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Neuropsychology explores the intricate relationships between brain function and behavior, delving into how various regions and networks within the nervous system contribute to cognitive processes, emotions, and actions. The course covers foundational neuroanatomy and neurophysiology, examines the effects of brain damage and neurological disorders on psychological functioning, and introduces key methods in neuropsychological assessment. Students will investigate case studies, theoretical models, and contemporary research, gaining an understanding of topics such as memory, language, perception, attention, executive functioning, and neurodevelopmental and neurodegenerative disorders. By linking biological mechanisms to behavioral outcomes, this course provides insights valuable for clinical practice, research, and further study in cognitive neuroscience.
Recommended Textbook
Discovering Biological Psychology 2nd Edition by Laura Freberg
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16 Chapters
2931 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The history of biological psychology is in many ways the history of technical advances.Which three technological advances do you think were the most significant and why?
Answer: Answer not provided
Q2) Which of the following made the Neuron Doctrine possible?
A) the light microscope and the use of stains in histology
B) the ability to apply electricity through wires
C) fewer restrictions on animal research
D) fewer restrictions on human dissection
Answer: A
Q3) Repeated transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS)appears to be a promising treatment for which of the following psychological disorders?
A) schizophrenia and depression
B) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and autism
C) autism and schizophrenia
D) depression and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amygdala participates in which of the following behaviors?
A) learning and memory
B) motor control
C) fear and aggression
D) regulation of hunger and thirst
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the cranial nerves do we use to produce facial expressions?
A) the trigeminal nerve (V)
B) the facial nerve (VII)
C) the trochlear nerve (IV)
D) The spinal accessory nerve (XI)
Answer: B
Q3) Among chordates,early brains have _________ than later developing brains.
A) larger cerebellums
B) more convoluted cortices
C) larger olfactory bulbs
D) smaller cerebellums and less convoluted cortices
Answer: D
Q4) What functions are primarily managed by the occipital lobe?
Answer: The occipital lobe is primarily involved with visual processing.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multipolar neurons have _______________leaving the cell body.
A) one branch
B) one axon and many dendrites
C) two processes
D) one dendrite and many axons
Answer: B
Q2) The major bulk of the neuron,containing the nucleus and other organelles,is known as the
A) axon.
B) dendrite.
C) cell body.
D) endfoot.
Answer: C
Q3) Synapses involving direct stimulation of adjacent cells without the use of special chemical messengers are known as _________ synapses.
A) electrical
B) chemical
C) joined.
D) adjacent
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The NMDA receptor,kainate receptor,and AMPA receptor all respond to A) serotonin.
B) epinephrine.
C) glutamate.
D) GABA.
Q2) Which of the following drugs is not associated with withdrawal symptoms?
A) heroin
B) nicotine
C) cocaine
D) caffeine
Q3) Drugs that interfere with the activity of a neurotransmitter are known as A) agonists.
B) antagonists.
C) facilitators.
D) enablers.
Q4) Describe the typical relationship between a drug's effects and the characteristics of its withdrawal syndrome,and provide one example of this.
Q5) Why do we need a set of criteria in order to identify a substance as a neurotransmitter?
Q6) What actions and effects do organophosphates have on the cholinergic synapse?
Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following accurately describes the attraction of bases between strands of DNA?
A) A pairs with T,and C pairs with G
B) A pairs with C,and T pairs with G
C) A pairs with G,and T pairs with C
D) A pairs with U,and T pairs with G
Q2) The interior of the neural tube will be retained in the adult brain as the A) forebrain.
B) ventricles and central canal.
C) hindbrain.
D) corpus callosum.
Q3) Twelve-year-old Heather has a smaller head circumference and less gray matter thickness than typical children of her same age,sex,and size.It is most likely that A) Heather's mother used alcohol and other drugs during her pregnancy.
B) Heather's mother has PKU.
C) Heather has PKU.
D) Heather has fragile X syndrome.
Q4) Describe the process of apoptosis.
Q5) What is spina bifida?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cell bodies of bipolar,amacrine,and horizontal cells are located in the _________ layer.
