Neuropsychology Test Bank

Course Introduction

Neuropsychology explores the intricate relationship between the brain and behavior, focusing on how injuries, diseases, and disorders of the nervous system influence cognitive functions and psychological processes. This course covers foundational principles of brain anatomy and physiology, methodologies for assessing neurological functioning, and the neurobiological underpinnings of perception, memory, language, emotion, and executive functions. Students will also examine prominent case studies, neuropsychological assessment tools, and current research on rehabilitation strategies, equipping them with a comprehensive understanding of the brains impact on human behavior.

Recommended Textbook

Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition by Bryan Kolb

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84 Chapters

2012 Verified Questions

2012 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Extension: A - The Development of Neuropsychology

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Darwin's principle that all animals' nervous systems evolved from that of a common ancestor predicted that:

A) all living things can in theory be traced back to the same ancient unknown ancestor.

B) over time, nervous systems have come to have increasingly more in common at the neural level.

C) functionally different structures in different species share common ancestral genes and mechanisms.

D) brain-behavior relationships have remained largely unchanged during the course of evolution.

Answer: D

Q2) The currently used medical diagnosis "persistent vegetative state" MOST closely reflects the nervous system's:

A) hierarchical organization.

B) conduction aphasia.

C) localization of function.

D) Hebb synapse.

Answer: A

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Chapter 1: Extension: B - The Development of Neuropsychology

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41 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Wernicke ___

A)apraxia

B)hierarchical organization

C)fluent aphasia

D)alexia

Answer: C

Q2) Hughlings - Jackson ___

A)apraxia

B)hierarchical organization

C)fluent aphasia

D)alexia

Answer: B

Q3) phrenology ___

A)positron emission tomography

B)failed in developing a functional atlas of the human brain

C)intelligence quotient

D)stereotaxic device

Answer: B

Q4) Sketch and label the main parts of a neuron.

Answer: See Figure Answer: 9 Major Parts of a Neuron in the text.

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Chapter 1: Extension: C - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) From studying several cases of brain damage, who proposed that speech was located in the third convolution of the left frontal lobe?

A) Carl Wernicke

B) Paul Broca

C) Jean Baptiste Bouillaud

D) Santiago Ramón y Cajal

Answer: B

Q2) A cranioscopy was used for which purpose?

A) to surgically remove parts of the cerebral cortex

B) to excise subdural hematomas from the meninges of the brain

C) to measure the bumps and depressions of the skull

D) to observe the anatomical structures of an individual in a manner similar to the CAT scanner

Answer: C

Q3) Gall and Spurzheim were the first to propose the general theory that _____.

A) different parts of the brain had different functions

B) brains were composed of individual units called neurons

C) people use only a small fraction of their brains

D) head circumference is positively correlated with intelligence

Answer: A

Page 5

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Chapter 2: Extension: A - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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37 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the textbook, the brain region whose growth is MOST associated with the evolution of modern humans is the:

A) cerebellum.

B) limbic system.

C) temporal lobe.

D) parietal lobe.

Q2) The encephalization quotient of modern humans is _____ that of chimpanzees.

A) equal to B) two times

C) three times

D) five times

Q3) I left footprints over 3 million years ago. I was found by R. A. Dart. He named me:

A) Homo habilis.

B) Bigfoot.

C) Homo erectus.

D) Australopithecus.

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Chapter 2: Extension: B - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) agriculture ___

A)30,000 years ago

B)15,000 years ago

C)7000 years ago

D)2 million years ago

Q2) contributes to female physical and behavioral characteristics ___

A)dominant allele

B)recessive allele

C)codominance

D)X chromosome

Q3) Distinguish within species comparisons and between species comparisons as they pertain to studying brain-behavior relationships.

Q4) Why might IQ tests be considered superficial or narrow measures of intelligence?

Q5) What is meant by the term "encephalization quotient"? How is it calculated? What is the approximate value for humans?

Q6) Place approximate dates of emergence on the following: H. habilis, H. erectus, H. sapiens, cave paintings, agriculture, and reading and writing.

Q7) Define species - typical behaviors.

Q8) What are the main differences between H. erectus and Australopithecus? Page 7

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Page 8

Chapter 2: Extension: C - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ancestor of all hominids is thought to be an animal somewhat like _____.

A) the chimpanzee

B) Homo habilis

C) Australopithecus

D) Homo afarensis

Q2) From the fossil record, it seems that monkey - like mammals or primates showed evidence of increasingly _____ that was unmatched.

A) longer tails

B) larger brains

C) more hair

D) longer jaws

Q3) Recessive alleles that are not visible in a parent's phenotype can be present in their genotype and are more likely to be expressed in their child's _____.

A) phenotype if either parent contributes a dominant allele for that trait.

B) genotype if both parents contribute recessive alleles for that trait.

C) phenotype if both parents contribute recessive alleles for that trait.

D) genotype if both parents contribute dominant alleles for that trait.

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Page 9

Chapter 3: Extension: A - Nervous System Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is an interhemispheric fiber pathway?

A) anterior commissure

B) cingulum

C) uncinate tract

D) arcuate fasciculus

Q2) A cleft in the cerebral cortex deep enough to indent the ventricles is called a:

A) meninges.

B) sulcus.

C) fissure.

D) gyrus.

Q3) The CLARITY technique can be used to determine:

A) causes of disease symptoms found in brains of deceased persons.

B) the colors of different neurons.

C) the thickness of myelin on axons.

D) causes of disease symptoms found in live patients.

Q4) The MOST caudal division of the brain is the _____.

A) prosencephalon

B) diencephalon

C) myelencephalon

D) metencephalon

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Chapter 3: Extension: B - Nervous System Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Compare and contrast the functions of the spinal nerves and cranial nerves.

Q2) Diagram the functional divisions of the human nervous system.

Q3) Identify the structures in the limbic lobe, and discuss the history of theorizing regarding their functions.

Q4) front ___

A)anterior

B)dorsal

C)posterior

D)ventral

Q5) Identify the lobes of the cortex supplied by each of the following: anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

Q6) tract ___

A)axon bundle in the CNS

B)groups of cell bodies in the CNS

C)netlike

D)cerebellum

Q7) List three components of the limbic system and a function ascribed to each one.

Q8) Discuss briefly how flexion and extension reflexes help an organism to adapt to its local environment.

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Chapter 3: Extension: C - Nervous System Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Experimental stimulation of which section of the brainstem produces a state of "general arousal" or "consciousness"?

A) the medulla

B) the pons

C) the reticular system

D) the periaqueductal gray

Q2) How many thoracic segments are in the spinal cord?

A) 8

B) 12

C) 5

D) 10

Q3) Purkinje cells are located in the _____

A) reticular formation

B) cerebellum

C) corpus callosum

D) septum

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Chapter 4: Extension: A - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) A long, myelinated axon lacking nodes of Ranvier would probably:

A) propagate nerve impulses faster than one with nodes of Ranvier.

B) propagate impulses at the same rate as one with nodes of Ranvier.

C) not propagate nerve impulses more slowly than one with nodes of Ranvier.

D) propagate nerve impulses backward.

