Neuropsychology Practice Questions

Course Introduction

Neuropsychology is the scientific study of the relationships between brain function and behavior, focusing on how injuries, diseases, and disorders of the nervous system affect cognitive processes and emotional regulation. This course explores the neural bases of perception, memory, language, and decision-making, as well as the clinical assessment and rehabilitation of individuals with brain damage. Students will examine research methods, neuropsychological testing, and the implications of neuropsychological findings for both clinical practice and our broader understanding of human behavior.

Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition by Bryan Kolb

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Extension: A - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two individuals developed similar theories of evolution at about the same time. Charles Darwin was one; the other was _____.

A) William Osler

B) Pierre Flourens

C) Pierre Marie

D) Alfred Wallace

Answer: D

Q2) The currently used medical diagnosis "persistent vegetative state" MOST closely reflects the nervous system's:

A) hierarchical organization.

B) conduction aphasia.

C) localization of function.

D) Hebb synapse.

Answer: A

Q3) Following damage to his frontal lobes, subject L. D. had lasting impairments in:

A) visual perception.

B) attention.

C) motor-skill acquisition.

D) balance.

Answer: B

Page 3

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Chapter 1: Extension: B - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) Hughlings - Jackson ___

A)apraxia

B)hierarchical organization

C)fluent aphasia

D)alexia

Answer: B

Q2) modern neuroscientists ___

A)pineal gland

B)heart

C)brain

Answer: C

Q3) hierarchical organization ___

A)Goltz

B)Ramón y Cajal

C)Hughlings-Jackson

D)Golgi

Answer: C

Q4) Distinguish between sulci and gyri in the cerebral cortex.

Answer: Gyri are folds or bumps in the cortex, while sulci are creases or indentations in the cortex.

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Chapter 1: Extension: C - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) A cranioscopy was used for which purpose?

A) to surgically remove parts of the cerebral cortex

B) to excise subdural hematomas from the meninges of the brain

C) to measure the bumps and depressions of the skull

D) to observe the anatomical structures of an individual in a manner similar to the CAT scanner

Answer: C

Q2) Who thought that mental processes came from the heart, not the brain?

A) Plato

B) Aristotle

C) Hippocrates

D) Galen

Answer: B

Q3) So - called fluent aphasia, associated with damage to the left temporal lobe, was first accurately described and located by _____.

A) Marc Dax

B) Paul Broca

C) Carl Wernicke

D) Pierre Marie

Answer: C

Page 5

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Chapter 2: Extension: A - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) Each human somatic cell contains _____ chromosomes comprised of _____ autosomes and _____ sex chromosomes.

A) 46 pairs of; 23; 2

B) 46; 44; 2

C) 23 pairs of; one pair of; 22 pairs of

D) 23; 22; 2

Q2) Which of the following is MOST ancient?

A) H. erectus

B) A. africanus

C) A. robustus

D) H. habilis

Q3) Phenotypic plasticity is due in part to:

A) changes in a genotype.

B) a genome's capacity to express a large number of phenotypes.

C) the variability of the Y chromosome.

D) errors in chromosome number.

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Chapter 2: Extension: B - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) Describe the proposed evolutionary relationship between variations in cortical lobe structural developments and the complexity of behavior.

Q2) routinely unexpressed as a trait ___

A)dominant allele

B)recessive allele

C)codominance

D)X chromosome

Q3) reading and writing ___

A)30,000 years ago

B)15,000 years ago

C)7000 years ago

D)2 million years ago

Q4) Name three genetic engineering techniques, and describe a unique benefit or feature about each.

Q5) How does the field of human neuropsychology benefit from the study of nonhuman animals?

Q6) Distinguish between a genotype and phenotype.

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Q7) Describe how protein mutations can be used as "molecular clocks" to compare the evolution of species.

Chapter 2: Extension: C - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) The ancestor of all hominids is thought to be an animal somewhat like _____.

A) the chimpanzee

B) Homo habilis

C) Australopithecus

D) Homo afarensis

Q2) Recessive alleles that are not visible in a parent's phenotype can be present in their genotype and are more likely to be expressed in their child's _____.

A) phenotype if either parent contributes a dominant allele for that trait.

B) genotype if both parents contribute recessive alleles for that trait.

C) phenotype if both parents contribute recessive alleles for that trait.

D) genotype if both parents contribute dominant alleles for that trait.

Q3) Animals are used in neuropsychological research for all of the following reasons EXCEPT _____.

A) to show the need to understand basic brain mechanisms

B) to show the usefulness of designing animal models of human neurological disorders

C) to describe the ontogenetic development of the brain

D) to describe evolutionary and genetic influences on brain development

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Chapter 3: Extension: A - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) The brain originates from a single cell termed a _____.

A) blast cell

B) neuron

C) mother cell

D) neural stem cell

Q2) A cleft in the cerebral cortex deep enough to indent the ventricles is called a: A) meninges.

B) sulcus.

C) fissure.

D) gyrus.

Q3) The parasympathetic and sympathetic nerves make up the _____ nervous system. A) peripheral B) central C) emotional

D) autonomic

Q4) Damage to the dorsal root fibers of the spinal cord would result in impaired: A) sensation.

B) movement.

C) sensation and movement. D) cognition.

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Chapter 3: Extension: B - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) Schwann cells ___

A)produce cerebrospinal fluid

B)structural and nutritive

C)insulation within the brain and spinal cord

D)insulation in the peripheral nervous system

Q2) ipsilateral ___

A)carries messages toward a given structure

B)on the same side

C)carries messages from a given structure

D)on the opposite side

Q3) thalamus ___

A)diencephalon

B)epithalamus

C)hindbrain

D)telencephalon

Q4) Bell and Magendie ___

A)functional organization of the precentral gyrus

B)cytoarchitectonic map of human cortex

C)functional associations of dorsal and ventral roots r

D)function of the reticular formation

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Chapter 3: Extension: C - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) The frontal lobes are formed from the _____.

A) prosencephalon

B) rhombencephalon

C) telencephalon

D) myelencephalon

Q2) Which is NOT one of the meninges, the protective coverings over the central nervous system?

A) the pia mater

B) the arachnoid layer

C) the vermis layer

D) the dura mater

Q3) Clefts in the neocortex are called _____.

A) sulci

B) gyri

C) aqueducts

D) ventricles

Answer Key

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Chapter 4: Extension: A - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) The main ion responsible for the restoration of the resting potential is _____.

A) sodium

B) calcium

C) potassium

D) magnesium

Q2) The chemical energy used to power a neuron's activities is synthesized by the:

A) Golgi apparatus.

B) nucleus.

C) mitochondria.

D) synaptic vesicles.

Q3) Exocytosis is the process by which:

A) old neural cells are replaced with newly generated neurons.

B) cellular constituents are transferred from dendrites to axons of neurons.

C) proteins are taken up by neural cells from the extracellular environment.

D) proteins are released by cells into the extracellular environment.

Q4) Saltatory conduction occurs in neurons with _____.

