Neuroscience and Behavior Question Bank - 3327 Verified Questions

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Neuroscience and Behavior

Question Bank

Course Introduction

Neuroscience and Behavior explores the intricate relationship between the brain, nervous system, and behavior. This course examines the structure and function of neural circuits, how neurons communicate, and the biological basis of perception, cognition, emotion, learning, and memory. Students will gain an understanding of how genetic, hormonal, and environmental factors influence behavior and will analyze both normal and abnormal neural processes. Integrating principles from biology, psychology, and physiology, the course provides a comprehensive overview of current research and methodologies in behavioral neuroscience, preparing students to critically assess the connections between brain function and behavior.

Recommended Textbook

Biological Psychology 11th Edition by James W. Kalat

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15 Chapters

3327 Verified Questions

3327 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: The Major Issues

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207 Verified Questions

207 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) List the three gene states.

Answer: Dominant, recessive, and intermediate

Q2) Which statement about most psychological experiments using nonhuman animals is correct?

A) Animals are given intense, repeated, inescapable shocks in many experiments.

B) Extreme pain and stress are inflicted in attempts to drive the animals insane.

C) The research leads to no useful discoveries.

D) The research is regulated by animal care committees.

Answer: D

Q3) Which of the following BEST describes the concept of evolution?

A) "Survival of the fittest"

B) "Reproduction of the fittest"

C) "If you don't use it, you lose it."

D) "Always look for ways to improve."

Answer: B

Q4) Describe the relationship between heredity and environment.

Answer: NOT ANSWER.

Q5) List the four biological explanations of behavior.

Answer: physiological, ontogenetic, evolutionary, and functional

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Chapter 2: Nerve Cells and Nerve Impulses

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228 Verified Questions

228 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the approximate resting potential of the inside of a neuron's membrane, relative to the outside?

A) -70 millivolts

B) +10 millivolts

C) 0 millivolts

D) +90 millivolts

Answer: A

Q2) Which group is most likely to suffer from a thiamine deficiency?

A) alcoholics

B) heroin addicts

C) diabetics

D) infants

Answer: A

Q3) The resting potential of a neuron refers to:

A) the net positive charge on the inside of the neuron.

B) ions which rest in one place in the cell.

C) the movement of ions to the outside of the neuron.

D) the net negative charge on the inside of the neuron.

Answer: D

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Synapses

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225 Verified Questions

225 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following neurotransmitters is released by active neurons to dilate the blood vessels and increase blood flow?

A) endorphins

B) glycine

C) nitric oxide

D) acetylcholine

Answer: C

Q2) What was the first evidence reported by T. R. Elliott suggesting that synapses operate chemically?

A) Adrenaline mimics the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system.

B) Adrenaline decreases heart rate.

C) Adrenaline produces a hormone which decreases heart rate.

D) Adrenaline mimics the effects of the sympathetic nervous system.

Answer: D

Q3) Why do cocaine and amphetamine produce similar effects?

A) Both increase the activity of the sodium-potassium pump.

B) Both increase the presence of dopamine in the synapses.

C) Both cause a weakening of the blood-brain barrier.

D) The brain converts both of them into acetylcholine.

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Anatomy of the Nervous System

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248 Verified Questions

248 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In anatomy, the opposite of medial is:

A) lateral.

B) dorsal.

C) ventral.

D) rostral.

Q2) Which structure is likely to be damaged in Parkinson's disease, Huntington's disease, and other conditions that impair movement?

A) Thalamus

B) Basal ganglia

C) Limbic system

D) Reticular formation

Q3) Most of the postganglionic synapses of the sympathetic nervous system use:

A) GABA.

B) norepinephrine.

C) acetylcholine.

D) serotonin.

Q4) Damage to the striate cortex of the right hemisphere causes blindness in the left visual field.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Development and Plasticity of the Brain

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215 Verified Questions

215 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Compared to an adult, a fetus has:

A) more neurons.

B) approximately the same number of neurons.

C) about half the number of neurons.

D) about one-tenth the number of neurons.

Q2) Denervation supersensitivity refers to an increase in:

A) production and release of neurotransmitters.

B) growth of axon branches.

C) responses to neurotransmitters.

