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Neuropsychology is an interdisciplinary field that explores the complex relationships between the brain, behavior, and cognitive processes. This course examines how injuries, diseases, and abnormalities of the nervous system impact emotions, cognition, and behavior, focusing on the neurological basis of functions such as memory, attention, language, and executive processes. Students will learn about neuroanatomy, neuroimaging techniques, clinical assessment tools, and case studies that illustrate the practical application of neuropsychological principles in diagnosis, rehabilitation, and research. The course also addresses current developments in neuroscience and ethical considerations in neuropsychological practice.
Recommended Textbook
Biopsychology 10th Edition by John P. J. Pinel
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Q1) A major shortcoming of case-study research is that
A) it is always done on sick people.
B) it cannot be applied to laboratory animals.
C) it is too general.
D) the degree to which the results can be generalized is unclear.
E) both A and B
Answer: D
Q2) The largest neural pathway that connects the left and right halves of the brain is called the __________.
Answer: corpus callosum
Q3) The comparison of brain-behavior relations in different species is called A) the comparative approach.
B) ethology.
C) biopsychology.
D) evolutionary biology.
E) none of the above
Answer: A
Q4) Delgado's claim of a caudate taming center should have been dismissed immediately because it violated __________.
Answer: Morgan's canon

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Q1) In many songbirds,the voice box or __________ is a double structure.
A) high vocal center
B) robust nucleus
C) syrinx
D) hypoglossal nucleus
E) archistriatum
Answer: C
Q2) Individuals with PKU normally have high levels of __________ in their urine unless they eat a phenylalanine-free diet.
Answer: phenylpyruvic acid
Q3) In most vertebrate species,mating is
A) monogamous.
B) promiscuous.
C) polygynous.
D) polyandrous.
E) asexual.
Answer: B
Q4) All body cells of a human normally contain __________ pairs of chromosomes. Answer: 23
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Q1) Draw a midsagittal section of the human brain and label 10 structures.
Answer: 50% for the drawing
50% for correctly labeling 10 structures
Q2) How many ventricles are there in the brain?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 2
E) 12
Answer: C
Q3) The reticular formation is in the core of the
A) mesencephalon.
B) myelencephalon.
C) metencephalon.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Answer: D
Q4) The temporal lobe is separated from the frontal lobe by the __________ fissure. Answer: lateral
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Sample Questions
Q1) By binding to nicotinic receptors,__________ produces paralysis and death,which is why it is used on poison darts.
Q2) Both presynaptic facilitation and inhibition are mediated by A) axoaxonic synapses.
B) axodendritic synapses.
C) dendrodendritic synapses.
D) axosomatic synapses.
E) both A and D
Q3) Glial cells have been shown to A) release chemical transmitters.
B) contain receptors for neurotransmitters.
C) conduct signals.
D) influence synaptic transmission.
E) all of the above
Q4) Parkinson's disease is treated with A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) acetylcholine.
D) norepinephrine.
E) L-dopa.

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Sample Questions
Q1) The brainbow technique
A) is an extension of the green fluorescent protein technique.
B) is a technique for labeling neurons in an animal different colors so that each can be traced.
C) has not yet been applied to neural tissue in multicellular animals.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q2) Before the 1950s,neuropsychological testing usually employed the
A) standardized-test-battery approach.
B) single-test approach.
C) customized-test-battery approach.
D) neurological approach.
E) psychophysical approach.
Q3) Reversible brain lesions,if properly done,
A) destroy only those neurons that have been cooled.
B) produce a discrete area of permanent damage.
C) destroy neurons by freezing them.
D) produce no permanent neural damage.
E) eliminate all neural activity in the brain for about 3 hours.
Q4) The SCL and SCR are both influenced by __________ glands.
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Q1) Most of the cones are concentrated in the
A) nasal hemiretinas.
B) temporal hemiretinas.
C) foveas.
D) periphery of the retinas.
E) blind spot.
Q2) Prior to migraine attacks,sufferers often experience
A) headaches.
B) fortification illusions.
C) indigestion.
D) amnesia.
E) agnosia.
Q3) The main function of color constancy is to ensure that
A) lights of the same wavelength appear to be the same color.
B) lights of different wavelengths appear to be different colors.
C) lights of the same wavelength appear to be the same color, regardless of their intensity.
D) an object appears to be the same color despite changes in the wavelengths of light that it is reflecting.