A) inner nuclear
B) outer nuclear
C) inner plexiform
D) outer plexiform
Q2) As they walked on the beach on a starry night,Louise complimented her friend Josh on the color of his new sweater.It is most likely that Louise
A) saw the sweater earlier under brighter light,because she would be unable to see its color in the dark.
B) might not like the color of the sweater as well when she sees it under brighter light,because color vision in the dark is more reddish.
C) can see the color of the sweater perfectly well,as color vision is excellent even in starlight conditions.
D) is possibly colorblind,resulting in her "seeing" a color that she shouldn't be able to see at night.
Q3) What is an orientation column?
Q4) What is the function of the cornea of the eye?
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the causes and symptoms of neglect syndrome?
Q2) A commonly used drug that can cause hearing loss is A) nicotine.
B) marijuana.
C) alcohol.
D) heroin.
Q3) Tonotopic organization is ineffective for sounds less than _________ Hz.
A) 10,000
B) 8,000
C) 5,000
D) 1,000
Q4) Otosclerosis may lead to hearing loss due to A) immobilization of the ossicles.
B) buildup of earwax in the ear canal.
C) infections of the middle ear.
D) damage to the tympanic membrane.
Q5) Each individual olfactory receptor cell responds to a single type of odorant molecule.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) The lungs are moved by _________ muscle.
A) smooth
B) cardiac
C) striated
D) both smooth and striated
Q2) Input from Ib sensory fibers
A) inhibits the activity of alpha motor neurons.
B) activates alpha motor neurons.
C) contracts muscle spindles.
D) contracts muscles.
Q3) A disorder produced by the degeneration of ACh receptors is known as A) myasthenia gravis.
B) muscular dystrophy.
C) Parkinson's disease.
D) Huntington's disease.
Q4) Complex plans for movement are correlated with increased activity in the pre-SMA.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the locations of primary motor cortex,SMA,and pre-SMA.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of genetics in obesity?
Q2) Genetic factors contribute to personality types that are more vulnerable to eating disorders,but do not produce the disorders directly.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The abnormalities associated with hyponatremia occur when
A) sodium levels are high,but extracellular fluid levels are low.
B) sodium levels are low,but extracellular fluid levels are high.
C) both sodium and extracellular fluid levels are low.
D) both sodium and extracellular fluid levels are high.
Q4) Nick is following the Atkins Diet,which allows dieters to consume lots of fats and proteins but very little carbohydrate.Consequently,it is likely that Nick will A) not lose any weight,as weight loss requires people to reduce the amount of fats consumed.
B) experience cognitive problems,as the brain will have insufficient glucose to function properly.
C) use ketones from fats to provide energy to their brains.
D) use amino acids from proteins to provide energy to their brains.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do some scientists believe that we are attracted to people with symmetrical faces and bodies?
Q2) Both the combination and progestin-only oral contraceptive pills probably prevent A) the maturation of follicles.
B) ovulation.
C) the thinning of cervical mucus.
D) the implantation of fertilized eggs in the uterus.
Q3) Children with 5-alpha-reductase deficiency are usually
A) raised as girls and they retain female identity at puberty.
B) raised as boys,but they take on female identity at puberty.
C) raised as girls,but they take on male identity at puberty.
D) raised as boys and they retain male identity at puberty.
Q4) At puberty,FSH and LH
A) stimulate the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
B) stimulate the release of additional testosterone by the testes and the release of estradiol by the ovaries.
C) inhibit the release of estradiol by the testes and testosterone by the ovaries.
D) inhibit the release of androgens by the testes and estradiol by the ovaries.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Melatonin is secreted by the A) superior colliculi.
B) suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN).
C) the pituitary gland.
D) the pineal gland.
Q2) Unless some type of pathology is present,the first segment of sleep is
A) always REM.
B) always NREM.
C) a mixture of REM and NREM.
D) a special state that cannot be characterized as either REM or NREM.
Q3) During an attack of cataplexy,the person
A) falls into a full NREM sleep episode.
B) falls into a full REM sleep episode.
C) experiences REM dreaming without paralysis.