D) polarization of the membrane at rest.

Q3) What is signaled by nerve growth factor (NGF)?

A) That a target cell has "accepted" an axon

B) Which target cell a growing axon should connect with

C) That axons should elongate as the body grows bigger

D) The need for new neurons to form in brain areas that are lacking in neurons

Q4) Synaptogenesis is a process that begins before birth and continues throughout life.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Define proliferation during neural development.

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Chapter 6: Vision

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237 Verified Questions

237 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The optic nerve is composed of axons from ganglion cells.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If both eyes of a very young kitten are sutured shut for the first few weeks:

A) the kitten will be blind once the sutures are removed.

B) one eye will develop sight, but the other will not.

C) the cortex remains responsive to both eyes.

D) the kitten becomes more sensitive to highly saturated wavelengths of light.

Q3) Parvocellular neurons most likely receive input from:

A) magnocellular neurons.

B) rods.

C) bipolar cells that receive input from cones.

D) the periphery of the retina.

Q4) If light shines in the receptive field of a bipolar cell of the visual system, what effect will it have on the activity of that cell?

A) It will have no effect.

B) It will excite the cell.

C) It will inhibit the cell.

D) It may excite or inhibit the cell.

Q5) Describe the functional and anatomic differences between rods and cones.

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Chapter 7: The Other Sensory Systems

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244 Verified Questions

244 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Olfactory receptor sites are located:

A) in the brain.

B) on cilia.

C) in the olfactory bulb.

D) on the basilar membrane.

Q2) Certain painful stimuli activate neurons which release endorphins in the:

A) periaqueductal gray area.

B) ventricles

C) forebrain.

D) cerebellum.

Q3) To what kinds of tones do cells in the primary auditory cortex respond best?

A) low-pitch tones

B) high-pitch tones

C) pure single tones

D) combinations or patterns of tones

Q4) Most cells in the auditory cortex respond best to pure tones.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Name the three main theories of pitch perception.

Q6) What is nerve deafness?

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Chapter 8: Movement

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224 Verified Questions

224 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Briefly describe the cellular organization of the cerebellum.

Q2) The psychological disorders that accompany Huntington's disease could be mistaken for which of the following?

A) Schizophrenia

B) Dissociative identity disorder

C) Antisocial personality disorder

D) Bipolar disorder

Q3) Very brief electrical stimulation of the motor cortex results in:

A) relaxation.

B) muscle twitching.

C) laughing.

D) complex, coordinated movements.

Q4) Most Parkinson's patients suffer depression:

A) only during the late stages of the disease.

B) as a reaction to the muscle failure they suffer.

C) as one of the symptoms of the disease.

D) if they are under 50 years of age when the disease strikes.

Q5) A striated muscle controls movement of the body in relation to the environment.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Wakefulness and Sleep

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238 Verified Questions

238 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) With each succeeding stage of sleep (from 1 to 4):

A) breathing and heart rates increase.

B) brain activity increases.

C) slow, large-amplitude waves increase in number.

D) brain waves become smaller.

Q2) Sometimes people find themselves unable to move their postural muscles immediately after awakening. Why?

A) Blood pressure is too low.

B) The motor nerves are inactive until body temperature reaches its normal level.

C) An increase in light striking the eyes reflexively inhibits the motor neurons.

D) Part of the brain is still asleep

Q3) Compared to the earlier part, the later part of a night's sleep:

A) includes a larger percentage of REM sleep.

B) includes a lower percentage of REM sleep.

C) is characterized by declining body temperature.

D) has more slow wave sleep.

Q4) Define the term endogenous circadian rhythm.

Q5) Describe brain function during REM sleep.

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Chapter 10: Internal Regulation

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232 Verified Questions

232 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the different causes and mechanisms of osmotic thirst.

Q2) Humans expend most of their energy on what activity?

A) walking, running, and other forms of locomotion

B) in the beating of their hearts and blood circulation

C) propagating action potentials in the billions of neurons in the nervous system

D) maintaining basal metabolism

Q3) Through what mechanism does insulin affect appetite?

A) It enables stored nutrients to enter the blood stream.

B) It enables glucose in the blood stream to enter the cells.

C) It converts other nutrients into glucose.