A) synaptic connections

B) voltage differentials

C) organic ions

D) myelin sheaths

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Chapter 4: Extension: B - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) Describe the interaction between concentration and voltage gradients in the establishment of the membrane potential.

Q2) axon ___

A)carries information to terminal buttons

B)collects information

C)integrates information

D)sends information to another neuron

Q3) How is the action potential propagated along the axon in unmyelinated axons? How is it propagated in myelinated axons?

Q4) lysosomes ___

A)energy source

B)protein transport

C)degrades foreign substances

D)protein formation

Q5) messenger RNA ___

A)energy source

B)protein transport

C)degrades foreign substances

D)protein formation

Q6) Distinguish between transcription and translation in protein synthesis. Page 13

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Chapter 4: Extension: C - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) Which ion form is the most appropriate match for depolarization?

A) Cl-

B) A-

C) Na+

D) K+

Q2) The phrase "Halle Berry neurons" refers to _____.

A) the most attractive neurons in the brain

B) the neurons responsible for identifying people

C) the neurons that are the last to break down with old age

D) the implication that people have separate neurons for detecting and representing every object

Q3) Which ion form is the most appropriate match for hyperpolarization?

A) Cl-

B) A-

C) Na+

D) K+

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Chapter 5: Extension: A - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) The amount of neurotransmitter released from the presynaptic terminal in response to a single action potential depends, in part, on _____.

A) the amount of Ca2+ that enters the presynaptic terminal

B) the amount of Na+ that enters the presynaptic terminal

C) the size of the synaptic vesicles

D) the length of the axon

Q2) Oxytocin, vasopressin, and beta - endorphin are all examples of:

A) neuroactive hormones.

B) small-molecule neurotransmitters.

C) peptide neurotransmitters.

D) gases.

Q3) The first two chemicals to be identified as neurotransmitters were:

A) acetylcholine and epinephrine.

B) dopamine and serotonin.

C) glutamate and glycine.

D) GABA and NMDA.

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Chapter 5: Extension: B - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) storage granules ___

A)vesicle clusters

B)postsynaptic potentials

C)neurotransmitter release

D)neurotransmitter molecule containers

Q2) Diagram the process by which the activation of a metabotropic receptor by a neurotransmitter molecule results in the modification of postsynaptic function.

Q3) GABA ___

A)tyrosine

B)dietary choline

C)glutamate

D)tryptophan

Q4) histamine ___

A) if the substance is a classical neurotransmitter or B) if it is a neuroactive peptide.

Q5) Identify, in correct order, the four steps in synaptic transmission.

Q6) somatostatin ___

A) if the substance is a classical neurotransmitter or B) if it is a neuroactive peptide.

Q7) Describe the organization and function of the Renshaw loop.

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Chapter 5: Extension: C - Communication Between

Neurons

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Q1) Which ion is mainly responsible for transmitter release?

A) Ca2+

B) Na+

C) K+

D) Cl-

Q2) The main transmitter found in the locus coeruleus is _____.

A) norepinephrine (NE)

B) dopamine (DA)

C) serotonin (5-HT)

D) acetylcholine (ACh)

Q3) Transmitter - activated receptors are located _____.

A) on the presynaptic membrane

B) on the postsynaptic membrane

C) on both the pre- and postsynaptic membranes

D) in the nuclear membrane only

Q4) The effects of the opiate drugs are MOST closely matched by _____.

A) acetylcholine

B) met-enkephalin

C) dopamine

D) histamine

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Chapter 6: Extension: A - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) The blood-brain barrier is established by:

A) neurons and astrocytes.

B) neurons and smooth muscle cells.

C) endothelial cells and neurons.

D) endothelial cells and astrocytes.

Q2) A drug that is _____ is more readily absorbed from the stomach than one that is

A) weakly basic; weakly acidic

B) weakly acidic; weakly basic

C) insoluble; soluble

D) digestible; indigestible

Q3) Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) is an agonist of which endogenous neurotransmitter?

A) GABA

B) glutamate

C) dopamine

D) anandamide

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Chapter 6: Extension: B - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Identify and describe the three kinds of drug tolerance.

Q2) naloxone ___

A)adenosine agonist

B)opioid agonist

C)opioid antagonist

D)dopamine agonist

Q3) tight junctions ___

A)vomit response

B)Parkinson's disease

C)benzodiazepine

D)blood-brain barrier

Q4) area postrema ___

A)vomit response

B)Parkinson's disease

C)benzodiazepine

D)blood-brain barrier

Q5) What are the stages in the wanting - and - liking theory (incentive - sensitization theory) of drug addiction?

Q6) What characterizes drugs that can easily reach the brain?

Q7) How do drugs such as Prozac affect serotonin levels at brain synapses? Page 20

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Chapter 6: Extension: C - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Which statement is NOT true of antidepressant drugs?

A) They have selective and very specific actions on the brain.

B) They improve chemical transmission in noradrenaline and histamine synapses.

C) It takes several weeks for their users to exhibit antidepressant effects.

D) Their use can result in increased anxiety and memory impairment.

Q2) Most of the drugs used to treat schizophrenia block a receptor for _____.

A) dopamine

B) glutamate

C) serotonin

D) acetylcholine

Q3) Cannabis seems to act on receptors for the neurotransmitter _____.

A) psilocybin

B) serotonin

C) anandamide

D) glycine

Q4) Which types of drug passes into the bloodstream from the intestines?

A) drugs that are weak acids

B) drugs that are hydrophilic

C) drugs that are inhaled

D) drugs that are weak bases

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Chapter 7: Extension: A - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) The signal measured in a PET scan is generated by:

A) blood oxygen levels.

B) magnetic fields.

C) radioactive decay.

D) transmembrane ion flux.

Q2) Which of the following techniques provides the MOST specific spatial and temporal information about the relationship between neural function and behavior?

A) positron emission tomography

B) functional magnetic resonance imaging

C) computed tomography

D) single-cell recording

Answer Key

Q3) Electroencephalography measures changes in:

A) blood oxygenation levels generated by large numbers of neurons.

B) glucose metabolism generated by large groups of neurons.

C) voltage generated by large groups of neurons.

D) voltage generated by single neurons.

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Chapter 7: Extension: B - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) What distinguishes the ERP technique from standard EEG techniques?

Q2) Briefly describe the general method used to create an image like that in a CT scan.

Q3) What are some theoretical limitations to data gathered via single - cell recording?

Q4) delta rhythm ___

A)aroused state

B)relaxed state

C)drowsy state

D)deep sleep

Q5) theta rhythm ___

A)aroused state

B)relaxed state

C)drowsy state

D)deep sleep

Q6) MRS ___

A)detects neurotransmitter molecules

B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events

C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity

D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions

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Chapter 7: Extension: C - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Who developed the first useful EEG methods?

A) Berger

B) Aserinsky

C) Freud

D) Fox

Q2) Which is a method of enhancing conventional X - ray radiography by taking advantage of the fact that X - rays are not absorbed by air?

A) pneumoencephalography

B) computerized tomography

C) positron emission tomography

D) magnetic resonance imaging

Q3) The _____ technique provides excellent resolution but can only be applied with humans in exceptional circumstances.

