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Neuropsychology is the scientific study of the relationship between brain function and behavior. This course explores how various structures and processes of the brain contribute to cognitive functions such as memory, language, perception, attention, and executive functioning. It examines the effects of brain injury and neurological disorders on psychological processes and behavior, drawing on evidence from clinical cases, neuroimaging, and experimental research. Students will gain an understanding of assessment techniques used in neuropsychology, learn about rehabilitation strategies, and explore contemporary debates and advances in the field, preparing them for further study or work in clinical, research, or healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Biopsychology 9th Edition by John P.J. Pinel
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is Biopsychology, Anyway?
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Q1) Morgan's canon is
A) a weapon used by Morgan.
B) a surgical instrument used by Moniz.
C) a method used to tame bulls.
D) a brain operation.
E) none of the above
Answer: E
Q2) The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the A) brain.
B) cerebellum.
C) great cerebral commissure.
D) cerebral hemispheres.
E) all of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Discuss biopsychology's (behavioral neuroscience's) special role in neuroscientific research, and describe four other disciplines of neuroscience.
Answer: 20% for explaining that the study of behavior is biopsychology's special role 80% for naming and defining four other disciplines of neuroscience
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Q1) Animals with dorsal nerve cords are called
A) phyla.
B) chordates.
C) vertebrates.
D) mammals.
E) amphibians.
Answer: B
Q2) In the early 20?? century, the nature side of the nature-nurture debate was championed by European __________.
Answer: ethologists
Q3) Maze-bright rats are less __________ than maze-dull rats.
Answer: emotional
Q4) Modern biology began in 1859 with the publication of On the __________ by Darwin.
Answer: Origin of Species
Q5) The study of genetics has progressed into the age of __________ , the study of all mechanisms of inheritance other than the genetic code and its expression.
Answer: epigenetics
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Q1) Synaptic vesicles tend to be most prevalent in the A) nucleus.
B) nodes of Ranvier.
C) postsynaptic membranes.
D) dendrites.
E) buttons.
Answer: E
Q2) How many left ventral roots are there in the human body?
A) 12
B) 31
C) 62
D) 124
E) billions
Answer: B
Q3) The cerebral hemispheres are connected by tracts called cerebral __________.
Answer: commissures
Q4) The opposite of dorsal is __________.
Answer: ventral
Q5) The bulge on the ventral surface of the metencephalon is the __________.
Answer: pons
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Sample Questions
Q1) Conduction in myelinated axons is referred to as __________ conduction.
Q2) The enzyme that deactivates acetylcholine after it has been released into the synapse is __________.
Q3) The process of neurotransmitter release is referred to as A) excitation.
B) exocytosis.
C) synthesis.
D) metabolism.
E) expulsion.
Q4) Endorphins are
A) neuropeptides.
B) monoamines.
C) cholinergic.
D) adrenergic.
E) serotonergic.
Q5) There are two kinds postsynaptic potentials : EPSPS and __________.
Q6) How are the membrane potentials of neurons recorded? Explain the ionic mechanisms thought to be responsible for the resting potential.
Q7) With respect to size, neuropeptides are the __________ neurotransmitters.
Q8) __________ are sometimes called electrical synapses.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In operant conditioning paradigms, the rate of a voluntary response is increased by __________ and decreased by __________.
A) positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement
B) reinforcement; punishment
C) brain stimulation; food
D) food; brain stimulation
E) conditional stimuli; unconditional stimuli
Q2) Unlike other electrophysiological methods of recording neural activity, intracellular unit recording provides measurements of
A) cell firing.
B) action potentials.
C) the membrane potential.
D) reductions in neural firing.
E) EEG activity.
Q3) If a rat is hurt by a small object in a test chamber containing commercial bedding material, the rat will often __________ the object.
Q4) To facilitate immunochemistry, neurochemists have created stocks of __________ to most neuropeptides.
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Q1) The closer an object is, the
A) less our eyes converge when we focus on it.
B) less the disparity between the two retinal images of it.
C) smaller are its retinal images.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Scotomas are normally identified and characterized by a __________ test.
Q3) In general, neurons of the retina-geniculate-striate system respond weakly to
A) monocular stimuli.
B) diffuse light.
C) contrast.
D) circles of light.
