Networking Fundamentals Exam
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Course Introduction
Networking Fundamentals introduces the basic concepts, technologies, and protocols that form the foundation of modern computer networks. This course covers key topics such as network topologies, OSI and TCP/IP models, data transmission methods, addressing and subnetting, Ethernet standards, wireless networking, and essential network hardware. Students will also gain practical knowledge in configuring and troubleshooting local area networks (LANs), as well as understanding how networks connect to form wide area networks (WANs) and the Internet. Emphasis is placed on both theoretical principles and hands-on activities to build a strong understanding of how data is exchanged, managed, and secured across networked systems.
Recommended Textbook Guide to Networking Essentials 6th Edition by Greg Tomsho
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13 Chapters
529 Verified Questions
529 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Computer Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are building a gaming computer and you want to install a dedicated graphics card that has a fast GPU and 1GB of memory onboard. You need to make sure that you have the right connector available on your motherboard. What type of connector would be appropriate?
A) PCI
B) SATA
C) PCI-Express
D) IDE
Answer: C
Q2) The three basic functions of a computer are input, ____________, and output. Answer: processing
Q3) What is the difference between a client operating system and a server operating system?
Answer: A client operating system is designed mainly to run user applications like a word processor or spreadsheet program and to access network resources like file servers or the Internet. A server operating system is designed to provide clients with access to network resources such as directory services, shared files, and e-mail.
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Chapter 2: Network Hardware Essentials
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does it usually mean when the activity light on a switch is blinking?
A) It is malfunctioning.
B) It is ready to receive data.
C) It is communicating with the network.
D) A collision is imminent.
Answer: C
Q2) Why is the use of a switch preferred over a hub?
A) Devices on a hub have to share the available bandwidth.
B) Switches are intelligent; they read the frame and determine where to send it.
C) Switches can operate in full-duplex mode.
D) All of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) Why is the NIC considered the "gatekeeper"?
Answer: the NIC's responsibility is to examine every frame that is received and either allow it access to the computer or reject it. In order for the frame to be accepted, the destination MAC address must match the NIC's MAC address, or it is refused. there are two exceptions to this rule. If the destination MAC address is a broadcast, then the NIC accepts it. If the NIC is put in promiscuous mode, then it will accept all frames.
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Chapter 3: Network Topologies and Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a component of an Ethernet frame header?
A) 6-byte destination MAC address field
B) 6-byte source MAC address field
C) 2-byte type field
D) 4-byte frame check sequence
Answer: D
Q2) A network's logical topology often depends on the central device's electronics. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What are the advantages and disadvantages of a physical star topology?
Answer: A physical star is the easiest topology to setup and expand. You are only limited by your available ports. You can easily expand the number of ports by adding yet another device and forming an extended star. the centralized design makes monitoring and managing network traffic easier. With a bus, the bandwidth is limited to 10Mbps and half-duplex mode. A star can operate at much higher speeds and, if a switch is used, is capable of operating in full-duplex mode. there is only one main disadvantage-that is that the central device represents a single point of failure. One other small disadvantage is that it takes more cable to implement a star than it does a bus.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Network Media
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because fiber-optic cabling uses light pulses instead of electrical signals, it is immune to interference and highly resistant to eavesdropping.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most office buildings usually have a false ceiling with an area above that which is used to run conduit for heating and air conditioning units, called the ____________.
Q3) What are the advantages to using UTP in a network installation?
Q4) A network that uses the air to transmit signals across the network is considered a(an) ____________ network.
Q5) What five issues should you consider when determining the structure for a new network?
Q6) Wireless and wired networks are both susceptible to RFI. A)True
B)False
Q7) Why is copper cabling susceptible to eavesdropping?
Q8) What is a transceiver and what is its function?
Q9) What is the difference between a straight-through cable and a crossover cable?
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Q10) When would you use a straight-through cable and when would you use a crossover?
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Chapter 5: Network Protocols
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does TCP provide flow control and reliability?
Q2) How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
A) 32
B) 48
C) 64
D) 128
Q3) An IP address consists of four octets separated by periods. Which part of this address denotes its class?
A) first octet
B) second octet
C) third octet
D) fourth octet
Q4) Which part of a computer's IP address configuration indicates the portion of the address that specifies the network ID?
A) IP address
B) subnet mask
C) default gateway
D) MAC address
Q5) A range of addresses is reserved for private addressing in each class. What are those ranges?
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Chapter 6: Network Reference Models and Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name the PDU at each layer of the OSI model.
Q2) The Transport layer is the same in both the OSI model and the TCP/IP model.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for encryption and decryption?
A) Application
B) Presentation
C) Session
D) Transport
Q4) In regards to the OSI Reference Model, what is peer communication?
Q5) What does the Transport layer use to make sure that a message is reassembled correctly on the receiving device?