A) ERP

B) single-cell recording

C) EEG

D) EKG

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Chapter 8: Extension: A - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Olfaction and gustation are known as the:

A) papillary senses.

B) affective senses.

C) chemical senses.

D) solitary senses.

Q2) Each sensory system employs multiple cortical regions, each consisting of _____ of the sensory world.

A) a single, exact map

B) multiple identical maps

C) multiple specialized maps

D) a single, abstract map

Q3) Where would an investigator most likely find neurons that are most capable of dealing with information from the whole binocular visual field?

A) the superior colliculus

B) the visual cortex

C) the lateral geniculate nucleus

D) the pulvinar nucleus

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Chapter 8: Extension: B - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Golgi tendon organs ___

A)balance

B)proprioception

C)nociception

D)hapsis

Q2) Discuss the relationship between receptive field size, sensory receptor density, cortical representation, and perceptual sensitivity.

Q3) area 3 ___

A)taste

B)vision

C)somatosensation

D)audition

Q4) area 43 (insula) ___

A)taste

B)vision

C)somatosensation

D)audition

Q5) Why doesn't complete destruction of the geniculostriate pathway in humans leave the person completely blind?

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Chapter 8: Extension: C - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) The part of the visual system responsible for controlling pupil size is the _____.

A) frontal eye fields

B) pretectum

C) visual cortex

D) superior colliculus

Q2) Brodmann's area 41 is associated with which sense?

A) taste

B) vision

C) olfaction

D) audition

Q3) Pitch is MOST closely related to _____.

A) loudness

B) frequency

C) location

D) timbre

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Chapter 9: Extension: A - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Difficulty holding a pen to write would MOST likely result from damage to the:

A) lateral corticospinal tract.

B) ventral corticospinal tract.

C) corticobulbar tract.

D) rubrospinal tract.

Q2) The flocculus is part of the _____.

A) basal ganglia

B) brainstem

C) cerebellum

D) thalamus

Q3) Evidence suggests that the primary motor cortex is organized on the basis of:

A) intelligent design.

B) environmental experience.

C) specific movements.

D) movement goals.

Q4) The contribution of the cerebellum to the control of movement is:

A) idea generation and planning.

B) initiation of voluntary actions.

C) fine-tuning of timing and accuracy.

D) coordination of ethological behaviors.

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Chapter 9: Extension: B - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) In which lobes of human cerebral cortex have "mirror neurons" been found?

Q2) lateral corticospinal tract ___

A)synapse directly on muscles

B)control of body midline muscles

C)control of facial muscles

D)control of limbs and digits

Q3) What patterns of ventral premotor cortical neuron activity were observed by Umilta et al. during the study of monkeys observing goal - directed movements by another monkey or human?

Q4) What are ethological categories of movement, as defined by Graziano? How are they represented in the brain?

Q5) prefrontal cortex ___

A)generation of specific movements

B)planning of movement

C)source of sensory information

D)sequencing of movement

Q6) What is meant by the term "movement lexicon"?

Q7) Describe the feedback circuit that allows the cerebellum to correct movements.

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Q8) Describe how motor cortex and corresponding parietal cortex topograghical regions produce movement.

Chapter 9: Extension: C - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) In Evarts's experiment, when are neurons in the wrist region of the motor cortex inactive?

A) when the monkey prepares to flex its wrist

B) when the monkey flexes its wrist

C) when the monkey has more weight to move with its wrist

D) when the monkey brings its wrist back to the starting position

Q2) The degenerative disorder associated with muscular rigidity and difficulty initiating and performing movements is called _____.

A) Parkinson's disease

B) Huntington's disease

C) Friedreich's ataxia

D) Tourette's syndrome

Q3) The scientist who used pulses of electrical stimulation in conscious humans and found that stimulation of the precentral gyrus triggered movement was _____.

A) Graziano

B) Penfield

C) Hess

D) Georgopoulos

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Chapter 10: Extension: A - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Which of the following behaviors or physiological abilities is not observed in lowdecerebrate animals?

A) tail lashing

B) swallowing

C) thermoregulation

D) active sleep

Q2) The principal output neurons of the cerebral cortex are _____ cells.

A) stellate

B) Purkinje

C) pyramidal

D) Schwann

Q3) The lowest level at which voluntary movements can be coordinated is the:

A) diencephalon.

B) spinal cord.

C) neocortex.

D) midbrain.

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Chapter 10: Extension: B - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Name the functional characteristics of the inputs to each of the six neocortical layers.

Q2) Luria

A)cortical stimulation

B)hierarchical model

C)cortical maps

D)cortical modules

Q3) Gamper ___

A)decerebrate animals

B)sensory and motor unit theory

C)distributed hierarchy theory

D)behavior of the mesencephalic child

Q4) superior temporal sulcus ___

A)auditory and visual

B)auditory and somatosensory

C)auditory, visual, and somatosensory

Q5) occipital lobe ___

A)auditory and visual

B)auditory and somatosensory

C)auditory, visual, and somatosensory

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Chapter 10: Extension: C - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) When its brain is injured in such a way that the hindbrain and spinal cord are still connected but both are disconnected from the rest of the brain, an animal is called

A) diencephalic

B) decorticate

C) low decerebrate

D) high decerebrate

Q2) The individual who first studied the development of myelin in the cortex was _____.

A) Bard

B) Gamper

C) Flechsig

D) Luria

Q3) Areas that function to combine characteristics of stimuli across different sensory modalities are called _____.

A) temporal

B) parietal

C) somatosensory

D) polymodal

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Chapter 11: Extension: A - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Visual images can be presented individually to each hemisphere using a device known as a(n):

A) oscilloscope.

B) dichotoscope.

C) tachistoscope.

D) periscope.

Q2) In intact individuals, hemispheric differences in cognitive ability can be detected by measuring:

A) differences in processing efficiency.

B) self-reports of cognitive strategies.

C) galvanic skin response.

D) differences in processing efficiency, self-reports of cognitive strategies, and galvanic skin response.

Q3) Which of the following tests shows a left - ear advantage?

A) backward speech

B) environmental sounds

C) difficult rhythms

D) vowels

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Chapter 11: Extension: B - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Webster and Thurber ___

A)interaction model

B)preferred cognitive mode model

C)specialization model

Q2) Doreen Kimura ___

A)planum temporale asymmetry

B)behavior of commissurotomy patients

C)brain stimulation of conscious patients

D)auditory system asymmetry

Q3) interference tests ___

A)motor system

B)visual system

C)speech production

D)somatosensory system

Q4) doubling of Heschl's gyrus ___

A) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the left hemisphere

B) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the right hemisphere.

Q5) What are some of the effects observed with electrical stimulation of the brain in conscious patients?

Q6) Explain how cerebral functions differ more by "site" than by "side."

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Chapter 11: Extension: C - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Which of the following usually shows a right - ear advantage?

A) perceiving environmental sounds

B) perceiving rhythms

C) understanding backward speech

D) learning new memories

Q2) Electrical stimulation of the right _____ lobe has produced déjà vu experiences and dreaming states in patients.