E) circular edges.
Q4) Light passes through layers of the retina in which of the following sequences?
A) receptor layer, bipolar cell layer, retinal ganglion cell layer
B) retinal ganglion cell layer, horizontal cell layer, receptor layer
C) retinal ganglion cell layer, amacrine cell layer, receptor layer
D) both B and C
E) none of the above
Q5) The surface of the primary visual cortex is laid out __________.
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Q1) Each cortical level of a sensory system (primary, secondary, or association) is itself composed of different areas that mediate different psychological processes. This principle of sensory system organization is referred to as
A) functional segregation.
B) parallel processing.
C) the binding problem.
D) hierarchical organization.
E) serial processing.
Q2) Free nerve endings are thought to mediate the perception of A) pressure.
B) pain.
C) skin temperature.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
Q3) Resting on the auditory hair cells is the A) cochlea.
B) basilar membrane.
C) organ of Corti.
D) tectorial membrane.
E) auditory nerve.
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Q1) The only parts of each motor homunculus to receive somatosensory feedback directly from skin are the
A) genital areas.
B) lip areas.
C) hand areas.
D) foot areas.
E) face areas.
Q2) Current theories of the function of the basal ganglia emphasize their A) role in modulating motor output.
B) involvement in a variety of cognitive processes.
C) systematic anatomical organization.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Q3) The consequences of widespread cerebellar damage include A) difficulty in maintaining steady postures.
B) inability to precisely control the direction, force, velocity, and amplitude of movements.
C) inability to adapt patterns of motor output to changing conditions.
D) severe disturbances of balance, gait, speech, and eye movement.
E) all of the above
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Q1) Evidence suggests that many neurons die during development because
A) they are genetically programmed to die.
B) of their inability to compete successfully for their target's life-preserving chemicals.
C) of failures of regeneration.
D) both A and B
E) both B and C
Q2) Many new neural tube cells migrate radially
A) along axons of other neurons.
B) along radial glial cells.
C) to the ventricular zone.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
Q3) Several studies have shown that early music training increases the size of the
A) auditory cortex that responds to complex musical tones.
B) right hemisphere.
C) auditory cortex that responds to pure tones.
D) brain.
E) auditory cortex.
Q4) Describe Williams syndrome and its genetic and neural correlates.
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Q1) Phantom limbs are experienced by
A) patients during surgery.
B) patients during brain surgery.
C) amputees.
D) opium addicts.
E) schizophrenics during recovery.
Q2) The symptoms of Parkinson's disease are temporarily alleviated in some patients by injections of
A) L-DOPA.
B) tyrosine.
C) dopamine.
D) serotonin.
E) adrenaline.
Q3) Which of the following causes epilepsy?
A) neurotoxins
B) cerebrovascular diseases
C) head injuries
D) all of the above
E) both A and C
Q4) Compare and contrast Parkinson's disease and Huntington's disease.
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Q1) Grid cells, head direction cells, and border cells are located in the A) entorhinal cortex.
B) amygdala.
C) frontal cortex.
D) place field.
E) Morris water maze.
Q2) According to the reconsolidation notion, long-term memories are temporarily susceptible to posttraumatic amnesia when they are A) recalled.
B) transferred to the cortex.
C) transferred to the hippocampus.
D) transferred to LTP.
E) consolidated.
Q3) In searching for the neural bases of LTP, many researchers assume that separate mechanisms account for
A) maintenance and extinction.
B) maintenance, reinforcement, and forgetting.
C) expression and induction.
D) induction, maintenance, and expression.
E) learning, memory, and motivation.
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Q1) In one experiment, the caloric intake of mice was reduced from free-feeding levels by up to 25, 55, or 65%. The benefits of the caloric restriction were greatest in the 65% group. These benefits included
A) an increased life span.
B) a reduced incidence of cancer.
C) improved immune responses.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) An important health-related implication of the set-point theory of body-weight regulation and hunger is that
A) the value of each person's set point should be appropriate for her or his good health.
B) obese people with set points should feel more hungry.
C) people with set points should tend to eat more than is appropriate for optimal health.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
Q3) The pancreatic hormone that is released prior to and during a meal is
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Q1) All of the steroid hormones released by the gonads are also released by the __________ cortex.
Q2) The specific term for surgical removal of the testes is __________.
