Neuropsychology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Neuropsychology is the scientific study of the relationship between the brain and behavior, focusing on how cognitive functions and emotional processes are influenced by neural systems. This course explores the foundational principles of brain structure and function, examines the effects of brain injury and neurological disorders on psychological processes, and introduces assessment techniques used to evaluate cognitive deficits. Topics include memory, language, perception, attention, executive functions, and the neuropsychological basis of mental health conditions. Emphasis is placed on case studies, modern research findings, and clinical applications within the field.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Psychology 11th Edition by James
W. Kalat
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Major Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A functional explanation describes why a structure or behavior evolved as it did.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Humans have stopped evolving.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The brain has an enormous number of ____ and ____.
A) sections; spaces
B) divisions; subareas
C) appendages; spaces
D) sections; subareas
Answer: B
Q4) Sex-limited genes are found only on the X and Y chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Nerve Cells and Nerve Impulses
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Sample Questions
Q1) To what does saltatory conduction refer?
A) the production of an action potential by the movement of sodium ions
B) the transmission of an impulse along a myelinated axon
C) the transmission of impulses along dendrites
D) the transmission of an impulse between one neuron and another
Answer: B
Q2) The general rule among neurons is that the wider the branching, the fewer connections with other neurons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following would produce a hyperpolarization of a neuron?
A) applying a negative charge inside the neuron with a microelectrode
B) applying a positive charge inside the neuron with a microelectrode
C) increasing the membrane's permeability to sodium
D) decreasing the membrane's permeability to potassium
Answer: A
Q4) List the parts of a neuron.
Answer: Dendrites, a soma (cell body), an axon, and presynaptic terminals.
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Chapter 3: Synapses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which neurotransmitter has been repeatedly connected with addictive drugs?
A) epinephrine
B) acetylcholine
C) serotonin
D) dopamine
Answer: D
Q2) The chemicals used as neurotransmitters in humans are found in:
A) no other species.
B) other mammals also, but not in non-mammals.
C) other vertebrates, but not in invertebrates.
D) apparently all or nearly all other species.
Answer: D
Q3) Large neurotransmitters are synthesized in the:
A) postsynaptic terminal.
B) presynaptic terminal.
C) cell body.
D) dendrites.
Answer: C
Q4) List the major types of neurotransmitters.
Answer: Amino acids, neuropeptides, acetylcholine, monoamines, and purines.
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Anatomy of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which plane shows brain structures as they would be seen from the side?
A) Coronal
B) Sagittal
C) Horizontal
D) Commuter
Q2) Damage to the basal ganglia would most likely result in:
A) a movement disorder.
B) problems with visual perception.
C) problems with auditory perception.
D) a loss of pain sensation.
Q3) Cranial Nerve II is called the optic nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The medulla is considered part of the brain rather than the spinal cord because it:
A) developed later in evolution.
B) is contained in the skull.
C) develops from a separate group of neurons.
D) is composed only of interneurons.
Q5) Describe the basic functions and components of the autonomic nervous system.
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Chapter 5: Development and Plasticity of the Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) To date, the most effective laboratory method minimizing the damage resulting from stroke in nonhuman animals has been to:
A) use drugs which trap free radicals.
B) use drugs which effect cannabinoids.
C) use neurotrophins which block apoptosis.
D) cool the brain.
Q2) The most likely explanation for the excess proliferation of neurons in early development is that it:
A) compensates for connection errors.
B) uses up excess stored fuel.
C) increases learning capacity when it is most needed.
D) prevents apoptosis.
Q3) Although the following methods may or may not actually work, which one would theoretically be of potential benefit to stroke victims?
A) increasing activity at glutamate receptors
B) opening sodium channels
C) closing potassium channels
D) blocking glutamate receptors
Q4) Define differentiation during neural development.
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Chapter 6: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once within the cerebral cortex, the parvocellular pathway continues as a pathway sensitive to:
A) details of shape.
B) depth.
C) visual memories.
D) movement.
Q2) The optic nerve is composed of axons from ganglion cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In vertebrate retinas, receptors send their messages:
A) straight to the brain.
B) immediately to ganglion cells within the retina.
C) to bipolar cells within the retina.
D) to the periphery of the retina first, ganglion cells next, and bipolar cells last.
Q4) The enhancement of contrast at the edge of an object is the result of:
A) lateral inhibition in the retina.
B) the diffraction of light from the edge's surface.
C) fatigue of the rods and cones.
D) the color of the object.
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Chapter 7: The Other Sensory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The eighth cranial nerve contains both a(n) ____ component and a ____ component.
A) vestibular; somatosensory
B) visual; vestibular
C) auditory; taste
D) auditory; vestibular
Q2) Which of the following would a person with conductive deafness be able to hear better than a person with nerve deafness?
A) everything
B) themselves talking
C) other people talking
D) nothing
Q3) To what lobe of the cerebral cortex is auditory information sent?
A) occipital
B) temporal
C) parietal
D) frontal
Q4) Most cells in the auditory cortex respond best to pure tones.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
Q5) Name the major structures of the middle ear.
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Chapter 8: Movement
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Q1) Which of the following would most likely happen with damage to the prefrontal cortex?
A) Inability to move
B) Loss of somatosensory experiences
C) Poorly planned movements
D) No effect on movement
Q2) Describe the relationship of conscious decisions and movements. What may this relationship reveal about consciousness?
Q3) At least some cases of Parkinson's disease are apparently linked to what cause?
A) A recessive gene on chromosome 4
B) The accumulation of aluminum in the cerebral cortex and hypothalamus
C) A chronic lack of vitamin B-1
D) A toxic substance found in a heroin substitute
Q4) Of the following, which is considered LEAST promising as a treatment for Parkinson's disease?