Q2) The Na+ channel - blocking poison found in puffer fish is:

A) tetraethylammonium.

B) tetrodotoxin.

C) curare.

D) ouabain.

Q3) The two factors that determine nerve impulse speed in the axon are:

A) axon diameter and myelination.

B) axon length and myelination.

C) nodes of Ranvier and myelination.

D) axon diameter and the availability of Na+ ions.

Q4) A change in the membrane potential from -65 mV to -70 mV is an example of:

A) hyperpolarization.

B) depolarization.

C) an action potential.

D) saltatory conduction.

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Chapter 4: Extension: B - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe the phenomena of temporal and spatial summation of postsynaptic potentials.

Answer Key

Q2) axon ___

A)carries information to terminal buttons

B)collects information

C)integrates information

D)sends information to another neuron

Q3) Distinguish between transcription and translation in protein synthesis.

Q4) Explain how communication within the nervous system is electrochemical in nature.

Q5) Draw a representative neuron and identify the following components: dendrites, cell body, nucleus, axon hillock, axon, axon collateral, teleodendria, terminals, nodes of Ranvier, and myelin sheath.

Q6) lysosomes ___

A)energy source

B)protein transport

C)degrades foreign substances

D)protein formation

Q7) Distinguish between concentration gradient and voltage gradients.

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Chapter 4: Extension: C - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) Tubules are primarily concerned with _____.

A) protein transport

B) degradation of foreign substances

C) providing energy to the cell

D) transcribing base-pair sequences from nuclear DNA

Q2) The nucleus _____.

A) regulates the materials that enter and leave the cell domain

B) is where the cell's protein products are assembled

C) is where the cell's protein blueprints are stored and copied

D) is an extension of the nuclear membrane

Q3) A _____ is a segment of a DNA strand that encodes the synthesis of a particular type of protein molecule.

A) chromosome

B) gene

C) double helix

D) ribosome

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Chapter 5: Extension: A - Communication Between Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first two chemicals to be identified as neurotransmitters were:

A) acetylcholine and epinephrine.

B) dopamine and serotonin.

C) glutamate and glycine.

D) GABA and NMDA.

Q2) At glutamate (excitatory) synapses, the postsynaptic thickening is _____ as compared with a GABA (inhibitory) synapse.

A) thinner

B) absent

C) greater

D) narrower

Q3) Some peptide neurotransmitters are made in the:

A) axon terminals.

B) mitochondria.

C) endoplasmic reticulum.

D) nucleus.

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Chapter 5: Extension: B - Communication Between Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are four ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from the synaptic cleft?

Q2) Diagram the process by which the activation of a metabotropic receptor by a neurotransmitter molecule results in the modification of postsynaptic function.

Q3) What are the three known ways that neurotransmitters are stored by presynaptic neurons?

Q4) substantia nigra ___

A)norepinephrine

B)serotonin

C)dopamine

Q5) serotonin ___

A)tyrosine

B)dietary choline

C)glutamate

D)tryptophan

Q6) List the key differences between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors.

Q7) Characterize the anatomy and hypothesized functions of the nigrostriatal and mesolimbic dopamine pathways.

Q8) Describe the organization and function of the Renshaw loop.

Page 17

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Chapter 5: Extension: C - Communication Between Neurons

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Sample Questions

Q1) The effects of the opiate drugs are MOST closely matched by _____.

A) acetylcholine

B) met-enkephalin

C) dopamine

D) histamine

Q2) The number of substances now known to be peptide neurotransmitters is about

A) 15

B) 24

C) 50

D) 375

Q3) Which neurotransmitter is used to treat Parkinson's disease?

A) histamine

B) acetylcholine

C) dopamine

D) NO

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Page 18

Chapter 6: Extension: A - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following factors is more associated with the development of sensitization than with the development of tolerance for a particular drug?

A) fatigue during task performance

B) neuroplastic brain changes only at the drug's site of action

C) regular use

D) occasional use

Q2) A drug that is _____ is more readily absorbed from the stomach than one that is

A) weakly basic; weakly acidic

B) weakly acidic; weakly basic

C) insoluble; soluble

D) digestible; indigestible

Q3) Antipsychotic drugs are thought to exert their effects, at least in part, by blocking one type of:

A) glutamate receptor.

B) thought process.

C) dopamine receptor.

D) action potential.

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Chapter 6: Extension: B - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Distinguish between general stimulants and behavioral stimulants.

Q2) What is the functional significance of brain regions that lack a blood-brain barrier? Give an example.

Q3) How do drugs such as Prozac affect serotonin levels at brain synapses?

Q4) What are the stages in the wanting - and - liking theory (incentive - sensitization theory) of drug addiction?

Q5) tight junctions ___

A)vomit response

B)Parkinson's disease

C)benzodiazepine

D)blood-brain barrier

Q6) What brain effects did Robinson see during amphetamine sensitization?

Q7) area postrema ___

A)vomit response

B)Parkinson's disease

C)benzodiazepine

D)blood-brain barrier

Q8) Explain how activation of the GABA receptor can cause sedation.

Q9) Why is it potentially dangerous to simultaneously take benzodiazepines and Page 20

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Page 21

Chapter 6: Extension: C - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) The GABAA receptor has an ion channel specific to which ion?

A) Ca2+

B) Na+

C) K+

D) Cl-

Q2) Most of the drugs used to treat schizophrenia block a receptor for _____.

A) dopamine

B) glutamate

C) serotonin

D) acetylcholine

Q3) The substance MPTP, which caused "instant Parkinson's disease," was a selective neurotoxin that killed cells in the _____.

A) basal ganglia

B) amygdala

C) substantia nigra

D) motor cortex

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Chapter 7: Extension: A - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Epilepsy is characterized by:

A) the absence of electrical activity within the brain.

B) abnormally slow electrical discharges in the brain.

C) abnormal electrical discharges in the brain.

D) hyperexcitability of muscle tissue, resulting in seizures.

Q2) MOST neurons respond to:

A) a wide range of sensory stimuli or behaviors.

B) a limited range of sensory stimuli or behaviors.

C) sensory stimuli but not behaviors.

D) behaviors but not sensory stimuli.

Q3) Dynamic imaging technology can record changes in:

A) intelligence.

B) cell structure.

C) skull integrity.

D) brain activity.

Q4) The fMRI technique makes use of activity - dependent changes in:

A) blood oxygen levels.

B) radioactive decay.

C) glucose accumulation.

D) myelin density.

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Chapter 7: Extension: B - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Sample Questions

Q1) PET ___

A)detects neurotransmitter molecules

B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events

C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity

D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions

Q2) delta rhythm ___

A)aroused state

B)relaxed state

C)drowsy state

D)deep sleep

Q3) What brain activity does the EEG recorded from the scalp actually monitor?

Q4) What has been found with using fNIRS to monitor the brain activity of newborns while listening to familiar and unfamiliar languages?

Q5) What distinguishes the ERP technique from standard EEG techniques?

Q6) Describe how transcranial magnetic stimulation can affect neuronal function.

Q7) Hans Berger ___

A)Human Connectome Project

B)developed CT scan

C)proposed coherence theory

D)developer of EEG technique

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Chapter 7: Extension: C - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Tom was in a car accident. He was given a series of tests to see if his skull or brain were damaged in the accident. Which tests may he have been given?