A) occipital

B) frontal

C) temporal

D) parietal

Q3) The tachistoscope is often used to test subjects with respect to _____.

A) motor skills

B) vision

C) memory for nonsense syllables

D) speech production

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Chapter 12: Extension: A - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) On the average, women demonstrate a level of verbal fluency that is:

A) equivalent to that of men.

B) worse than that of men.

C) better than that of men.

D) slower to develop than that of men.

Q2) If Sugishita is correct, left - hemisphere injury affects:

A) kanji more than kana.

B) kana more than kanji.

C) both types of letters equally.

D) the system learned earliest in life.

Q3) Anatomical asymmetries, including those of the brain:

A) are present before birth.

B) emerge at puberty.

C) emerge in adulthood.

D) decrease during development.

Answer Key

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Chapter 12: Extension: B - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) What factors may account for the greater incidence of left - handedness in mentally disabled children?

Q2) What does Luders' "gray matter concentration" measure indicate? What differences exist in this measure between males and females?

Q3) susceptibility to apraxia following left frontal lesions ___

A) if it is truer for males than for females

B) if it is truer for females than for males

C) if there is no reliable sex difference.

Q4) At least five cognitive abilities show sex - related differences. Name four.

Q5) verbal impairment following left - hemisphere lesions ___

A) if it is truer for males than for females

B) if it is truer for females than for males

C) if there is no reliable sex difference.

Q6) larger right planum parietale ___

A) if it is truer for males than for females

B) if it is truer for females than for males

C) if there is no reliable sex difference.

Q7) Describe the proposed developmental progression of cerebral asymmetry from the embryonic state through adulthood.

Page 39

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Chapter 12: Extension: C - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) According to McBurney and colleagues, women outperform men at _____.

A) mathematical reasoning

B) spatial memory

C) mental rotation

D) spatial navigation

Q2) In the brains of chimpanzees there are:

A) humanlike asymmetries in Broca's area and the planum temporale.

B) no anatomical asymmetries.

C) only asymmetries in Broca's area.

D) only asymmetries in the planum temporale.

Answer Key

Q3) Left - hemisphere dominance for song is:

A) characteristic of all songbirds.

B) surprisingly not characteristic of any songbirds.

C) characteristic of only some songbirds.

D) not seen in any animals because cerebral asymmetry is found only in humans.

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Chapter 13: Extension: A - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) Milner and Goodale base some of their model of vision beyond the occipital lobe on the finding in monkeys that many neurons in the posterior parietal lobe respond to visual stimuli only if _____.

A) the monkey reaches for the stimulus

B) the stimulus is moving

C) the stimulus is meaningful to the monkey

D) the stimulus is brightly colored

Q2) The condition in which there is an inability to use visual information to guide voluntary movement is called:

A) optic ataxia.

B) vestibular ataxia.

C) ideational apraxia.

D) optic alexia.

Q3) Visual processing in humans continues beyond the occipital lobes to the:

A) frontal and parietal lobes.

B) frontal and temporal lobes.

C) temporal, parietal, and frontal lobes.

D) insular and entorhinal cortex.

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Chapter 13: Extension: B - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) fusiform gyrus ___

A)includes V2, VP

B)divides upper and lower halves of visual world

C)first cortical relay for visual input

D)contains V4

Q2) V1 ___

A)required for "dynamic form" perception

B)required for conscious vision

C)required for color perception

D)required for motion perception

Q3) V5 ___

A)required for "dynamic form" perception

B)required for conscious vision

C)required for color perception

D)required for motion perception

Q4) Distinguish between "vision for action" and "action for vision."

Q5) Briefly list the main functional role of each of the following: V1, V2, V3, V4, and V5.

Q6) Describe how the behavioral deficits particular to subjects V.K. and D.F. exemplify a double dissociation of visual system function.

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Chapter 13: Extension: C - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) People who have prosopagnosia cannot perceive _____ accurately.

A) objects

B) words

C) faces

D) motion

Q2) Which region of the brain is associated with object analysis?

A) the lateral occipital

B) the superior temporal sulcus

C) the lateral intraparietal sulcus

D) the ventral intraparietal sulcus

Q3) Which visual function is a function of the dorsal stream regions?

A) body analysis

B) object-directed grasping

C) analysis of landmarks

D) analysis of biological motion

Q4) Destruction of one optic nerve will produce _____.

A) scotoma

B) monocular blindness

C) homonymous hemianopia

D) bitemporal hemianopia

Page 43

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Chapter 14: Extension: A - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) Which of the following is more likely to be seen in subjects with right parietal lobe lesions?

A) contralateral neglect

B) dyslexia

C) dyscalculia

D) ideomotor apraxia

Q2) The study by Andersen and colleagues found that neuronal activity in the monkey PRR could predict:

A) an intended move to a spatial target.

B) a motor response to an auditory cue.

C) reward preference.

D) somatosensory thresholds.

Q3) Sensory feedback that indicates the actual outcome of intended movements is known as the _____ copy.

A) afference

B) efference

C) effervescent

D) reentrant

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Chapter 14: Extension: B - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) blind touch ___

A)indifference to illness

B)ability to point to touched area despite lack of conscious perception of the touch

C)finger clumsiness due to lost sensory feedback

D)failure to perceive one of two similar stimuli presented simultaneously

Q2) What symptoms of parietal - lobe damage do NOT fit neatly into the view of the parietal lobe as a "visuomotor control center"?

Q3) Describe the proposed hemispheric asymmetry of function in the performance of spatial cognition tasks.

Q4) Describe at least four cognitive deficits which are more likely to occur with right parietal damage than with left parietal damage.

Answer Key

Q5) anosognosia ___

A)inability to recognize objects by touch

B)inability to name and locate body parts

C)lack of awareness of one's own illness

D)inability to do arithmetic

Q6) What is the difference between astereognosis and simultaneous extinction?

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Chapter 14: Extension: C - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) The task to test for simultaneous extinction presents:

A) visual stimuli to the right visual field.

B) tactile stimuli one at a time to the right hand.

C) two tactile stimuli simultaneously, one to each hand.

D) two visual stimuli simultaneously, both in the right visual field.

Q2) The close anatomical relationship between the parietal lobe and the prefrontal cortex is thought to be related to _____.

A) the elaboration of motor programs

B) grammatical constructions

C) spatially guided behavior

D) dissociation

Q3) The lateral aspect of the parietal lobe is demarcated ventrally by the _____.

A) central fissure

B) cingulate gyrus

C) Sylvian fissure

D) parietal-occipital fissure

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Chapter 15: Extension: A - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) To perform well on the McGill Picture - Anomalies Test, the subject must make use of:

A) visual discrimination.

B) stimulus categorization.

C) contextual cues.

D) cross-modal matching.

Q2) Liegeois - Chauval has reported that rhythm discrimination is MOST disrupted following lesions of the:

A) right anterior temporal lobe.

B) right posterior temporal lobe.

C) left anterior temporal lobe.

D) left posterior temporal lobe.

Q3) Auditory association cortex is located in the:

A) superior temporal sulcus.