A) high-frequency electrical stimulation of the globus pallidus
B) adrenal gland transplants
C) antioxidants
D) neurotrophins
Q5) Why is L-dopa effective in treating Parkinson's patients, but not dopamine?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Wakefulness and Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) Young adults deprived of a night's sleep show deficits on ____ tasks.
A) verbal
B) sensory
C) memory
D) motor
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of narcolepsy?
A) Attacks of sleepiness during the day
B) Attacks of muscle weakness during the day
C) Involuntary movements of the limbs during sleep
D) Dreamlike experiences that are hard to distinguish from reality
Q3) How is the circadian rhythm of adult hamsters affected after transplanting SCN tissue from hamster fetuses with abnormal (20 hour) circadian rhythms?
A) There is no change from their previous 24 hour cycle.
B) It depends on the age of the adult hamsters.
C) The adult hamsters adopted the rhythm of the transplanted tissue.
D) All indications of a cycle disappeared.
Q4) Blind and deaf animals do not have circadian rhythms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe the role of the locus coeruleus in arousal and attention.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Internal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person most likely to shiver when the:
A) skin is cold, but the preoptic area is at normal temperature.
B) temperature difference between the skin and the preoptic area is large.
C) skin and the preoptic area are both hot.
D) skin and the preoptic area are both cold.
Q2) Under what condition does orexin motivate animals to eat?
A) right after a meal
B) when approaching starvation
C) in the mornings
D) when insulin levels are high
Q3) Humans spend about one-third of their total energy maintaining body temperature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is caused by a high concentration of solutes outside the cells?
A) increase in blood pressure
B) water flows into the cells
C) water flows out of the cells
D) excretion of diluted urine
Q5) How does cholecystokinin limit meal size?
Q6) Describe the different causes and mechanisms of hypovolemic thirst.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Reproductive Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe organizing effects of sex hormones and give specific examples.
Q2) Steroid hormones produce their effects by:
A) disrupting cell membranes.
B) opening ion channels.
C) increasing cholesterol levels.
D) entering cells and affecting gene expression.
Q3) Briefly describe the role of the sex hormone oxytocin.
Q4) People whose sexual development is intermediate or ambiguous are called:
A) intersexes.
B) hermaphrodites.
C) hyperplasias.
D) hermasexses.
Q5) Most homosexual men, as compared to heterosexual men, have:
A) lower levels of testosterone.
B) testosterone levels within the same range.
C) higher levels of testosterone.
D) higher levels of estrogen.
Q6) Give some examples of evolutionary interpretations of mating behavior.
Q7) Describe the steps in the normal prenatal development of the female reproductive structures.
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Chapter 12: Emotional Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The common measure of fear or anxiety that is popular because it can be used with non-humans as well as humans is:
A) facial expressions.
B) the startle response.
C) spontaneous muscle twitches.
D) hyperventilation.
Q2) ____ decrease(s) the responses in a rat's brain to the smell of a cat.
A) Orexin
B) Cholecystokinin
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Chloride ions
Q3) Historically, the most famous case of a person with prefrontal damage is that of:
A) John Limbic.
B) James Papez.
C) Antonio Damasio.
D) Phineas Gage.
Q4) Prolonged high cortisol levels are associated with increased hippocampal damage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: The Biology of Learning and Memory
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Q1) Someone with a mild to moderate case of Alzheimer's disease would be most likely to remember which of the following?
A) how to drive a car
B) what make of car he or she drives
C) where he or she parked the car
D) the time he or she most recently drove a car
Q2) Who is most likely to develop Korsakoff's syndrome?
A) those exposed to chronic stress
B) chronic alcoholics
C) certain ethnic groups
D) vegetarians
Q3) The delayed matching-to-sample task is considered to be an example of:
A) declarative memory.
B) procedural memory.
C) the Morris search task.
D) Korsakoff's syndrome.
Q4) Describe the difference between declarative and procedural memory.
Q5) Describe the delayed matching-to-sample task.
Q6) Describe Lashley's concept of an Engram.
Q7) What is habituation as it relates to memory research?
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Chapter 14: Cognitive Functions
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Q1) The strongest evidence for a critical period for human language development is the:
A) exceptional language abilities of children with Williams syndrome.
B) different lateralization of first language and second language.
C) differences in language between Broca's aphasia and Wernicke's aphasia.
D) difficulty deaf children have learning sign language if they start late.
Q2) A symptom of right-hemisphere parietal lobe damage is the tendency to ignore the:
A) right side of the body
B) dorsal areas of the body.
C) left side of the body.
D) ventral areas of the body.
Q3) People born without a corpus callosum are ____ people who have it cut later in life
A) more common than B) almost similar
C) the same as
D) not like
Q4) What is Broca's apahsia?
Q5) Describe the hemispheric specializations in the intact brain.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Mood Disorders and Schizophrenia
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Q1) Of the following hypotheses about the genetics of schizophrenia, which one do current researchers favor best?
A) Schizophrenia is often caused by new gene mutations or inactivations.
B) Schizophrenia depends on a recessive gene on the X chromosome.
C) Schizophrenia depends on a dominant gene on chromosome 4.
D) Genes make almost no contribution to schizophrenia.
Q2) Another term for antipsychotic drugs is:
A) benzodiazepines.
B) neuroleptics.
C) tricyclics.
D) stimulants.
Q3) For which of the following is the drug treatment generally only a little better than a placebo?
A) Parkinson's disease
B) schizophrenia
C) epilepsy
D) mild to moderate depression
Q4) Exposure to bright lights is one effective treatment for SAD.
A)True
B)False
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