A) an X-ray to assess skull damage and a CT scan to assess brain damage

B) an X-ray to assess brain damage and a CT scan to assess skull damage

C) an X-ray to assess skull damage and cerebral angiography to assess cognitive function

D) a CT scan to assess brain damage and cerebral angiography to assess skull damage

Q2) Which method can detect neurotransmitter - related molecules?

A) CT

B) MRS

C) NRI

D) MEG

Q3) The _____ technique provides excellent resolution but can only be applied with humans in exceptional circumstances.

A) ERP

B) single-cell recording

C) EEG

D) EKG

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Chapter 8: Extension: A - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) The primary deficit following damage to the semicircular canals would most probably be a disturbance of:

A) voluntary actions.

B) sense of balance.

C) pitch discrimination.

D) sense of smell.

Q2) The _____ is to hearing as the retina is to seeing.

A) organ of Corti

B) round window

C) oval window

D) cochlea

Q3) The axon terminal from LGN neurons project primarily to layer(s) _____ of area 17.

A) IV

B) II, III

C) V

D) VI

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Chapter 8: Extension: B - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) pretectum ___

A)orientation of head

B)voluntary eye movements

C)pupil size

D)pattern perception

Q2) area 41 ___

A)taste

B)vision

C)somatosensation

D)audition

Q3) superior colliculus ___

A)orientation of head

B)voluntary eye movements

C)pupil size

D)pattern perception

Q4) taste ___

A)lateral geniculate nucleus

B)dorsomedial nucleus

C)ventral posteromedial nucleus

D)ventrolateral nucleus

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Chapter 8: Extension: C - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Brodmann's area 41 is associated with which sense?

A) taste

B) vision

C) olfaction

D) audition

Q2) Pacinian corpuscles are receptors in the _____ sensory system.

A) balance

B) touch

C) pain

D) kinesthesis

Q3) Receptors that respond to external stimuli are called _____; receptors that respond to our own activity are called _____.

A) interoceptive; exteroceptive

B) exteroceptive; interoceptive

C) exteroceptive; proprioceptive

D) proprioceptive; interoceptive

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Chapter 9: Extension: A - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Disruption of movement sequences, in the absence of muscle weakness, would follow lesions of the:

A) prefrontal cortex.

B) premotor cortex.

C) primary motor cortex.

D) reticular activating system.

Q2) Defensive facial expressions are an example of a(n) _____ category.

A) ethological movement

B) ethical movement

C) ethological sensory

D) voluntary movement

Q3) Research by Evarts found that the firing rate of neurons in the monkey motor cortex:

A) increased as the amount of force required to make a wrist movement increased.

B) decreased as the amount of force required to make a wrist movement increased.

C) was not related to the amount of force required to generate wrist movement.

D) varied with the monkey's emotional state.

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Chapter 9: Extension: B - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Identify the four general regions of the neocortex thought to produce most voluntary movement.

Q2) In which lobes of human cerebral cortex have "mirror neurons" been found?

Q3) prefrontal cortex ___

A)generation of specific movements

B)planning of movement

C)source of sensory information

D)sequencing of movement

Q4) posterior cortex ___

A)generation of specific movements

B)planning of movement

C)source of sensory information

D)sequencing of movement

Q5) In what ways do motor neurons encode different characteristics of movements, as suggested by the studies of Evarts and Georgopoulos?

Q6) premotor cortex ___

A)generation of specific movements

B)planning of movement

C)source of sensory information

D)sequencing of movement

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Chapter 9: Extension: C - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) An important dopaminergic projection to the basal ganglia comes from neurons in the _____.

A) cerebellum

B) premotor cortex

C) substantia nigra

D) locus coeruleus

Q2) The degenerative disorder associated with muscular rigidity and difficulty initiating and performing movements is called _____.

A) Parkinson's disease

B) Huntington's disease

C) Friedreich's ataxia

D) Tourette's syndrome

Q3) Axons of the _____ motor pathway cross over to the opposite side of the spinal cord at the level of the pyramids of the brainstem.

A) corticobulbar

B) ventral corticospinal

C) lateral corticospinal

D) anterior spinothalamic

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Chapter 10: Extension: A - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Maintenance of cortical arousal is one of the putative functions of:

A) nonspecific afferents.

B) nonspecific efferents.

C) specific afferents.

D) specific efferents.

Q2) Cortical areas influence the activity of the regions from which they receive input through:

A) disinhibition.

B) reentrant loops.

C) parallel processing.

D) hierarchical processing.

Q3) The development of von Economo neurons in humans and great apes has been suggested to be associated with the emergence of:

A) working memory.

B) fine motor control.

C) autism.

D) theory of mind.

Answer Key

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Chapter 10: Extension: B - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Distinguish between voluntary and automatic behaviors in terms of the level of the brain necessary for their production. Give two examples of each.

Q2) Compare the behavioral capacities of high - and low - decerebrate animals.

Q3) Name the general anatomical targets of the outputs from each of the six neocortical layers.

Q4) caudomedial auditory belt area ___

A)auditory and visual

B)auditory and somatosensory

C)auditory, visual, and somatosensory

Q5) Zeki ___

A)cortical stimulation

B)hierarchical model

C)cortical maps

D)cortical modules

Q6) Gamper ___

A)decerebrate animals

B)sensory and motor unit theory

C)distributed hierarchy theory

D)behavior of the mesencephalic child

Q7) List the major differences between pyramidal cells and aspiny neurons. Page 33

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Chapter 10: Extension: C - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) The individual who first studied the development of myelin in the cortex was _____.

A) Bard

B) Gamper

C) Flechsig

D) Luria

Q2) Excessive tone in the _____ muscles is called decerebrate rigidity.

A) flexor

B) extensor

C) smooth

D) antigravity

Q3) The _____ is critically important in maintaining bodily homeostasis.

A) spinal cord

B) thalamus

C) hypothalamus

D) frontal cortex

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Page 35

Chapter 11: Extension: A - Cerebral Asymmetry

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26 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Following damage to the left hemisphere, the most likely outcome would be a decline in:

A) mental rotation ability.

B) verbal ability.

C) pitch recognition.

D) emotional memory.

Q2) The most convincing experimental design for demonstrating the localization of a particular function to a brain region is the:

A) single dissociation.

B) double dissociation.

C) double association.

D) case study.

Q3) Surgical deconnection of the two cerebral hemispheres by cutting the corpus callosum (and other commissures) is a "last resort" treatment for _____.

A) schizophrenia

B) epilepsy

C) aphasia

D) multiple sclerosis

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Chapter 11: Extension: B - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) relatively less gray matter ___

A) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the left hemisphere

B) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the right hemisphere.

Q2) What is the basis for Robert Efron's skepticism on the usefulness of laterality research?

Q3) Lenneberg and Kimura ___

A)interaction model

B)preferred cognitive mode model

C)specialization model

Q4) Morse code perception ___

A) if there is typically a right-ear advantage

B) if there is typically a left-ear advantage

C) if there is no ear advantage.