Q3) The famous case of David Reimer suggests that surgically modifying a person's sex
A) in infancy should be curtailed.
B) after puberty should be curtailed.
C) should be curtailed.
D) should be curtailed in males.
E) should be curtailed in females.
Q4) In the evaluation of the effects of various hormone treatments on reproductive behavior, it is important to distinguish between "feminize" and "demasculinize" because they
A) are usually the same.
B) do not always go together.
C) are the opposite of masculinize and defeminize.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Q5) The __________ nuclei of the preoptic hypothalamus are larger in male rats than female rats.
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Q1) As we fall asleep,
A) alpha activity begins.
B) EMG activity suddenly increases.
C) alpha activity ceases.
D) REMs begin to occur.
E) REMs suddenly stop.
Q2) In a large, well conducted comparison between long sleepers and short sleepers, Fichten and colleagues found that the short sleepers
A) slept less.
B) suffered from more mental illness.
C) had poorer memories.
D) had shorter life expectancies.
E) both A and C
Q3) The encephale isolé preparation is produced by transecting the A) brain stem just rostral to the superior colliculus.
B) caudal brain stem.
C) brain stem between the colliculi.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q4) __________ circadian cycles are those without zeitgebers.
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Q1) Addicts who have stopped taking their drug of abuse often relapse if they take their drug just once. This effect is called drug __________.
Q2) These drugs are widely used in the treatment of pain, cough, and diarrhea:
A) anxiolytics.
B) stimulants.
C) opiates.
D) depressants.
E) antidepressants.
Q3) Many chemicals are kept from passing from the circulatory system of the CNS into CNS neurons by A) reflexology.
B) the blood-brain barrier.
C) tolerance.
D) the cerebrospinal fluid.
E) withdrawal.
Q4) Modern theories of addiction recognize that in addicts there is often a major difference between the positive incentive value of a drug and its ____________ value.
Q5) Delirium tremens is a symptom of __________ withdrawal.
Q6) The before-and-after design is used to study __________ drug tolerance.
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Q1) The most powerful fMRI tests suggest that the language areas of the cortex are
A) large and homogeneous.
B) patchy and widespread.
C) variable.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C
Q2) The sodium amytal test and the __________ test are both widely used tests of language lateralization.
Q3) The Z lens was developed by
A) Zaidel.
B) Zalman Amit.
C) Zurif.
D) Zimbardo.
E) Zola-Morgan.
Q4) The left-hemisphere is dominant for speech in
A) all left-handers and a few right-handers.
B) nearly all left-handers and a few right-handers.
C) nearly all right-handers and the majority of left-handers.
D) nearly all right-handers and only a few left-handers.
E) a few right-handers and even fewer left-handers.
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Q1) The structure in which the emotional significance of sensory signals is learned and retained is believed to be the A) amygdala.
B) hypothalamus.
C) septum.
D) hippocampus.
E) medial geniculate.
Q2) Research on the lateralization of emotion in humans using functional brain imaging suggests that the degree to which it is lateralized to the right hemisphere depends on A) the degree of speech development.
B) the emotionality of the person.
C) the particular brain structure under investigation.
D) cultural factors.
E) prosody.
Q3) Two brain structures have been most frequently linked to human emotion. Which are they? Describe research that has implicated each in human emotion.
Q4) Charles Whitman, the Texas tower sniper, had a tumor in his __________.
Q5) The dominant male of a rat colony is called the __________ male.
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Q1) There are two common classes of schizophrenic symptoms; __________ schizophrenic symptoms do not usually respond to neuroleptic therapy.
Q2) Some success has been reported in treating clinical depression with chronic low-level electrical stimulation of the___________ through implanted electrodes.
A) anterior cingulate gyrus of the prefrontal cortex
B) amygdala
C) posterior thalamus
D) hippocampus
E) striatum
Q3) Remarkably, a single injection of ketamine alleviates depression
A) totally for about 1 hour.
B) for over a week.
C) within hours.
D) and is widely used in its treatment.
E) both B and C
Q4) Describe the various anxiety disorders and the drugs that are used in their treatment. What have these drugs suggested about the mechanisms of anxiety disorders?
Q5) Motor and verbal __________ are the primary symptoms of Tourette syndrome.
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