E) complementary colors always look complementary.
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Q1) Two major olfactory pathways leave the amygdala-piriform area.One projects diffusely to the limbic system; the other projects to the
A) medial dorsal nuclei of the thalamus and then to the orbitofrontal cortex.
B) hippocampus and caudate.
C) striatum and olfactory bulb.
D) olfactory bulb and SI.
E) basal forebrain and cingulate.
Q2) Resting on the auditory hair cells is the A) cochlea.
B) basilar membrane.
C) organ of Corti.
D) tectorial membrane.
E) auditory nerve.
Q3) The __________ system carries pain and temperature information from the body to the brain.
Q4) The organization of the auditory system is not retinotopic; it is __________.
Q5) Painful stimuli are also referred to as __________ stimuli.
Q6) An analgesia circuit descends into the spinal cord from the __________ gray.
Q7) Hearing loss is sometimes associated with __________ (ringing of the ears).
Q8) Primary __________ cortex is in the postcentral gyrus.
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Q1) The number of motor neurons in a motor unit is __________.
Q2) The motor units of the thumb,fingers,and face contain the A) fewest muscle fibers.
B) most muscle fibers.
C) fewest motor neurons.
D) most motor neurons.
E) most extensors.
Q3) The area of association cortex that is thought to integrate the spatial information that is required to initiate an accurate movement is the __________ cortex.
Q4) In contrast to the descending dorsolateral motor pathways,the ventromedial pathways
A) control the trunk.
B) are more diffuse.
C) are more strictly contralateral.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
Q5) Muscle contraction in the absence of movement is called __________ contraction.
Q6) Contralateral neglect typically results from damage to the __________ posterior parietal lobe.
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Q1) Aggregation of neurons is thought to be mediated by __________ molecules.
Q2) The case of Genie emphasizes the role of A) the brain in behavior.
B) experience in human neural and psychological development.
C) the brain in language.
D) language in learning.
E) neuroplasticity in development.
Q3) Several studies have shown that early music training increases the size of the A) auditory cortex that responds to complex musical tones.
B) right hemisphere.
C) auditory cortex that responds to pure tones.
D) brain.
E) auditory cortex.
Q4) Describe and discuss the research on adult neurogenesis.Describe both early and current research.
Q5) Autism spectrum disorder (ASD)has been linked to differences in the responses of the fusiform __________ area to the presentation of faces.
Q6) Early experience and the resulting changes in neural activity are said to ___________ subsequent stages of normal neurodevelopment.
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Q1) Huntington's disease is caused by
A) a single dominant gene.
B) a neurotoxin.
C) an infection.
D) a single recessive gene.
E) a decline in dopamine.
Q2) Chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE)typically results from the cumulative effects of many minor
A) contusions.
B) blows to the head.
C) infarcts.
D) aneurysms.
E) embolisms.
Q3) The general syndrome of mental illness and dementia associated with syphilis is called general __________.
Q4) Compare and contrast Parkinson's disease and Huntington's disease.
Q5) There has been interest in the possibility of treating __________ disease with fetal substantia nigra implants.
Q6) __________ mice are mice into which the genes of another species have been introduced.
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Q1) The identification of basal forebrain degeneration in Alzheimer's disease implicated A) the hippocampus in memory.
B) cholinergic neurons in memory.
C) the amygdala in memory.
D) serotonin in memory.
E) dopamine in memory.
Q2) The induction of LTP at glutaminergic synapses appears to require
A) the depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron.
B) the depolarization of the presynaptic neuron.
C) an influx of calcium ions into the postsynaptic neuron.
D) both B and C
E) both A and C
Q3) The delayed nonmatching-to-sample test is a good measure of __________ long-term object-recognition memory in both rats and monkeys.
Q4) Medial temporal lobe epileptics often have good explicit long-term memories for __________ information.
Q5) The human medial temporal lobe includes the hippocampus,the __________,and the medial temporal cortex.
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Q1) Describe the three phases of energy metabolism,their function,and their regulation by pancreatic hormones.
Q2) Demonstrations that small amounts of food increase hunger are referred to as the __________ effect.
Q3) Which of the following produces a substantial increase in the caloric intake of laboratory rats and a significant increase in their body weight?
