?
A) Cubital tunnel syndrome
B) Radial tunnel syndrome
C) Carpal tunnel syndrome
D) Trigger finger
Q3) Which of the following best defines axonotmesis?
A) An injury in which nerve fibers distal to the site of injury degenerate but the internal organization of the nerve remains intact
B) Contusion of the nerve without Wallerian degeneration
C) Complete laceration of both nerve and fibrous tissues
D) An injury in which surgical intervention is typically required
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Chapter 46: Burns and Burn Rehabilitation
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Q1) Revascularization,reepithelialization,and contraction of a burn wound occur in which phase of wound healing?
A) Emergent
B) Inflammatory
C) Proliferation
D) Maturation
E) Remodeling
Q2) What is an escharotomy?
A) Incision down to and through muscle fascia
B) Incision through necrotic burned tissue
C) Removal of the epidermal layer of skin
D) Removal of necrotic muscle fascia
E) Removal of necrotic bone
Q3) A meshed split thickness skin graft is a type of _______________.
A) Allograft
B) Autograft
C) Xenograft
D) Heterograft
E) Homograft
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Burns and Burn Rehabilitation
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Q1) An OT practitioner is evaluating a client whose primary complaint is the inability to raise her arm to reach high cabinets and shelves.The therapist notes a very tight mature scar band crossing the client's posterior axilla that is limiting full shoulder motion.What should the therapist do?
A) Initiate stretching exercises for shoulder flexion.
B) Explore assistive devices or compensatory strategies to reach items.
C) Fit the client with a clavicular strap.
D) A and
Q2) An OT practitioner is treating a client with burns to the chest and upper extremities sustained 6 weeks ago.The client is exhibiting new stiffness and deep pain in the elbow at the end of elbow flexion range.The therapist suspects development of heterotopic ossification and should take which of the following actions?
A) Discontinue all elbow ROM until pain resolves.
B) Initiate dynamic elbow flexion splinting.
C) Have client perform active elbow ROM exercises within pain-free range.
D) Perform more aggressive passive stretching into elbow flexion.
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Chapter 48: Amputations and Prosthetics
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Q1) Which is not part of a myoelectric prosthesis control system?
A) Motor
B) Cable
C) Battery
D) Electrode
E) Amplifier
Q2) Which is not a function of a prosthetic sock?
A) Absorb perspiration
B) Protect against skin irritation
C) Compensate for residual limb volume changes
D) Provide comfort
E) Allow direct contact between socket and skin
Q3) What is the leading cause of upper extremity amputation?
A) PVD
B) Osteogenic sarcoma
C) Trauma
D) Chronic infection
E) Peripheral vasospastic disease
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Chapter 49: Amputations and Prosthetics
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Q1) An OT practitioner is working with a client who had a unilateral below-knee amputation 4 days ago.With regard to wheelchair and positioning,what should be the therapist's priority?
A) To provide a residual limb support
B) To place the large wheelchair wheels farther back to distribute weight
C) To remove both leg rests
D) To issue an extra-heavy wheelchair for stability
Q2) An OT practitioner is working with a client who had a unilateral below-knee amputation 2 weeks ago and wants to be able to resume living alone as soon as possible.To meet this goal,the therapist should:
A) Alter the client's preexisting performance patterns.
B) Encourage the client to focus on his former sense of self.
C) Discourage the client's independent process skills.
D) Adapt the client's activity demands.
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Chapter 50: Oncology
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Q1) Hormone therapy is an example of this type of cancer therapy.
A) En bloc resection
B) Chemotherapy
C) Radiation therapy
D) Palliative therapy
Q2) In cancer staging,the letter N refers to which of the following?
A) Lymph node involvement
B) Development of primary tumor
C) Invasion of adjacent tissues
D) Presence of known metastasis
Q3) For individuals with cancer,what is the most common impairment that leads to impaired ability to engage in meaningful activity?
A) Lymphedema
B) Peripheral neuropathy
C) Impaired cognition
D) Weakness
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Chapter 51: HIV Infection and Aids
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Q1) Which statement is true?
A) Once a person is taking highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART), he or she is no longer able to transmit HIV.
B) Once a person is taking nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs), he or she is no longer able to transmit HIV.
C) There are no known medications to effectively block the enzyme required to replicate HIV.
D) Once a person has contracted the HIV virus, he or she can always transmit the virus during unprotected sex
Q2) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)can be transmitted through all but which of the following means?
A) Unprotected sex with an infected partner
B) Infected blood transfusion
C) Intact skin-to-skin contact with an infected person
D) During the birth process from infected mother to infant
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