B) middle temporal gyrus.

C) insula.

D) fusiform gyrus.

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Chapter 15: Extension: B - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) pitch discrimination ___

A)parahippocampal place area

B)Heschl's gyrus

C)fusiform gyrus

D)Heschl's gyrus.

Q2) Describe Perrett's experiment concerning superior temporal sulcus (STS) neurons in the monkey brain.

Q3) Token test ___

A)verbal memory

B)language comprehension

C)nonverbal memory

D)auditory processing

Q4) impaired language perception ___

A)hippocampus, both hemispheres

B)Brodmann's area 41, right hemisphere

C)Brodmann's area 42, left hemisphere

D)Brodmann's area 37, both hemispheres

Q5) Identify five standard clinical neuropsychological tests for temporal lobe damage and the cognitive functions they are intended to evaluate.

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Chapter 15: Extension: C - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) The perforant pathway is a set of projections that lead from _____ and are crucial to the proper functioning of learning and memory.

A) Heschl's gyrus

B) Brodmann's area 41

C) the hippocampus

D) the amygdala

Q2) The temporal lobes are involved in each of these EXCEPT:

A) processing auditory input.

B) visual object recognition.

C) memory functions.

D) identifying tactile information.

Q3) Peretz and Zatorre (2005) demonstrated that there is a difference in size in which brain structure between musicians and nonmusicians?

A) the superior temporal gyrus

B) Heschl's gyrus

C) the angular gyrus

D) the parahippocampal formation

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Chapter 16: Extension: A - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) The area that has been proposed as crucial for the programming of movement sequences is the:

A) premotor cortex.

B) orbital cortex.

C) primary motor cortex.

D) red nucleus.

Q2) There are significant differences in the nature of cognitive deficits exhibited between patients with frontal lesions versus those with posterior damage, such that those with frontal damage have difficulty with all of the following EXCEPT:

A) divergent thinking.

B) verbal output.

C) rule following.

D) convergent thinking.

Q3) The sensory system MOST affected by an orbital lesion appears to be that of:

A) vision.

B) touch.

C) olfaction.

D) hearing.

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Chapter 16: Extension: B - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) loss of fine movements ___

A)Broca's area

B)the orbital cortex

C)the primary motor cortex

D)frontal eye fields

Q2) Describe the neural networks that support successful performance of Bechara and Damasio's gambling task.

Q3) Relate the effects of frontal - lobe lesions on the Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test (WCST) to the effects of such lesions on social behavior.

Q4) altered sexual behavior ___

A)Broca's area

B)the orbital cortex

C)the primary motor cortex

D)frontal eye fields

Q5) How would you answer someone who asked, "Are the frontal lobes in primates the site of advanced mammalian behavior"?

Q6) What is the "problem" for which the concept of corollary discharge is the "answer"?

Q7) Name four cognitive skills impaired by dorsolateral frontal cortex damage.

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Chapter 16: Extension: C - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) The term "corollary discharge" explains which frontal lobe phenomenon?

A) that we do not perceive movement in the environment when we move our eyes

B) that the right and left supplementary motor areas work antagonistically

C) the increased activity in the right prefrontal area in response to speech generation

D) the decrease in activation of the visual frontal cortex when auditory stimuli are received

Q2) The orbitofrontal cortex is another name for the _____.

A) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

B) inferior prefrontal cortex

C) medial frontal cortex

D) frontal eye field

Q3) Abnormalities in the dopaminergic projection from the tegmentum to the prefrontal regions occur in _____.

A) schizophrenia

B) Parkinson's disease

C) Alzheimer's disease

D) Huntington's disease

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Chapter 17: Extension: A - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) The 1965 monograph, "Disconnexion Syndromes in Animals and Man," reintroduces a concept introduced many years before by:

A) Geschwind.

B) Sperry and Gazzaniga.

C) Kimura and Hampson.

D) Dejerine and Liepmann.

Q2) In those individuals who undergo a callosal transection, which of the following is TRUE?

A) Ipsilateral pathways may become stronger in younger patients.

B) Ipsilateral pathways are enhanced regardless of the age at transection.

C) New contralateral pathways are formed in younger patients.

D) New contralateral pathways can be generated at any age.

Q3) Commissurotomy is performed in humans primarily as a treatment for:

A) schizophrenia.

B) severe migraine headaches.

C) Parkinson's disease.

D) epilepsy.

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Page 53

Chapter 17: Extension: B - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) Wernicke ___

A)constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes

B)hypothetized conduction aphasia

C)studied "split-brain" patients

D)defined disconnection syndromes

Q2) How would an individual with agenesis of the corpus callosum respond to requests to verbally name odors presented to left and right nostril? Justify your answer.

Q3) Explain why a split - brain patient will have difficulty copying a geometric design with his right hand.

Q4) What is meant by the term topographic with respect to callosal organization?

Q5) Mishkin ___

A)constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes

B)hypothetized conduction aphasia

C)studied "split-brain" patients

D)defined disconnection syndromes

Q6) What is the "zipper hypothesis"?

Q7) What is the therapeutic value of the severing of commissures in the treatment of epilepsy?

Q8) Explain the effects of early musical training on brain connectivity. Page 54

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Chapter 17: Extension: C - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) Downer's experiment with monkeys involved lesions to the _____.

A) amygdala

B) visual cortex

C) hippocampal commissure

D) prefrontal cortex

Q2) Which is true of information processed during dichotic - listening experiments?

A) Information presented to the right ear is preferred.

B) Only language information can cross over via the corpus callosum.

C) Non-native English speakers show a preference for content words.

D) The removal of all hemispheric commissures leads to an inability to process multiple inputs.

Q3) Preilowski (1975) performed an experiment in which he required commissurized patients to draw a diagonal line using the popular children's toy Etch A Sketch. What was being tested in this experiment?

A) artistic abilities

B) the ability to use both hands in concert

C) divergent thinking

D) spatial abilities

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Chapter 18: Extension: A - Learning and Memory

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Q1) Transient global amnesia can be produced by all of the following EXCEPT:

A) ischemic attack.

B) hypoglycemia.

C) epilepsy.

D) congenital abnormalities.

Q2) The anatomical model of implicit memory proposed by the authors supports a central role for the:

A) premotor cortex.

B) ventral thalamus.

C) substantia nigra.

D) basal ganglia.

Q3) An amnesic subject who earnestly tells stories about his past that are demonstrably untrue is showing the symptom known as:

A) fugue state.

B) anterograde amnesia.

C) confabulation.

D) reconsolidation.

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Chapter 18: Extension: B - Learning and Memory

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Q1) amygdala ___

A)episodic memory

B)confabulation

C)emotional coloring

D)recognition memory

Q2) What is the reasoning behind the recommendation that students can improve their exam scores if they study by writing out the material to be learned?

Q3) Hebb recurring - digits ___

A) if it is more disrupted by left hemisphere lesions

B) if it is more disrupted by right hemisphere lesions

C) if there is no discernible difference between left and right hemisphere lesions on performance of the task.