D) It converts glucose into other nutrients.

Q4) The areas important for detecting osmotic pressure and the salt content of the blood include:

A) substantia nigra.

B) red nucleus.

C) ventromedial hypothalamus.

D) OVLT and subfornical organ.

Q5) Briefly describe the function of the lateral hypothalamus.

Q6) Describe three mechanisms we have for increasing our body temperature.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Reproductive Behaviors

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211 Verified Questions

211 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is most likely an example of the organizing effects of sex hormones?

A) increased heart rate during exercise

B) determination of genetic sex

C) masculinization of the brain

D) nest building

Q2) Why is it impossible for an individual to develop a complete, normal set of external female genitalia AND a complete, normal set of external male genitalia?

A) An individual has either estradiol or testosterone, but not both.

B) Both types of external genitalia develop from the same fetal structure.

C) Development of the external genitalia is not influenced by early hormonal levels.

D) The female genitals reach maturity earlier than the male genitals.

Q3) Unlike male prairie voles, male meadow voles show ____ preference to sitting near a female with which he has just mated.

A) increased

B) Decreased

C) No

D) Alternating

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Chapter 12: Emotional Behaviors

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204 Verified Questions

204 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5624

Sample Questions

Q1) An experimental drug, Ro15-4513, has been shown to block the behavioral effects of:

A) tricyclics.

B) amphetamines.

C) alcohol.

D) endozepines.

Q2) The amygdala send axons to the ____, which in turn sends axons to the pons to control the startle reflex.

A) midbrain

B) caudate nucleus

C) cingulate gyrus

D) pineal gland

Q3) Which type of leukocyte matures in the bone marrow?

A) Antigen

B) Macrophage

C) B cell

D) T cell

Q4) Amygdala damage will result in the complete loss of the startle response.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: The Biology of Learning and Memory

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211 Verified Questions

211 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A common test of working memory is the delayed response task.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Under most conditions, NMDA receptors do NOT respond to their neurotransmitter because:

A) magnesium ions block the passage of calcium through the receptor's channel.

B) too many sodium ions enter through the AMPA channels.

C) any recent depolarization of the membrane inactivates the NMDA receptors.

D) the channel can open only when the potassium concentration inside the neuron exceeds a certain high level.

Q3) Studies on ____ help clarify the distinctions among different kinds of memory and enable us to explore the mechanisms of memory.

A) dementia

B) amnesia

C) epilepsy

D) stroke

Q4) What is Korsakoff's syndrome?

Q5) Briefly describe how LTP occurs, including how glutamate and its receptors are involved.

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Chapter 14: Cognitive Functions

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201 Verified Questions

201 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Some drugs that treat epilepsy work by:

A) relaxing the cell membrane.

B) causing apoptosis.

C) preventing the sodium-potassium pump from working.

D) blocking sodium flow across the membrane.

Q2) Studies of nonhuman language abilities seem to indicate that human language may have evolved from a precursor that was probably:

A) present only in human ancestors.

B) a byproduct of total brain size.

C) present in the ancient ancestor from which humans and bonobos evolved.

D) a single gene mutation.

Q3) A loss of language ability, in general, is referred to as:

A) apraxia.

B) dyslexia.

C) aphasia.

D) anomia.

Q4) The planum temporale is usually larger in the right hemisphere.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Briefly discuss the concept of a language acquisition device.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Mood Disorders and Schizophrenia

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202 Verified Questions

202 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A serious side effect that develops in some people after prolonged use of neuroleptic drugs is:

A) tardive dyskinesia.

B) attention deficit disorder.

C) saccadic eye movements.

D) seasonal affective disorder.

Q2) Which of the following increases the probability that someone will develop schizophrenia?

A) Having an older than average father.

B) Having at least one older brother.

C) Being the only child in the family.

D) Having a mother who is older than the father.

Q3) Describe the difference between positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia and give some examples of each.

Q4) Tricyclic drugs work by:

A) blocking the release of catecholamines.

B) preventing the presynaptic cell from reabsorbing catecholamines.

C) directly stimulating the postsynaptic cell's catecholamine receptors.

D) increasing the rate of synthesis of catecholamines.

Q5) Describe some of the alternate treatments for depression.

Page 17

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