Q5) complex pitch perception ___

A) if there is typically a right-ear advantage

B) if there is typically a left-ear advantage

C) if there is no ear advantage.

Q6) Describe the response of a commissurotomy patient to the picture of a fork flashed into the left hemisphere, and also into the right hemisphere. Assume language is localized to the left hemisphere.

Page 37

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Chapter 11: Extension: C - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The tachistoscope is often used to test subjects with respect to _____.

A) motor skills

B) vision

C) memory for nonsense syllables

D) speech production

Q2) A modern version of the left - for - language theory of cortical organization was developed by _____.

A) Kinsbourne and Moscovitch

B) Lenneberg and Kimura

C) Webster and Thurber

D) Kolb and Whishaw

Answer Key

Q3) Kimura found evidence for a relationship between speech and hand movements when she observed that right - handed individuals:

A) gestured more with their right hands while speaking.

B) rubbed their noses more with their right hands while speaking.

C) gestured more with their left hands while speaking.

D) rubbed their noses more with their left hands while speaking.

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Chapter 12: Extension: A - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) On the average, women demonstrate a level of verbal fluency that is:

A) equivalent to that of men.

B) worse than that of men.

C) better than that of men.

D) slower to develop than that of men.

Q2) According to the study by Inglis and Lawson, right - hemisphere lesions:

A) impair verbal IQ in men more than in women.

B) impair performance IQ more in men than in women.

C) impair performance IQ more in women than in men.

D) produce the same pattern of impairments on verbal and performance IQ in men and in women.

Q3) One theory on the origin of handedness suggests that _____ inhibits the development of the _____ hemisphere in males.

A) fetal testosterone; left

B) early experience; left

C) fetal testosterone; right

D) early brain damage; right

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Chapter 12: Extension: B - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) What factors may account for the greater incidence of left - handedness in mentally disabled children?

Q2) What are the basic ideas in the Geschwind-Galaburda theory concerning the development of cerebral asymmetry?

Q3) What is the evidence for cerebral lateralization in birds and nonhuman primates? Answer Key

Q4) How may hormonal effects during the fetal period contribute to the later development of male-female differences in cognitive performance?

Q5) superior mental rotation ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q6) At least five cognitive abilities show sex - related differences. Name four.

Q7) larger splenium of corpus callosum ___

A) if it is truer for males than for females

B) if it is truer for females than for males

C) if there is no reliable sex difference.

Q8) Briefly describe some behavioral tests that reliably distinguish between males and females.

Q9) Describe the laterality of nonhearing people.

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Chapter 12: Extension: C - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which is true for women when compared with men?

A) larger language areas

B) larger cingulate areas

C) more neurons overall

D) larger cerebral ventricles

Q2) Environmental deprivation:

A) is not likely to have a long-lasting negative impact on the brain because of brain plasticity.

B) only negatively impacts brain size.

C) only negatively impacts cerebral organization.

D) can negatively impact both cerebral organization and brain size.

Q3) Which is true for men when compared with women?

A) larger lateral frontal areas

B) greater relative amounts of gray matter

C) more densely packed neurons in the temporal lobe

D) a larger cingulate cortex area

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Chapter 13: Extension: A - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) When analyzing facial features, visual attention is directed more toward the:

A) medial visual field.

B) right visual field.

C) left visual field.

D) outlines of the face.

Q2) Cytochrome oxidase rich areas of V1 are called _____.

A) stripes

B) holes

C) blobs

D) barrels

Q3) The primary visual cortex is associated with which of the following anatomical landmarks?

A) the lingual gyrus

B) the central sulcus

C) the calcarine sulcus

D) the occipital fissure

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Chapter 13: Extension: B - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) simultagnosia ___

A)inability to recognize faces

B)inability to recognize objects

C)inability to see more than one object at a time

D)inability to see due to naturally occurring lack of photoreceptors

Q2) visuospatial agnosia ___

A)right medial occipitotemporal damage, including at the fusiform and lingual gyri

B)bilateral damage below the calcarine fissure at the temporal junction

C)anterior temporal lobe damage

D)bilateral lateral occipital lobe damage

Q3) V5 ___

A)required for "dynamic form" perception

B)required for conscious vision

C)required for color perception

D)required for motion perception

Q4) Describe the organization of the representation of the visual world in the visual cortex, with respect to the calcarine sulcus.

Q5) Characterize the dorsal stream and the ventral stream in the Milner-Goodale model of cortical organization.

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Chapter 13: Extension: C - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) Which visual function is a function of the dorsal stream regions?

A) body analysis

B) object-directed grasping

C) analysis of landmarks

D) analysis of biological motion

Q2) Destruction of one optic nerve will produce _____.

A) scotoma

B) monocular blindness

C) homonymous hemianopia

D) bitemporal hemianopia

Q3) Which region of the brain is associated with object analysis?

A) the lateral occipital

B) the superior temporal sulcus

C) the lateral intraparietal sulcus

D) the ventral intraparietal sulcus

Q4) People who have prosopagnosia cannot perceive _____ accurately.

A) objects

B) words

C) faces

D) motion

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Chapter 14: Extension: A - The Parietal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ability to voluntarily direct one's gaze to select environmental stimuli depends on connections between the _____ and the _____.

A) posterior parietal cortex; fusiform gyrus

B) primary motor cortex; anterior parietal cortex

C) frontal eye fields; anterior parietal cortex

D) frontal eye fields; posterior parietal cortex

Q2) The first stage in recovery from contralateral neglect is termed _____.

A) extinction

B) reintegration

C) morphosynthesis

D) allesthesia

Q3) Sensory feedback that indicates the actual outcome of intended movements is known as the _____ copy.

A) afference

B) efference

C) effervescent

D) reentrant

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Chapter 14: Extension: B - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) simultaneous extinction ___

A)indifference to illness

B)ability to point to touched area despite lack of conscious perception of the touch

C)finger clumsiness due to lost sensory feedback

D)failure to perceive one of two similar stimuli presented simultaneously

Q2) Discuss the significance of the expansion of the polymodal areas of PG and STS in humans.

Q3) PG polymodal area ___

A)greatly expanded in the human brain

B)anterior zone of parietal lobe

C)secondary somatosensory cortex

D)ventral border of the lateral parietal lobe

Q4) Describe two important characteristics that all posterior parietal lobe neurons have in common with one another based upon studies of monkeys noted by Stein in 1992.

Q5) Compare and contrast the roles of the parietal cortex in recognizing objects and guiding movement.

Q6) How could having "too much" information be counterproductive in the efficient functioning of a given brain system?

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Chapter 14: Extension: C - The Parietal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) In Brodmann's mapping system, areas 5 and 7 correspond to von Economo's area

A) PE

B) PF

C) PG

D) PH

Q2) Which is NOT one of the classic symptoms of Gerstmann syndrome?

A) finger agnosia

B) apraxia

C) agraphia

D) acalculia

Q3) The _____ is used to test for apraxia.

A) Kimura Box Test

B) two-point discrimination test

C) Seguin-Goddard Form Board test

D) Token Test

Answer Key

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Chapter 15: Extension: A - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Auditory association cortex is located in the:

A) superior temporal sulcus.