Q4) Distinguish between implicit and explicit memory, giving examples of neuropsychological tests for each type of memory.

Q5) Ammon's horn ___

A)location of granule cells

B)neocortex-hippocampus pathway

C)location of pyramidal cells

D)hippocampus-thalamus pathway

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Chapter 18: Extension: C - Learning and Memory

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Q1) H.M.'s performance on the mirror - drawing task demonstrates his ability to display

A) implicit memory formation

B) anterograde amnesia

C) logical reasoning

D) priming

Q2) "HERA" stands for _____.

A) high emotional retrograde amnesia

B) hippocampal-entorhinal retrograde amnesia

C) hemispheric encoding and retrieval asymmetry

D) hologram encoding retrieval assessment

Q3) According to Petri and Mishkin, the _____ is NOT part of the proposed implicit memory system.

A) ventral thalamus

B) premotor cortex

C) hippocampus

D) basal ganglia

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Chapter 19: Extension: A - Language

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Q1) A neuropsychologist might choose to administer the Token Test to:

A) comprehensively define the extent of a language deficit.

B) screen for problems with motivation and emotion.

C) quickly assess whether a language deficit is present.

D) screen for the genetic bases for a language disorder.

Q2) The Gardners have used _____ in their research with Washoe, the chimp.

A) keyboard communication

B) American sign language

C) Pidgin sign language

D) keyboard communication, American sign language, and Pidgin sign language

Q3) Studies of the KE family strongly implicate the gene known as _____ in human language ability.

A) FOXP2

B) LOXP2

C) FOXL2

D) FROGP2

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Chapter 19: Extension: B - Language

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Q1) Discuss theories of language evolution that emphasize changes to the vocal tract with those that focus on the brain.

Q2) Distinguish, on the basis of the type of language errors produced, among fluent aphasia, nonfluent aphasia, and word deafness.

Q3) anarthria ___

A)unintended word production

B)word-finding deficit

C)muscular incoordination

D)reading deficit

Q4) How would you answer a beginning psychology student who asks, "Where in the brain is language localized?"

Q5) retrieval of meaningful cue - related information ___

A)left inferofrontal cortex

B)left inferotemporal cortex

C)Broca's area

D)left visual cortex

Q6) Identify three examples of phonemes and three examples of morphemes in this sentence.

Q7) What are the four separate abilities necessary for language?

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Chapter 19: Extension: C - Language

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Q1) According to Brodmann's neuroanatomical identification scheme, Broca's area is referred to as _____, and Wernicke's area is referred to as _____.

A) areas 44 and 45; area 22

B) the perisylvian region; the inferior frontal cortex

C) the arcuate fasciculus; the perforant pathway

D) IT; TE

Q2) Which is NOT a component of Wernicke's aphasia?

A) the speech defect known as "word salad"

B) a deficit in categorizing sounds

C) impairment in writing

D) speech conduction impairment

Q3) The conclusion that the same brain areas are involved in both speech and signing is based primarily on:

A) observations that signers are usually right-handed too.

B) fMRI data on signing and speech.

C) observations that aphasia in signers usually involves the right hemisphere.

D) EEG data of brain activity.

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Chapter 20: Extension: A - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) Results from the earliest experiments studying the neural bases of emotion supported an important role for the:

A) thalamus and hypothalamus in the expression of emotion.

B) idea that emotional expression is subject to evolution just like other traits.

C) existence of a limbic lobe where emotion is experienced.

D) idea that the frontal lobes participate in emotional control.

Q2) Learning responses that minimize the possibility of regrettable actions is associated with increased activity in the:

A) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and cingulate gyrus.

B) orbitofrontal cortex and cingulate gyrus.

C) amygdala and dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

D) orbitofrontal cortex and amygdala.

Q3) The somatic marker hypothesis stresses the importance of emotional expression in: A) reasoning processes.

B) habit learning.

C) fear conditioning.

D) reflex formation.

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Chapter 20: Extension: B - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) decrease in frequency of spontaneous talking ___

A) if the behavior listed is more likely to be impaired by left-hemisphere lesions

B) if it is more likely to be impaired by right-hemisphere lesions.

Q2) Bard ___

A)emotions relation to logical thinking

B)rage responses in decorticate dogs

C)behavioral effects of hypothalamic stimulation in cats

D)behavioral effects of temporal lobe lesions in monkeys

Q3) The patient has suffered a stroke involving the frontal lobes. You, as the attending neuropsychologist, have been asked to evaluate his emotional status. What do you do?

Q4) What is sensory aprosodia? What is motor aprosodia?

Q5) Michael Gazzaniga ___

A)cognitive-emotional interaction theory

B)cognitive asymmetry of emotion

C)somatic marker hypothesis

D)left-hemisphere cognitive interpreter

Q6) Support or attack the following statement: The emotional complexity of mammals is due to evolutionary changes in the frontal lobes.

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Chapter 20: Extension: C - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) Philip Bard, working with animals with selective brain damage, emphasized the importance of the _____ in the production of emotional responses.

A) limbic lobe

B) frontal lobe

C) diencephalon

D) orbitofrontal cortex

Q2) A bilateral anterior temporal lobectomy in monkeys (and in at least one human case) produces a syndrome that includes _____.

A) amnesia

B) lack of sexual desire

C) tameness

D) aggression

Q3) The _____ response is associated with bringing stimuli into contact with _____.

A) sham rage; the hypothalamus

B) flehmen; the amygdala

C) flehmen; Jacobson's organ

D) stress; the pituitary gland

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Chapter 21: Extension: A - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) Changes in hippocampal volume related to spatial memory abilities in humans and birds alike may depend on:

A) increases in blood vessel density.

B) the birth of new neurons.

C) the birth of new astrocytes.

D) the death of old neurons.

Q2) Damage to the monkey's dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (principal sulcus) region impairs behavior requiring:

A) short-term memory for the spatial location of visual stimuli.

B) long-term memory for the spatial location of visual stimuli.

C) object recognition using cross-modal matching of visual and tactile stimuli.

D) evaluation of the relative reward magnitudes for visually presented stimuli.

Q3) Patients with damage to the parietal cortex of the right hemisphere have been reported to have difficulty:

A) making sense of cues indicating the apparent direction of moving dots.

B) making sense of clues needed for solving crossword puzzles.

C) focusing their eyes on stimuli that are moving through the environment.

D) making sense of illusory contours indicating depth of visual field.

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Chapter 21: Extension: B - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) In what ways do the spatial abilities of males and females differ?

Q2) topographic disorientation ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

Q3) How do Turner's syndrome individuals perform on spatial tasks (on average)? What may account for their performance?

Answer Key

Q4) Bálint ___

A)head-direction cells

B)parietal lobe role in spatial memory

C)frontal lobe role in spatial memory

D)hippocampal place cells

Q5) Describe the reported interaction between reasoning skills and sex on the performance of tasks requiring spatial skills.

Q6) Marshall the evidence to support or attack the idea that the hippocampus serves as a "cognitive map."

Q7) Distinguish between egocentric disorientation and heading orientation.