D) is awake,but experiences REM paralysis.
Q4) What is "sleep debt" and how is it managed by the brain?
Q5) K-complexes are brief bursts of brain activity observed in the EEG of a person in Stage 2 NREM sleep.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) When Thomas was a little boy,his mother often gave him a piece of candy whenever she had to bandage up a scraped elbow or knee.Now that Thomas is in college,he struggles with his weight because every time he feels sad or lonely,he craves something sweet to eat.It is likely that for Thomas,eating candy now serves as a(n)
A) conditioned stimulus.
B) conditioned response.
C) unconditioned stimulus.
D) unconditioned response.
Q2) Following a traumatic experience,the hippocampus experiences a refractory period but the amygdala does not.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the changes in brain activity during the processing of memories that occur in old age.
Q4) Declarative memories include _________ memories.
A) procedural and sensory
B) episodic and semantic
C) procedural and episodic
D) semantic and sensory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following processes is not lateralized?
A) language
B) motor control in the left side of the body
C) sensation of the right visual field
D) blood pressure in the torso
Q2) Joseph Bogen severed which of the following pathways in his split-brain surgeries?
A) the fornix
B) the stria terminalis
C) the arcuate fasciculus
D) the corpus callosum
Q3) Global aphasia typically results from strokes affecting the _________ artery.
A) middle cerebral
B) carotid
C) anterior cerebral
D) posterior cerebral
Q4) What factors influence the development of lateralization in the human brain?
Q5) Summarize the language model proposed by Dronkers,Pinker,and Damasio.
Q6) Why do some researchers believe that a vulnerability to schizophrenia coincided with genetic changes that made human language possible?
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "fight or flight" was coined by
A) Paul Broca.
B) James Papez.
C) Walter Cannon.
D) Hans Selye.
Q2) Jennifer confronted her boyfriend about rumors that he was cheating on her with one of her friends.Because he maintained eye contact with her throughout their conversation and seemed sincere in his denial,Jennifer should conclude that
A) her boyfriend must be telling the truth,because maintaining eye contact is a good sign of honesty.
B) her boyfriend is obviously lying,as maintaining eye contact is a reliable sign of dishonesty.
C) her boyfriend may or may not be telling the truth,because eye contact might signify either honesty or dominance.
D) she should have paid more attention to his words than to his body language,as body language is easier to fake than verbal behavior.
Q3) Summarize the evidence for a genetic contribution to aggression.
Q4) Summarize the major components of an emotion.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Uncontrolled electrical disturbances in the brain accompanied by changes in consciousness are known as A) seizures.
B) tumors.
C) subdural hemotomas.
D) coma.
Q2) Post-concussive syndrome results from
A) damage to white matter,but not gray matter.
B) damage to gray matter,but not white matter.
C) damage to both gray and white matter.
D) damage to the ventricles.
Q3) A thrombosis is
A) a blockage resulting from material that doesn't move from its point of origin.
B) a blockage resulting from material that travels to smaller diameter blood vessels until it has to stop.
C) bleeding in the brain.
D) an area of dead neurons.
Q4) What is the relationship between chronic traumatic brain injury (CBTI)and the APOE gene?
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Q1) If a concordance rate for a disorder is found to be 60 percent in identical twins,what does this mean?
A) Genetics play little if any role in either twin's risk for the disorder.
B) The environment plays little if any role in either twin's risk for the disorder.
C) The probability of both twins being diagnosed with the disorder is about 60 percent.
D) If one twin is diagnosed with the disorder,the other twin has about a 60 percent chance of also being diagnosed with the disorder.
Q2) Which of the following correctly summarizes outcome studies of treatment for depression?
A) Medication is more effective than cognitive-behavioral therapy.
B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy is more effective than medication.
C) Neither medication nor cognitive-behavioral therapy appear effective.
D) A combination of cognitive-behavioral therapy and medication is usually most effective.
Q3) Discuss the correlations between brain activity and antisocial behavior.
Q4) Summarize the biochemical correlates of schizophrenia.
Q5) What is the effect of autism on brain development?
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