B) middle temporal gyrus.

C) insula.

D) fusiform gyrus.

Q2) Various investigators have found that neurons in the monkey STS are particularly sensitive to:

A) movements of inanimate environmental stimuli.

B) movements of other monkeys.

C) distinguishing ripe from unripe fruit.

D) movements involving facial expressions.

Q3) The temporal lobe structure essential for associating sensory information and affective (emotional) state is the:

A) insula.

B) amygdala.

C) inferior temporal gyrus.

D) Heschl's gyrus.

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Chapter 15: Extension: B - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) insula ___

A)fearful states

B)visual input

C)social cognition

D)taste perception

Q2) Describe Perrett's experiment concerning superior temporal sulcus (STS) neurons in the monkey brain.

Q3) pitch discrimination ___

A)parahippocampal place area

B)Heschl's gyrus

C)fusiform gyrus

D)Heschl's gyrus.

Q4) perception of facial features_____

A)parahippocampal place area

B)Heschl's gyrus

C)fusiform gyrus

D)Heschl's gyrus.

Q5) How would you know a temporal lobe personality if you met one?

Q6) Distinguish between spectral pitch and fundamental pitch, functionally and anatomically.

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Chapter 15: Extension: C - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Difficulty in understanding words is a common symptom of damage to _____.

A) the hippocampus

B) areas 41 and 42

C) area 22 on the left side

D) the insula on the left side

Q2) Damage to the superior temporal sulcus is often associated with a deficit in _____.

A) perceiving speech

B) perceiving biological motion

C) anterograde amnesia

D) interpreting auditory information

Q3) The perception of emotional significance of stimuli appears to depend on the integrity of the _____.

A) hippocampus

B) insula

C) amygdala

D) superior temporal gyrus

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Chapter 16: Extension: A - The Frontal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patients with damage to the prefrontal cortex are likely to:

A) be distracted by external cues.

B) have impaired declarative memory.

C) have difficulty sequencing finger movements.

D) depend on internal cues to guide behavior.

Q2) Impairments in the ability to understand proverbs are MOST pronounced in subjects with:

A) right unilateral prefrontal cortex lesions.

B) bilateral lesions of the medial temporal cortex.

C) bilateral lesions of the prefrontal cortex.

D) left unilateral prefrontal cortex lesions.

Q3) The prefrontal cortex is defined as that region which receives projections from the:

A) ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus.

B) lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.

C) dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus.

D) occipitoparietal association cortex.

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Chapter 16: Extension: B - The Frontal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) temporal memory ___

A)Wisconsin Card-Sorting test

B)standard IQ test

C)Word-Fluency test

D)delayed nonmatching to sample

Q2) What are the general effects of frontal lesions on divergent thinking? On convergent thinking?

Q3) What are two possible interpretations of Passingham's findings concerning area 46 lesions in monkeys?

Q4) behavioral spontaneity ___

A)Wisconsin Card-Sorting test

B)standard IQ test

C)Word-Fluency test

D)delayed nonmatching to sample

Q5) response inhibition ___

A)Wisconsin Card-Sorting test

B)standard IQ test

C)Word-Fluency test

D)delayed nonmatching to sample

Q6) Name four cognitive skills impaired by dorsolateral frontal cortex damage.

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Chapter 16: Extension: C - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) The orbitofrontal cortex is another name for the _____.

A) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

B) inferior prefrontal cortex

C) medial frontal cortex

D) frontal eye field

Q2) Which brain region is NOT a site from which the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex receives inputs?

A) the posterior parietal lobe

B) the cingulate cortex

C) the cerebellum

D) the basal ganglia

Q3) The dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus projects to the region of the frontal lobe called the _____.

A) Broca's area

B) frontal eye field

C) prefrontal cortex

D) premotor cortex

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Chapter 17: Extension: A - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Most projections of the corpus callosum are:

A) organized topographically and project ipsilaterally.

B) diffusely distributed and project contralaterally.

C) organized topographically and project contralaterally.

D) organized homotopically and project subcortically.

Q2) A study by Steele and colleagues used DTI to examine white - matter organization in early - trained versus late - trained musicians. Results indicated which pattern of connectivity?

A) The size of the posterior corpus callosum increased in early-trained musicians.

B) The size of the anterior corpus callosum increased in late-trained musicians.

C) The size of the posterior corpus callosum decreased in early-trained musicians.

D) The size of the anterior and posterior corpus callosum was equivalent in both groups of musicians.

Q3) The lesion MOST associated with hemispatial neglect is the:

A) gray matter of the right posterior parietal cortex.

B) gray matter of the left posterior parietal cortex.

C) white matter of the right posterior parietal cortex

D) white matter of the left posterior parietal cortex.

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Chapter 17: Extension: B - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the "zipper hypothesis"?

Q2) anosmia ___

A)lack of sense of smell

B)inability to make coordinated voluntary movements

C)difficulty copying geometric designs

D)inability to read

Q3) Wernicke ___

A)constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes

B)hypothetized conduction aphasia

C)studied "split-brain" patients

D)defined disconnection syndromes

Q4) Why do the authors suggest that disconnection hypotheses are applicable in brain dysfunction?

Q5) What is the therapeutic value of the severing of commissures in the treatment of epilepsy?

Q6) apraxia ___

A)lack of sense of smell

B)inability to make coordinated voluntary movements

C)difficulty copying geometric designs

D)inability to read Page 55

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Chapter 17: Extension: C - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) The patients studied by Sperry and his colleagues had undergone commissurotomy as a radical treatment for _____.

A) schizophrenia

B) psychotic depression

C) epilepsy

D) Parkinson's disease

Q2) Typically, if you placed a common object in his or her right hand, a blindfolded commissurotomy patient would:

A) not recognize the object.

B) identify the object by saying its name.

C) point to a matching object with his or her left hand only after the blindfold is removed.

D) identify the object by drawing a picture.

Q3) The anterior portion of the corpus callosum is called the _____.

A) splenium

B) uncinate

C) rostrum

D) genu

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Chapter 18: Extension: A - Learning and Memory

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Q1) The anatomical region that was surgically removed from H.M., resulting in his amnesia, is the:

A) hippocampus.

B) insula.

C) middle temporal gyrus.

D) mammillary bodies.

Q2) The acquisition of an associative memory for the pairing of a tone stimulus and an air puff to the eye depends on circuits in the:

A) basal ganglia.

B) cerebellum.

C) amygdala.

D) insula.

Q3) The weight of evidence now suggests that memory processes:

A) require only temporal lobe structures.

B) depend on cortical and subcortical structures.

C) require only neocortical networks.

D) depend on a single anatomical system.

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Chapter 18: Extension: B - Learning and Memory

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Q1) Distinguish between episodic and semantic memory, and give an example of each.

Q2) fimbria fornix ___

A)location of granule cells

B)neocortex-hippocampus pathway

C)location of pyramidal cells

D)hippocampus-thalamus pathway

Q3) What is the reasoning behind the recommendation that students can improve their exam scores if they study by writing out the material to be learned?

Q4) What characterizes Tulving's concept of autonoetic memory?

Q5) Discuss the relationship of emotional memories with explicit and implicit memories.