A) removing thiamine from their usual laboratory chow
B) adding thiamine to their usual laboratory chow
C) offering them a cafeteria diet, rather than their usual single-chow laboratory diet
D) sham feeding them
E) both C and D
Q4) Describe two explanations for why we get hungry at our regular meal times.Discuss relevant evidence.Which of the two explanations does the evidence support?
Q5) Compare set-point and positive-incentive theories of hunger and eating.Compare their ability to predict two major research findings.
Q6) In nature,__________ tastes are often associated with toxins.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) No sperm cells have Y chromosomes.
B) All sperm cells have Y chromosomes.
C) All sperm cells have X chromosomes.
D) No sperm cells have X chromosomes.
E) none of the above is true
Q2) All of the sex steroids that are released by the gonads are also released by the A) sweat glands.
B) adrenal cortex.
C) pituitary.
D) anterior pituitary.
E) adrenal medulla.
Q3) Genetic male transsexuals are almost always
A) bisexual.
B) sexually attracted to males.
C) sexually attracted to females.
D) not sexually attracted to males or females.
E) none of the above
Q4) In some species,testosterone is thought to be converted to estradiol,which then masculinizes the brain.This is called the __________ hypothesis.
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Q1) The association of REM sleep and dreaming was discovered in the early 1950s in the laboratory of
A) Siegel.
B) Kleitman.
C) Mistlberger.
D) Meddis.
E) Freud.
Q2) Which of the following can entrain the circadian sleep-wake cycles of hamsters living under constant lighting conditions?
A) regular daily bouts of social interaction
B) regular daily meals
C) regular daily bouts of exercise
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Cataplexy is common in cases of
A) narcolepsy.
B) insomnia.
C) anxiety.
D) pseudoinsomnia.
E) nocturnal myoclonus.
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Q1) __________ disease is a condition experienced by tobacco users; it is associated with the constriction of the blood vessels of the periphery,particularly the feet.
Q2) If you wanted to conduct a study to determine whether rats find a particular drug pleasurable,the conditioned place-__________ paradigm would be one good test to use.
Q3) According to the incentive-sensitization theory of drug addiction,as a drug-addicted habitually consumes the drug,the
A) positive-incentive value of taking the drug increases.
B) hedonic value of taking the drug decreases.
C) positive-incentive value of taking the drug decreases.
D) both A and B
E) both B and C
Q4) Convulsions can be triggered by the sudden withdrawal of this widely used drug of abuse: __________.
Q5) Rats will press a lever to administer electrical brain stimulation to sites in their own brains.This phenomenon is called intracranial __________.
Q6) Drug tolerance can be defined as a shift in the dose-response curve to the __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) During language tests,PET and fMRI typically reveal greater activity in A) aphasics.
B) dyslexics.
C) the left hemisphere.
D) the right hemisphere.
E) women.
Q2) According to the text,the independence of the hemispheres of split-brain patients tends to be overestimated because
A) most published discussions of split-brain patient's focus on those cases in which independence is relatively complete.
B) few studies have focused on emotional information, which is more readily transferred between separated hemispheres.
C) most studies of split-brain patients have used simple tests, which are readily performed by one isolated hemisphere.
D) all of the above
E) most split-brain patients are right-handed.
Q3) What proportion of patients with damage restricted to Broca's area display pure Broca's aphasia? Approximately ____%.
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Q1) In the short-term,stressors produce physiological changes that A) are maladaptive.
B) disrupt the ability to deal effectively with the stressor.
C) increase the ability to deal effectively with the stressor.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
Q2) Here is a summary of the two-system view of the stress response.Which label is missing?
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) parasympathetic nervous system
C) limbic system
D) amygdala
E) medial prefrontal cortex
Q3) Charles Whitman,the Texas Tower sniper,had a tumor in his A) hippocampus.
B) amygdala.
C) prefrontal cortex.
D) cingulate cortex.
E) limbic system.
Q4) Unlike false smiles,Duchenne smiles always involve the __________ muscles.
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Q1) Imipramine is a
A) tricyclic antidepressant.
B) MOA inhibitor.
C) phenothiazine.
D) butyrophenone.
E) serotonin antagonist.
Q2) Clinical trials are typically conducted in __________ separate phases.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
E) 10
Q3) Tics are the primary symptom of A) Parkinson's disease.
B) Tourette's disorder.
C) multiple sclerosis.
D) epilepsy.
E) schizophrenia.
Q4) Typical antipsychotic drugs,which are ________ receptor blockers,are commonly used in the treatment of Tourette's disorder.
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