Networking Essentials
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Networking Essentials provides a foundational understanding of computer networking concepts, technologies, and practices. The course covers key topics such as network topologies, protocols, hardware components, and the OSI and TCP/IP models. Students will learn about IP addressing, subnetting, wireless and wired communication, as well as concepts of network security and troubleshooting. Through hands-on labs and real-world examples, this course prepares students to design, implement, and maintain basic network infrastructures in both home and small business environments.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the differences between the POP3 and IMAP4 protocols?
Answer: Using the POP3 (Post Office Protocol, version 3), email is downloaded to the client computer. When using IMAP4 however, the client application manages the email while it's stored on the server.
Q2) The proper handling procedures for substances such as chemical solvents is typically outlined in which of the following options?
A) Toxic Chemical Safety Procedure (TCSP)
B) Dangerous and Hazardous Waste Disposal Sheet (DHWDS)
C) Environmental Chemical Hazard Sheet (ECHS)
D) Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Answer: D
Q3) Servers that have a NOS installed require less memory, processing power, and storage capacity than clients because servers are called on to handle only light processing loads and requests from multiple clients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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3
Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When creating network diagrams, what icon description typically represents a network router?
A) An icon that has a hockey-puck shape with two arrows pointing inward and two arrows pointing outward.
B) An icon that resembles a brick wall.
C) An icon that is rectangular in shape, with squiggly lines on the front.
D) An icon that is rectangular, which contains four arrows pointing in opposite directions.
Answer: A
Q2) What statement regarding main distribution frame or main distribution facilities is accurate?
A) The MDF and entrance facility are always in separate rooms.
B) The MDF refers to the racks holding network equipment in an organization.
C) The MDF provides intermediate connection between the IDF and end-user equipment on each floor.
D) The MDF is the centralized point of interconnection for an organization's LAN or WAN.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) With a FQDN of ftp1.dallas.mycompany.com, what part is the domain name?
A) ftp1
B) ftp1.dallas
C) ftp1.dallas.mycompany.
D) mycompany.com
Answer: D
Q2) You are troubleshooting a network issue on a client computer and discover that the network card has an IP address of 169.254.196.200. What does this mean?
A) The computer has been assigned a routed public IP address.
B) The network card has been erroneously assigned a loopback address.
C) The computer is configured to use DHCP, but was unable to lease an address.
D) The network card is set up for multicast communication.
Answer: C
Q3) What is the ARPA domain suffix utilized for?
A) It is a specialized government restricted TLD.
B) It is used to announce records for other TLDs such as .com and .net.
C) It is a private TLD used for synchronization of zones between servers.
D) It is used for reverse DNS queries, and holds PTR records.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CTRL + S key combination can be used to stop an actively running command.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What field in an IPv4 packet informs routers the level of precedence they should apply when processing an incoming packet?
A) Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
B) Internet header length (IHL)
C) Time to Live (TTL)
D) Padding
Q3) Originally codified by ISO, what does the "intermediate system" in IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) stand for?
A) The autonomous systems used by an organization.
B) An entire network consisting of various network devices.
C) The administrative boundaries of an organization.
D) An IS-IS capable network router.
Q4) IP is an unreliable, connectionless protocol, as it does not establish a session to send its packets.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) RG-59 is more expensive than RG-6, but has better resistance to attenuation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A short circuit is one where needed connections are missing, such as when a wire breaks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Noise can degrade or distort a signal on a network; what are some of its causes?
Q4) When tracing a wire, how do you utilize a toner and probe kit?
Q5) Why should you terminate coaxial cable with connectors that are rated for the exact cable type?
A) A mismatched connector will have different impedance ratings, causing data errors.
B) A mismatched connector will not fit the coaxial cable for termination.
C) A mismatched connector will work fine, but breaks cabling standards.
D) A mismatched connector will destroy the equipment it is connected to.
Q6) What is the biggest limiting factor on fiber-optic cable length?
Q7) What is the difference between single mode fiber and multimode fiber, and how do they compare?
Q8) What is the difference between bandwidth and throughput?
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which 802.11 frame type is related to medium access and data delivery, and includes ACK and RTS/CTS frames?
A) management frames
B) control frames
C) data frames
D) extended frames
Q2) In an 802.11 data frame, what is the size of the frame check sequence field?
A) 2 bytes
B) 4 bytes
C) 6 bytes
D) 8 bytes
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding the 802.11ac standard is NOT accurate?