Q6) Identify three theories on the role of the hippocampus in memory, and list objections to each.

Q7) What is the evidence to support the concept of short - term memory as distinct from other forms of memory?

Q8) Within the proposed anatomical model for explicit memory, different components may have different roles. Comment on the possible roles in explicit memory for each of the following: the amygdala, hippocampus, and perirhinal cortex.

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Chapter 18: Extension: C - Learning and Memory

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Q1) Which is NOT a part of explicit memory functioning?

A) semantic memory

B) bottom-up processing

C) intentional remembering

D) episodic memory

Q2) "HERA" stands for _____.

A) high emotional retrograde amnesia

B) hippocampal-entorhinal retrograde amnesia

C) hemispheric encoding and retrieval asymmetry

D) hologram encoding retrieval assessment

Q3) _____ is least affected by right temporal lobe damage.

A) Face recognition

B) Spatial position

C) Recall of consonant trigrams

D) Maze learning

Q4) Which question would be most difficult for H.M. to answer correctly?

A) What was your mother's maiden name?

B) How many days are there in 3 weeks?

C) Did you have any visitors the day before yesterday?

D) What is the sum of 6 plus 12?

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Chapter 19: Extension: A - Language

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Q1) A neuropsychologist might choose to administer the Token Test to:

A) comprehensively define the extent of a language deficit.

B) screen for problems with motivation and emotion.

C) quickly assess whether a language deficit is present.

D) screen for the genetic bases for a language disorder.

Q2) Studies of the KE family strongly implicate the gene known as _____ in human language ability.

A) FOXP2

B) LOXP2

C) FOXL2

D) FROGP2

Q3) The effects of direct electrical stimulation of the cortex on language functions have been confirmed using the noninvasive technique of:

A) transcranial magnetic stimulation.

B) functional MRI.

C) positron emission tomography.

D) electroconvulsive therapy.

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Chapter 19: Extension: B - Language

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss theories of language evolution that emphasize changes to the vocal tract with those that focus on the brain.

Q2) About how long ago did human language develop? Gather the evidence for your answer.

Q3) anomia ___

A)unintended word production

B)word-finding deficit

C)muscular incoordination

D)reading deficit

Q4) Describe how the evolution of the vocal tract has resulted in a much greater ability on the part of humans, compared with apes, to produce speech sounds.

Q5) verb generalization ___

A)left inferofrontal cortex

B)left inferotemporal cortex

C)Broca's area

D)left visual cortex

Q6) Describe the model - building approach to understanding reading deficits and how it differs from more typical neurological approaches.

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Chapter 19: Extension: C - Language

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Q1) Swadish based his hypothesis about the origins of human language on:

A) the relative positioning of the larynx in humans and apes.

B) the fossil record.

C) the rate of change of dialects.

D) X-rays of modern and ancient skulls.

Q2) Syntax is more generally referred to as _____.

A) word flow

B) grammar

C) prosody

D) articulation

Q3) According to Brodmann's neuroanatomical identification scheme, Broca's area is referred to as _____, and Wernicke's area is referred to as _____.

A) areas 44 and 45; area 22

B) the perisylvian region; the inferior frontal cortex

C) the arcuate fasciculus; the perforant pathway

D) IT; TE

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Chapter 20: Extension: A - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) Damage to Broca's area in the right hemisphere has been proposed by Ross to produce:

A) sensory aprosodia.

B) global aprosodia.

C) conduction aprosodia.

D) motor aprosodia.

Q2) A key component of the emotion - processing pathway connecting the sensoryassociation cortex with the hypothalamus is the:

A) hippocampus.

B) insula.

C) amygdala.

D) dorsomedial thalamic nucleus.

Q3) Our ability to use information that is outside awareness to guide our behaviors is known as:

A) selective attention.

B) gist.

C) unconscious inference.

D) unconscious deduction.

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Chapter 20: Extension: B - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) Identify five (or more) characteristics of the temporal - lobe personality.

Q2) Describe the four behavioral components of emotion, as described by the text.

Q3) Contrast Damasio's somatic marker hypothesis with LeDoux's cognitive-emotional interaction theory.

Q4) Bard ___

A)emotions relation to logical thinking

B)rage responses in decorticate dogs

C)behavioral effects of hypothalamic stimulation in cats

D)behavioral effects of temporal lobe lesions in monkeys

Q5) What are the key neural structures in the original (1937) Papez circuit? What structures have been added in the more current "limbic circuit of emotion"?

Q6) Guido Gainotti ___

A)cognitive-emotional interaction theory

B)cognitive asymmetry of emotion

C)somatic marker hypothesis

D)left-hemisphere cognitive interpreter

Q7) Present evidence that the right hemisphere is differently involved in emotional processes than is the left in humans.

Q8) What are the major symptoms of the Klüver-Bucy syndrome?

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Chapter 20: Extension: C - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) According to LeDoux (2000), in an emotionally arousing situation, the amygdala initiates each of the following reactions EXCEPT _____.

A) stress hormone release

B) emotional behavior

C) autonomic activation

D) pain sensitization

Q2) According to Ross, which type of aprosodia is marked by deficits in interpreting the emotional components of language?

A) sensory

B) conduction

C) mixed transcortical

D) anomic

Q3) Damasio's somatic marker hypothesis of emotion is strongly influenced by the early psychologist _____.

A) William James

B) Wilhelm Wundt

C) Sigmund Freud

D) Hermann Ebbinghaus

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Chapter 21: Extension: A - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) The mental representation of the parts of the environment beyond one's outstretched fingers is referred to as a:

A) cognitive map of body space.

B) cognitive map of grasping space.

C) cognitive map of distal space.

D) cognitive map of time space.

Q2) Research on sex - related differences in spatial ability suggests that, when traveling, men are likely to use ______, whereas women preferentially use ______.

A) distal cues; proximal cues

B) spatial maps; landmarks

C) proximal cues; distal cues

D) landmarks; spatial maps

Q3) In the study by Maguire and colleagues, increases in the volume of gray matter in the right posterior hippocampus were positively correlated with the:

A) topographical memory ability of taxi drivers.

B) autobiographical memory ability of taxi drivers.

C) semantic memory of taxi drivers.

D) degree of autonomic arousal while watching Taxi Driver.

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Chapter 21: Extension: B - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) Distinguish between egocentric disorientation and heading orientation.

Q2) Discuss the role of the frontal lobe in spatial discriminations.

Q3) What evidence exists that the role of the hippocampus in spatial navigation should be interpreted in the broader context of its role in memory?

Q4) What is the relationship between hippocampal size and food storing in birds?

Q5) Marshall the evidence to support or attack the idea that the hippocampus serves as a "cognitive map."

Q6) Bálint ___

A)head-direction cells

B)parietal lobe role in spatial memory

C)frontal lobe role in spatial memory

D)hippocampal place cells

Q7) How do Turner's syndrome individuals perform on spatial tasks (on average)? What may account for their performance?

Answer Key

Q8) Explain how head - direction, place, and grid cells might work together as a rat forages for food in the environment near its burrow.

Page 68

Q9) In what ways do the spatial abilities of males and females differ?