A) source port number
B) window Size
C) destination port number
D) sequence number
Q6) What are the benefits to using a layered approach?
Q7) How does window size provide flow control?
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Q8) The ____________ layer is the bottom layer, whose job it is to convert bits into signals and vice versa.
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Chapter 7: Network Hardware in Depth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should you change the SSID on your wireless router?
Q2) On a router configured to use RIP, the number of routers a packet must travel between before it reaches its destination is called what? (Choose all that apply.)
A) metric
B) hop count
C) timestamp
D) aging time
Q3) What are the three ways that a router can populate its routing table?
Q4) Which of the following is the switching protocol that is used to eliminate the possibility of switching loops?
A) RIP
B) SNMP
C) NTP
D) STP
Q5) Briefly describe the three types of switching methods.
Q6) Communications through a router are noticeably faster than communications through a switch.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Network Operating System Fundamentals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Windows Server 2008 R2 can be installed only on a 64-bit system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the process called that grants or denies a user's access to network resources?
A) authentication
B) acceptance
C) authorization
D) admission
Q3) How do you map a shared folder using the command prompt?
Q4) In Windows, you can start the Task Manager by simply right-clicking the taskbar and choosing Start Task Manager.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What storage solution involves a third-party company that provides off-site hosting of data?
A) network-attached storage
B) cloud-based storage
C) network accessed appliance
D) storage area network
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Chapter 9: Server Management and Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you right-click unallocated space on a basic disk, why is the only available option a simple volume?
Q2) Employees in the Sales department need to be able to access the sales share on the file server. They will need to have the ability to create files, read them, and make corrections or additions. Which of the following share permissions should the group be given?
A) change
B) read
C) modify
D) full control
Q3) What is RAID level 1 also called?
A) disk striping
B) disk mirroring
C) disk striping with parity
D) disk parity
Q4) What is a server cluster? What are the two most common types?
Q5) To what does a print device refer?
Q6) What is the difference between a standby UPS and an online UPS?
Q7) What types of devices are considered to be locally attached storage?
Q8) Explain what the following entry means: - rwx rw- r-- john sales accounts
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Chapter 10: Introduction to Network Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the purpose of a protocol analyzer and how an attacker could use one to compromise your network.
Q2) How the network resources are to be used should be clearly defined in a (an) ____________ policy.
Q3) The ultimate goal of network security is to protect which of the following?
A) the customers who use the system
B) the organization and its employees
C) business partners who access the network
D) all of the above
Q4) If the minimum password length on a Windows system is set to zero, what does that mean?
A) The user never has to change the password.
B) The user can use a blank password.
C) The user has to change the password every day.
D) The user account is disabled.
Q5) You don't need to physically secure your servers as long as you use a good strong password for your accounts.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How should a room that is going to house your servers be equipped?
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Chapter 11: Supporting a Small Business Network
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a HomeGroup?
Q2) For a computer to connect to a HomeGroup, it must have certain features enabled or configured correctly. Which of the following is not necessary to join a HomeGroup?
A) IPv6 Protocol
B) Network Discovery
C) Network Configuration
D) DHCP
Q3) What is CRM software?
A) software that maintains accounting records for a small business
B) software that maintains a database of employee records including payroll and taxes
C) software that is used to keep track of customer information, including contact information and appointments
D) software that is used to allow a number of employees to contribute and share data easily in a small network
Q4) Briefly describe the connection when using client-to-gateway VPN mode.
Q5) What is Windows Small Business Server?
Q6) What is a EULA?
Q7) What is the purpose of CRM software?
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Network Essentials
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Sample Questions
Q1) A router is considered to be a CSU/DSU.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the difference between the two types of virtual circuits?
Q3) What is multiplexing, and where is it used?
Q4) Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) supports both IPv4 and IPv6, as well as other network layer protocols.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which cloud computing category allows a company to quickly provision additional disk space?
A) hosted development
B) hosted applications
C) hosted platforms
D) hosted infrastructure
Q6) Link Control Protocol is responsible for the setup of a PPP connection, as well as the termination of a connection when it has ended.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Troubleshooting and Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) To eliminate the potential problems caused by power fluctuations, especially on servers, you can install _________________
Q2) When would you use the Last Known Good Configuration option? What does this do?
Q3) What kind of software would you use to view and troubleshoot protocol specific problems such as TCP retries caused by missed acknowledgements, or duplicate acknowledgements that cause network slow-down?
A) protocol analyzer
B) management information base
C) software agents
D) Simple Network Management Protocol
Q4) When devising a solution, you should consider what kind of undesirable results the proposed solution might have. What can you create to reverse your changes if the proposed solution does not succeed?
Q5) Describe the trial-and-error method of troubleshooting and when it should and shouldn't be used.
Q6) What is the difference between an incremental and a differential backup?
Q7) What should be done prior to installing upgrades in a live production environment?
Q8) What does the nslookup utility do?
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