Page 67

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Chapter 21: Extension: C - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) _____ memory is the name given to the ability to move through space from one place to another.

A) Cartographic

B) Topographic

C) Magellanic

D) Navigational

Q2) Which is NOT a brain region where place cells have been found to exist?

A) the entorhinal cortex

B) the dentate gyrus

C) the subiculum

D) the hippocampus

Q3) Goldman - Rakic and coworkers found that there is a spatial impairment in the visual detection deficits observed in monkeys with _____ lobe lesions.

A) parietal

B) frontal

C) temporal

D) occipital

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Chapter 22: Extension: A - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) Posner and Petersen suggest that the "dual executive network" is located in the:

A) left parietal cortex.

B) bilateral temporal cortex.

C) hippocampus.

D) frontal lobes, particularly the anterior cingulate.

Q2) Taken together, the experiments of Corbetta and colleagues suggest that _____ cortex(ices) is(are) activated during tasks that call for attention to location.

A) the parietal

B) the occipitotemporal

C) both the parietal and occipitotemporal

D) neither the parietal nor the occipitotemporal

Q3) Moran and Desimone showed that monkey neurons responded selectively to specific stimuli in their visual fields:

A) after reward training.

B) when the stimulus was presented to the right hemifield.

C) when the stimulus was presented to the left hemifield.

D) when the stimulus was green.

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Chapter 22: Extension: B - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) attention to color

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q2) attention to shape

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q3) Describe the role of selective attention in the neural responses of the monkey in the experiment by Moran and Desimone.

Q4) What brain regions would you expect to be particularly active in a PET scan during a task in which the attended stimulus is presented in the left visual field only?

Q5) attention in area TE ___

A)Treisman

B)Moran and Desimone

C)Kahneman

D)Posner and Petersen

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Chapter 22: Extension: C - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) All of the following are processes believed to be prerequisites for consciousness EXCEPT:

A) arousal.

B) attention.

C) working memory.

D) language.

Q2) In Treisman's theory, attention is a cognitive process that serves to _____.

A) embed aspects of the visual world in long-term storage

B) determine the color of visual objects

C) select and integrate features in maps

D) place stimuli in object files

Q3) In Moran and Desimone's experiment, attentional effects were observed _____.

A) only if the monkey had to reach for an object

B) in all visual areas studied

C) in area V1

D) in area TE

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Chapter 23: Extension: A - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) Hubel and Wiesel sewed a kitten's eye shut for a time. After the eye was allowed to open again it:

A) was essentially blind.

B) had improved visual acuity.

C) showed no change.

D) led to abnormal cell activation.

Q2) Some behavioral abilities do not emerge until adolescence because:

A) society restricts what adolescents can do.

B) the fully developed brain is acted upon by sex hormones.

C) the human brain continues to develop well past adolescence.

D) adolescence culminates with the development of the neural tube.

Q3) Early damage to the medial temporal area is MOST likely to be noticed in: A) math abilities.

B) social behaviors.

C) visual agnosias.

D) language deficits.

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Chapter 23: Extension: B - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) Studies examining the outcome of Romanian orphans that were adopted into families after the fall of communism in the 1980s provided what information?

Q2) How might the developmental course of myelination be related to the maturation of motor skills?

Q3) heterotopia ___

A)aborted cell migration of gray matter

B)absence of cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, and midbrain

C)failure to form sulci and gyri

D)single undifferentiated hemisphere

Q4) What are the effects of area TE lesions in monkeys on performance in the delayed nonmatching - to - sample task? What are the effects of medial temporal lobe lesions? Discuss the difference.

Q5) What are three ways to examine the relationship between neural function and behavioral changes in development? Make sure to mention potential advantages and/or disadvantages of each.

Q6) Why is cell death such an important part of the development of the brain?

Q7) Identify the five phases of synapse formation in the cerebral cortex of primates as proposed by Bourgeois.

Page 73

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Chapter 23: Extension: C - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) Why do the authors think that a fifth stage of cognitive development not identified by Piaget occurs in later adolescence?

A) the emergence of increased sexual activity at that time

B) the importance of modern forms of education

C) the presence of a brain-growth spurt at that time

D) the increased ability to learn a foreign language at that time

Q2) The Piaget stage of cognitive development, characterized by the ability to reason abstractly, is called the _____ stage and occurs around the age(s) of _____.

A) formal operational; 12

B) concrete operational; 12

C) formal operational; 7 to 11

D) concrete operational; 7 to 11

Q3) Which CANNOT be seen in rats after exposure to complex environments?

A) an increased density of glial cells

B) an increased length of dendrites

C) an increased size of synapses

D) a decreased density of glial cells

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Chapter 24: Extension: A - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) Although controversial, the stimulant Ritalin is widely used in the treatment of:

A) dyslexia.

B) autism.

C) cerebral palsy.

D) hyperactivity.

Q2) A less severe form of autism is termed:

A) savant syndrome.

B) Down's syndrome.

C) Asperger's syndrome.

D) hyperlexia.

Q3) According to Orton, dyslexia results from:

A) early brain trauma.

B) anatomical absence.

C) delayed function.

D) environmental deprivation.

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Chapter 24: Extension: B - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) Bradley and Bryant ___

A)sluggish attention shifting

B)deficiency in phonemic awareness

C)too rapid presentation of sounds

D)cerebral palsy

Q2) Tallal ___

A)sluggish attention shifting

B)deficiency in phonemic awareness

C)too rapid presentation of sounds

D)cerebral palsy

Q3) What are some early signs that a child may have an autism spectrum disorder?

Q4) hyperlexia ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q5) How is attention - deficit/hyperactivity disorder distinguished from other types of learning disabilities?

Q6) Distinguish between graphemic and phonological reading. Give an example of each.

Q7) Distinguish between cerebral palsy and hydrocephalus.

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Chapter 24: Extension: C - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) Asperger's syndrome is a milder form of _____.

A) hyperactivity

B) Down syndrome

C) autism

D) hyperlexia

Q2) Fragile - X syndrome involves a protein that affects a couple of different receptors. Which of the following treatments have proven some success in treatment of the social deficits in these patients?

A) dopamine agonists

B) glutamate agonists

C) cholinergic agonists

D) GABA agonists

Q3) _____ could account for why people with autism report that the sound of traffic is frighteningly loud and noxious.

A) Habituation failure

B) Explicit memory deficits

C) Hyperlexia

D) Emotional reactivity

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Chapter 25: Extension: A - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of

the Adult Brain

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Q1) The capacity for recovery following a stroke declines as the size of the stroke _____ and age _____.

A) increases; decreases

B) increases; increases

C) decreases; decreases

D) decreases; increases

Q2) After a series of higher - than - normal stimulations followed by a rest period, a baseline stimulation to a neuron elicits a greater excitatory postsynaptic potential from another neuron that receives its projections. This phenomenon is known as:

A) long-term potentiation.

B) kindling.

C) ischemia.

D) synaptogenesis.

Q3) Brain implants of fetal tissue are currently in experimental use for the treatment of: A) diffuse brain damage.

B) postencephalitic amnesia.

C) cerebral palsy.