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Chapter 21: Extension: C - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) According to Maguire's research with London cab drivers, we store cognitive maps of our environment in the _____.

A) right prefrontal cortex

B) fornix

C) extrastriate cortex

D) right posterior hippocampus

Q2) _____ memory is the name given to the ability to move through space from one place to another.

A) Cartographic

B) Topographic

C) Magellanic

D) Navigational

Q3) Which is NOT a brain region where place cells have been found to exist?

A) the entorhinal cortex

B) the dentate gyrus

C) the subiculum

D) the hippocampus

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Chapter 22: Extension: A - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) Stimuli that "pop out" in a visual array illustrate the concept of:

A) top-down processing.

B) attention-dependent processing.

C) bottom-up processing.

D) stereotopographic insolence.

Q2) In Treisman's theory, a stimulus is broken down into separate feature maps after it is initially registered in area:

A) V1.

B) V3.

C) V4.

D) V5.

Q3) Searching for a street sign in order to make a turn is an example of a(n) _____ process.

A) bottom-up

B) top-down

C) conscious

D) unconscious

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Chapter 22: Extension: B - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) Define "bottom - up" processing and "top - down" processing. Give an example of each.

Q2) Which processes are critical for consciousness?

Q3) attention to location

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q4) Distinguish between frontal lobe neglect and parietal lobe neglect.

Q5) What is the evidence that stress might have a detrimental effect on attention?

Q6) What evidence did Jeannerod and colleagues find regarding the dissociation between behavior and awareness?

Q7) Cite evidence that attention is not a "thing in a place" in the brain.

Q8) feature maps ___

A)Treisman

B)Moran and Desimone

C)Kahneman

D)Posner and Petersen

Q9) Describe the role of selective attention in the neural responses of the monkey in the experiment by Moran and Desimone. Page 71

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Chapter 22: Extension: C - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) Bottom - up processing is associated with _____.

A) identification of "pop-out" stimuli in an array

B) the sort of search that one makes when trying to find a particular street

C) language development in children

D) searching for particular combinations of sensory information.

Q2) According to an imaging study conducted by Liston and colleagues, stress has what effect on brain regions subserving attentional performance?

A) decreased activation in DLPFC

B) increased activation in posterior parietal cortex

C) increased activation in Broca's area

D) decreased cerebellar activity

Q3) "Pop - out" stimuli are associated with which type of visual system search?

A) conjunction

B) top-down

C) memorial

D) feature

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Chapter 23: Extension: A - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) Neuroimaging studies of children with childhood - onset schizophrenia show a _____ in cortical gray volume.

A) 10 percent decrease

B) 30 percent decrease

C) 10 percent increase

D) 30 percent increase

Q2) Migrating neuroblasts are guided by:

A) electrical gradients.

B) radial glial cells.

C) internal maps.

D) neurogenesis.

Q3) The main changes in the visual system following monocular deprivation in kittens are seen at the level of the:

A) visual cortex.

B) lateral geniculate.

C) retina.

D) synapses.

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Chapter 23: Extension: B - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) Describe two types of abnormal brain development.

Q2) What are the effects of area TE lesions in monkeys on performance in the delayed nonmatching - to - sample task? What are the effects of medial temporal lobe lesions? Discuss the difference.

Q3) What are Piaget's four stages of cognitive development? Briefly characterize each stage.

Q4) What are three ways to examine the relationship between neural function and behavioral changes in development? Make sure to mention potential advantages and/or disadvantages of each.

Q5) What evidence from rats indicates that pregnant mothers should have access to stimulating environments?

Q6) lissencephaly ___

A)aborted cell migration of gray matter

B)absence of cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, and midbrain

C)failure to form sulci and gyri

D)single undifferentiated hemisphere

Q7) What brain abnormalities have been found in children with schizophrenia?

Q8) What is the role of radial glial cells in neuron cell migration?

Q9) What brain abnormalities have been found in children with ADHD?

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Chapter 23: Extension: C - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) In primates, puberty is marked by a _____.

A) stabilization of existing synapses

B) rapid increase in the number of synapses

C) rapid loss of synapses

D) change in the location of many synapses

Q2) Which is NOT a potential way in which the brain's plasticity might support recovery after early injury?

A) generating neurons and glia to replace some lost neurons

B) changing the organization of intact circuits in the brain

C) migrating existing neurons to injured regions of the cortex

D) generating new neural circuits

Q3) The BEST analogy for the function of radial glial cells in the migration of brain cells is made with _____.

A) vehicles

B) maps

C) roads

D) service stations

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Chapter 24: Extension: A - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) CSF is made by the:

A) choroid plexus.

B) foramina of Magendie.

C) fourth ventricle.

D) ventral hypothalamus.

Q2) Which is NOT considered to be a primary cause of reading disabilities?

A) auditory deficiency

B) phonological deficiency

C) attentional deficiency

D) sensory deficiency

Q3) The MOST typical cause of hydrocephalus is:

A) too much CSF production.

B) absence of lateral ventricles.

C) bad parenting.

D) obstruction to CSF flow.

Q4) A less severe form of autism is termed:

A) savant syndrome.

B) Down's syndrome.

C) Asperger's syndrome.

D) hyperlexia.

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Chapter 24: Extension: B - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) What does the research of Tallal suggest is a leading cause of learning disabilities?

Q2) autism ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q3) dyslexia ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q4) hyperlexia ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q5) What is the birthday effect?

Q6) What is the ACID profile? What does it show regarding learning - disabled children?

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Chapter 24: Extension: C - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) Fragile - X syndrome involves a protein that affects a couple of different receptors. Which of the following treatments have proven some success in treatment of the social deficits in these patients?

A) dopamine agonists

B) glutamate agonists

C) cholinergic agonists

D) GABA agonists

Q2) Boys are NOT diagnosed more with _____ than girls.

A) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

B) fragile-X syndrome

C) autism

D) acquired dyslexia

Q3) _____ is treated by the insertion into one lateral ventricle of a valve and a tube that passes into a jugular vein to drain into the cardiac atrium.

A) Cerebral palsy

B) Hyperlexia

C) Fragile-X syndrome

D) Hydrocephalus

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Chapter 25: Extension: A - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) After a series of higher - than - normal stimulations followed by a rest period, a baseline stimulation to a neuron elicits a greater excitatory postsynaptic potential from another neuron that receives its projections. This phenomenon is known as:

A) long-term potentiation.

B) kindling.

C) ischemia.

D) synaptogenesis.

Q2) Teuber found, in his study of brain - damaged vets, that the poorest recovery rates were in those soldiers who suffered:

A) motor deficits.

B) visual field deficits.

C) dysphasia.

D) somatosensory deficits.

Q3) Which of the following factors increase(s) cell survival of hippocampal granule neurons?

A) aging

B) stress

C) adrenal steroids

D) Prozac

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Chapter 25: Extension: B - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) Why did a brain - injured motorcycle racer show drastic improvement in both attitude and recovery after he was given a large tricycle on which to ride around?

Q2) Pantev et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q3) What is kindling in the brain?

Q4) What evidence is there that sensory maps can be modified by experience?