A) The standard was officially approved in early 2014.
B) 802.11ac access points function more like a hub than a switch.
C) 802.11ac access points can handle multiple transmissions at one time over the same frequency.
D) 802.11ac operates on the 5-GHz band.
Q4) What is the hidden node problem, and how can it be mitigated?
Q5) What are some of the different types of wireless topologies that can be created?
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digital certificates are issued, maintained, and validated by an organization called a certificate authority (CA).
A)True
B)False
Q2) When using public and private keys to connect to an SSH server from a Linux device, where must your public key be placed before you can connect?
A) In an authorization file under your home directory on your computer.
B) In an authorization file on the host where the SSH server is.
C) In the /etc/ssh/keys folder.
D) In the /var/run/ssh/public folder.
Q3) A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model?
A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 4
D) Layer 7
Q4) What two different types of encryption can be utilized with IPsec?
Q5) What is the difference between a virtual firewall and a software firewall?
Q6) What are some of the features that all cloud services usually have in common?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subtracting an interesting octet value from 256 yields what number?
A) network ID
B) subnet ID
C) magic number
D) host ID
Q2) How large is the 802.1Q tag that is added to an Ethernet frame when using VLANs?
A) 4 bytes
B) 8 bytes
C) 12 bytes
D) 20 bytes
Q3) A native VLAN mismatch occurs when two access ports that are connected to each other are both tagging traffic with different VLAN IDs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All that is needed to provide communication between two VLANs is a DHCP relay agent.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do unmanaged switches and managed switches differ from each other?
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Q6) What is a Variable Length Subnet Mask (VLSM), and how is it created?
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) An RFID label on a box is an example of what type of physical security detection method?
A) motion detection technology
B) video surveillance via CCTV
C) tamper detection
D) asset tracking tagging
Q2) What statement regarding denial-of-service (DoS) attacks is accurate?
A) A denial-of-service attack occurs when a MAC address is impersonated on the network.
B) A denial-of-service attack prevents legitimate users from accessing normal network resources.
C) A denial-of-service attack is generally a result of a disgruntled employee.
D) A denial-of-service attack is no longer a major concern due to the increased throughput available on most networks.
Q3) The original version of the Secure Hash Algorithm was developed by MIT.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How is motion detection technology used to monitor and provide security for sensitive areas, and how can it deal with false positives?
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which legacy authentication protocol requires mutual authentication?
A) Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
B) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
C) Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAP)
D) Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, version 2 (MS-CHAPv2)
Q2) What kind of firewall can block designated types of traffic based on application data contained within packets?
A) stateful firewall
B) stateless firewall
C) content-filtering firewall
D) packet-filtering firewall
Q3) In order to prevent ports that are serving network hosts from being considered as best paths, what should be enabled to block BPDUs?
A) BPDU filter
B) BPDU guard
C) root guard
D) BPDU drop
Q4) How does the Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) function?
Q5) How does a reverse proxy differ from a normal proxy?
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A differential backup covers what data on a system?
A) It includes all data every time it is performed.
B) It includes only data that has changed since the last backup.
C) It includes data that has changed since the last full backup.
D) It includes data that has changed since the last incremental backup.
Q2) In preparing and planning for disaster recovery, what is the difference between an incident and a disaster?
Q3) Wireshark or any other monitoring software running on a single computer connected to a switch doesn't see all the traffic on a network, but only the traffic the switch sends to it, which includes broadcast traffic and traffic specifically addressed to the computer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When viewing a syslog message, what does a level of 0 indicate?
A) The message is an error condition on the system.
B) The message is a warning condition on the system.
C) The message is an emergency situation on the system.
D) The message represents debug information.
Q5) How do the three versions of the Simple Network Management Protocol differ?
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Q6) What is the difference between a fault and a failure in relation to networking?
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of all the DSL standards, which is the most commonly in use today?
A) ADSL
B) VDSL
C) SDSL
D) G.Lite
Q2) In metro settings, end-to-end, carrier-grade Ethernet networks can be established via what protocol?
A) Metro Carrier Transport
B) Carrier Ethernet Transport
C) Intra-city Ethernet
D) Ethernet SONET
Q3) DSL signals travel over telephone lines using the 300 to 3300 Hz frequency range.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the maximum throughput of a DS3 connection?
A) 1.544 Mbps
B) 3.152 Mbps
C) 44.736 Mbps
D) 274.176 Mbps
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