D) Parkinson's disease.

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Chapter 25: Extension: B - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) The authors list four major therapeutic approaches to brain damage. What are they?

Q2) What is the relationship between age at time of brain injury and recovery? What is disheartening about Teuber's analysis of this relationship?

Q3) Jacobs et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q4) Elbert et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q5) What is the relationship between high intelligence and recovery from brain injury? Why might highly intelligent people complain more about the negative residual effects of brain injury?

Q6) What is the sequence of recovery (four stages) seen by Twitchell in braindamaged patients?

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Chapter 25: Extension: C - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) Overall, recovery from brain damage seems less likely if the patient is _____.

A) young

B) intelligent

C) optimistic

D) elderly

Q2) Which would be a case of complete recovery rather than compensation?

A) a patient with hemianopia who redirects his gaze so that visual stimuli fall in the unaffected part of his visual field

B) an infant whose language functions are lateralized to the right hemisphere, at a cost to right-hemisphere function

C) a cat that is able to regain prior levels of agility following the amputation of a leg

D) a posttrauma head-injury patient who no longer demonstrates sensitivity to bright lights, numbness of the body, or speech difficulty

Q3) Which factor decreases cell proliferation in hippocampal granule cells?

A) adrenalectomy

B) reduced daylight

C) running-wheel activity

D) adrenal steroids

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Chapter 26: Extension: A - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) What is a general term for about 45 percent of brain tumors that result from glial cells and infiltrate the brain substance?

A) meningioma

B) metastatic tumor

C) automatism

D) glioma

Q2) The MOST frequent cause(s) of cerebral hemorrhage is(are):

A) migraine attacks.

B) hypertension.

C) arteriosclerosis.

D) leukemia.

Q3) Meningitis is a type of:

A) bacterial infection.

B) mycotic infection.

C) parasitic infestation.

D) pantropic viral infection.

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Chapter 26: Extension: B - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) Describe the major types of vascular disorders that a practicing clinical neuropsychologist must know about.

Q2) tardive dyskinesia ___

A)slow, persistent movements

B)involuntary jerky movements

C)muscle tone absent

D)muscular rigidity

Q3) Define the following: glioma, meningioma, and glioblastoma. Discuss them in terms of malignancy.

Q4) cataplexy ___

A)unilateral section of spinal cord

B)not breathing during sleep

C)extensor plantar response

D)emotional excitement

Q5) angioma ___

A)abnormal blood vessels

B)accumulation of fluid

C)transient ischemia

D)blood trapped under skull

Q6) Distinguish among the following: sleep attacks, cataplexy, and sleep paralysis.

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Chapter 26: Extension: C - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) You are assessing the coma status of a patient who sustained a traumatic brain injury using the Glasgow Coma Scale. Which rating is indicative of a moderate injury?

A) less than 8

B) 9 to 12

C) 13 to 20

D) 13 to 18

Q2) Identify the sleep disorder that is characterized by various unpleasant sensations in the legs, including pain, crawling, tingling, and pulling.

A) central sleep apnea

B) Willis-Ekbom disease

C) cataplexy

D) sleep paralysis

Q3) A clot or other plug that is brought through the blood to a point where it blocks a smaller blood vessel is called an _____.

A) embolism

B) aneurysm

C) infarct

D) ischemia

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Chapter 27: Extension: A - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) The main neurotransmitter system implicated in schizophrenia is:

A) acetylcholine.

B) dopamine.

C) norepinephrine.

D) serotonin.

Q2) The Rey Complex - Figure Test is widely used by neuropsychologists. Of the following, which is MOST impaired in copying this figure?

A) patients with Tourette's syndrome

B) schizophrenics

C) Parkinson's patients

D) those with Alzheimer's disease

Q3) PET studies indicate that, over the course of antidepressant treatment, activity in the amygdala:

A) always decreases.

B) decreases only when treatment is effective.

C) always increases.

D) increases only when treatment is effective.

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Chapter 27: Extension: B - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Distinguish between type I and type II schizophrenia, according to the text.

Q2) What are the main anatomical correlates of Alzheimer's disease?

Q3) festination ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q4) amyloid plaques ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q5) Under what conditions would you favor psychosurgery for agitated schizophrenics?

Q6) Distinguish between Huntington's disease and Parkinson's disease in terms of the neurotransmitter abnormalities suspected to underlie the symptoms for each condition.

Q7) Cite the pharmacological evidence in support of a "dopamine theory" of schizophrenia.

Q8) According to the textbook, what three factors make the sensitization model of bipolar disorder intriguing for understanding bipolar disorder?

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Chapter 27: Extension: C - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Parkinson's disease is the result of the degeneration of the _____.

A) orbital frontal cortex

B) hippocampus

C) substantia nigra

D) premotor cortex

Q2) This former director of the U.S. National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) has suggested that the high levels of comorbidity and twin studies suggest clustering of fear - based anxiety disorders and depression.

A) Daniel Weinberger

B) Steven Hyman

C) David Lewis

D) Barbara Lipska

Q3) Which is TRUE regarding BDNF?

A) It is upregulated by antidepressant medication.

B) It is underregulated by stress hormones.

C) It disrupts networks involving parietal and medial temporal regions.

D) It decreases glutamate uptake sites in the cingulate cortex.

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Page 86

Chapter 28: Extension: A - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) Prior to the development of brain imaging tests such as MRI and PET, neuropsychologists relied primarily on _____ to provide information regarding localization of cerebral damage.

A) formal tests such as the Halstead-Wepman Aphasia Screening Test

B) behavioral tests

C) x-rays of the skull

D) cognitive assessments

Q2) The mean IQ score on the FSIQ is:

A)50.

B)80.

C)100.

D)120.

Q3) Undermanaged health care clinicians are often pressured to:

A) perform many unnecessary tests.

B) eliminate imaging techniques.

C) reduce the number of tests given.

D) reduce comorbidity of disorders.

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Chapter 28: Extension: B - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) academic skills ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q2) conceptual functions ___

A)Proteus Maze Test

B)Rey Complex-Figure Test

C)automobile puzzle

D)Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q3) memory ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q4) In the Boston Process Approach to neuropsychological testing, what tests are used to evaluate self - control and motor functions?

Q5) Why is postinjury intelligence testing not necessarily useful?

Q6) Identify four of the tests for language functions in the Boston Process Approach.

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Chapter 28: Extension: C - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) The emergence of _____ in the 1990s produced a dramatic change in the theoretical understanding of brain and cognition.

A) better cut-off scores

B) more sophisticated test batteries

C) cognitive neuroscience

D) problem-solving tests

Q2) Which is NOT a composite - type test?

A) Benton's neuropsychological investigation

B) Oxford neuropsychological procedures

C) Western Ontario procedures

D) the Luria-Nebraska Battery

Q3) The MOST sensitive measure of malingering is the _____.

A) Forced Choice Digit Memory Test

B) Wechsler Memory Scale III

C) Stroop Test

D) Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q4) Warrington and her colleagues found that lesions of the _____ hemisphere depress verbal IQs.

A) left

B) right

Page 89

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