Q5) What is the relationship between high intelligence and recovery from brain injury? Why might highly intelligent people complain more about the negative residual effects of brain injury?

Q6) What is LTP?

Q7) What is the relationship between neuronal cell complexity and the computational demands on the cell?

Q8) What evidence is there that the response to adapting prisms causes actual synaptic changes in the brain?

Q9) The authors list four major therapeutic approaches to brain damage. What are they? Page 81

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Chapter 25: Extension: C - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) For young patients in Blakemore and Falconer's paired - associates study of 86 temporal - lobectomy patients, deficits lasted for how long?

A) 3 to 6 months

B) 6 to 18 months

C) 2 to 3 years

D) 5 to 8 years

Q2) According to Teuber's research with wounded war veterans, which type of deficit shows the least recovery?

A) somatosensory

B) motor

C) visual

D) auditory

Q3) The type of therapeutic intervention that is directed toward improving a patient's daily difficulty in finding their way home would be?

A) cognitive rehabilitation

B) behavioral remediation

C) movement therapy

D) social interaction

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Chapter 26: Extension: A - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) Which of the following events is NOT a secondary consequence of closed - head brain trauma?

A) ischemic brain damage

B) intracranial hemorrhage

C) diffuse brain swelling

D) vomiting

Q2) A feeling or sensation that a seizure is about to take place is called a(n):

A) symptomatic seizure.

B) idiopathic seizure.

C) aura.

D) automatism.

Q3) The polio virus seems to have a special affinity for:

A) cholinergic receptors.

B) sensory neurons.

C) motor neurons.

D) myelin.

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Chapter 26: Extension: B - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) tardive dyskinesia ___

A)slow, persistent movements

B)involuntary jerky movements

C)muscle tone absent

D)muscular rigidity

Q2) What is the difference, in terms of both causes and symptoms, between paraplegia and Brown - Séquard syndrome?

Q3) Distinguish among the following: sleep attacks, cataplexy, and sleep paralysis.

Q4) What is the difference between an angioma and an aneurysm?

Q5) migraine stroke ___

A)abnormal blood vessels

B)accumulation of fluid

C)transient ischemia

D)blood trapped under skull

Q6) Describe the major types of vascular disorders that a practicing clinical neuropsychologist must know about.

Q7) Describe multiple sclerosis in terms of symptoms, course of the disease, and causes (if known).

Page 85

Q8) What does the term "contrecoup" mean?

Q9) What is myasthenia gravis? What causes it, and what can be done about it?

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Chapter 26: Extension: C - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) An individual who sustains a traumatic brain injury will most likely develop a contusion at the point of impact, termed a:

A) contrecoup.

B) coma.

C) coup.

D) hematoma.

Q2) Narcolepsy is usually treated with _____.

A) hypnotherapy

B) antipsychotics

C) stimulants

D) vitamin B1

Q3) A(n) _____ is a massive bleeding into the substance of the brain that is most often caused by hypertension.

A) migraine stroke

B) angioma

C) cerebral hemorrhage

D) aneurysm

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Chapter 27: Extension: A - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) In the seventeenth century, many people burned as witches in the English village of Bures actually suffered from:

A) Parkinson's disease.

B) Huntington's disease

C) Tourette's syndrome.

D) Alzheimer's disease.

Q2) Which of the following disorders is NOT classified as a mood disorder?

A) depression

B) bipolar disorder

C) mania

D) obsessive-compulsive disorder

Q3) A positive correlation between the number of bipolar episodes and loss of _____ support the theory that bipolar disorder has a progressive neurodegenerative aspect.

A) gray matter

B) white matter

C) motor skills

D) dopamine neurons

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Chapter 27: Extension: B - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Sacks ___

A)modern psychosurgery

B)cognitive behavioral therapy

C)Parkinson's disease

D)bipolar disorder

Q2) amyloid plaques ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q3) What are the five putative causes of Alzheimer's disease, based on the text?

Q4) Distinguish between Huntington's disease and Parkinson's disease in terms of the neurotransmitter abnormalities suspected to underlie the symptoms for each condition.

Q5) What are the main anatomical correlates of Alzheimer's disease?

Q6) Camilla is a 30 - year - old woman who is highly intelligent, gainfully employed, and has Tourette's syndrome. What are some difficulties she may face in going about her day as a result of her disorder?

Q7) Describe the sequence of changes in dendritic structure in normal aging and in advancing Alzheimer's disease.

Page 89

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Chapter 27: Extension: C - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) The positive symptoms of Parkinson's disease include all of the following EXCEPT _____.

A) tremor at rest

B) disorders of posture

C) muscular rigidity

D) involuntary movements

Q2) One of the paper - and - pencil tests that reveals deficits in the memories of patients with Tourette's syndrome is the _____ test.

A) Wechsler IQ

B) draw-a-man

C) Rey Complex-Figure

D) backward digits

Q3) The abnormal movements seen in adults with Huntington's disease are thought to be caused by the hyperactivity of neurons secreting _____.

A) dopamine

B) acetylcholine

C) GABA

D) B-APP

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Chapter 28: Extension: A - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) The Halstead-Reitan Battery was designed primarily for the purpose of:

A) identifying psychiatric disorders.

B) assessing brain damage.

C) testing for specific cognitive disabilities.

D) finding a definitive test of mental retardation.

Q2) Which of the following is a computerized neuropsychological test battery?

A) Boston Process

B) Halstead-Reitan

C) CANTAB

D) Luria-Nebraska

Q3) Prior to the development of brain imaging tests such as MRI and PET, neuropsychologists relied primarily on _____ to provide information regarding localization of cerebral damage.

A) formal tests such as the Halstead-Wepman Aphasia Screening Test

B) behavioral tests

C) x-rays of the skull

D) cognitive assessments

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Chapter 28: Extension: B - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) memory functions ___

A)Proteus Maze Test

B)Rey Complex-Figure Test

C)automobile puzzle

D)Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q2) Identify two of the tests for intellectual and conceptual functions in the Boston Process Approach.

Q3) What are some of the difficulties in creating "norms" for any test of brain damage?

Q4) What is the "problem of effort"? Why does it pose difficulty for neuropsychologists? Answer Key

Q5) What are Groth - Marnat's four suggestions for psychologists dealing with managed health care?

Q6) Why is postinjury intelligence testing not necessarily useful?

Q7) What are the particular challenges to neuropsychological testing that managed health care poses?

Q8) Why is neuropsychological testing particularly useful in cases of closed - head injuries?

Page 92

Q9) Name three difficulties with cutoff scores in neuropsychological test batteries.

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Chapter 28: Extension: C - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) The CANTAB is a _____ neuropsychological test battery.

A) composite

B) nonstandardized

C) computerized

D) standardized

Q2) The Wechsler scales are used to assess _____.

A) motor performance

B) intelligence

C) epilepsy

D) presence of tumors

Q3) The MOST sensitive measure of malingering is the _____.

A) Forced Choice Digit Memory Test

B) Wechsler Memory Scale III

C) Stroop Test

D) Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q4) Identify the methodology MOST commonly used to evaluate a patient for epilepsy.

A) MRI

B) EEG

C) CT

D) CANTAB

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