Networking Concepts Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Networking Concepts provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of computer networking, including the architecture, protocols, and operations that enable devices to communicate across local and global networks. The course covers topics such as the OSI and TCP/IP models, transmission media, network devices (like routers and switches), addressing schemes, wireless and wired technologies, and an overview of security practices. Students will learn how data is transferred between systems, how networks are structured and managed, and the basics of troubleshooting connectivity issues. This foundational knowledge prepares students for further study in network administration, cybersecurity, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Data Link Layer utilizes what name for its protocol data unit (PDU)?
A) packet
B) data
C) bit
D) frame
Answer: D
Q2) Describe how the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) differ from each other, and provide examples of where each might be used.
Answer: The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) makes a connection with the end host, checks whether the data is received, and resends it if it is not. TCP is, therefore, called a connection-oriented protocol. TCP is used by applications such as Web browsers and email. Guaranteed delivery takes longer and is used when it is important to know that the data reached its destination. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) does not guarantee delivery by first connecting and checking whether data is received; thus, UDP is called a connectionless protocol or best-effort protocol. UDP is used for broadcasting, such as streaming video or audio over the Web, where guaranteed delivery is not as important as fast transmission. UDP is also used to monitor network traffic.
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Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 66 block is more suitable for data connections than the older 110 block.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Your company is setting itself up to distribute software made by another company. What type of document should your company procure from the developing company?
A) master service agreement
B) master license agreement
C) service-level agreement
D) memorandum of understanding
Answer: B
Q3) What type of tool would you utilize to terminate twisted pair wire on a 66 or 110 block?
A) wire crimper tool
B) block trimmer tool
C) wire cinching tool
D) punchdown tool
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are the Class D and Class E IPv4 address ranges not available for general use?
Answer: Class D addresses begin with octets 224 through 239 and are used for multicast transmissions, in which one host sends messages to multiple hosts. An example of this is when a host transmits a videoconference over the Internet to multiple participants. Class E addresses, which begin with 240 through 254, are reserved for research.
Q2) A Windows computer on your network is having issues resolving queries for a specific domain, but not other domains. Other computers on the same network resolve the name just fine. What command can you issue that might fix the problem?
A) ipconfig /renew
B) ipconfig /release
C) ipconfig /flushdns
D) ipconfig /refresh
Answer: C
Q3) ICANN is responsible for restrictions on use of the .com, .org, and .net TLDs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, a Layer 3 or Layer 4 switch is still optimized for fast Layer 2 data handling.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which traceroute command will perform a trace using ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams to the host srv1.mycompany.com?
A) traceroute -i srv1.mycompany.com
B) traceroute -w srv1.mycompany.com
C) traceroute -o ICMP srv1.mycompany.com
D) traceroute -I srv1.mycompany.com
Q3) TCP uses a four-step process called a four-way handshake to establish a TCP connection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The IP connectionless protocol relies on what other protocol to guarantee delivery of data?
A) UDP
B) ICMP
C) TCP
D) ARP
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) When viewing the pinout for T568B, what is the correct order of wire colors, starting at pin 1?
A) white/green, green, white/orange, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown
B) blue, white/blue, green, white/green, orange, white/orange, brown, white/brown
C) white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown
D) white/brown, brown, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, orange, white/orange
Q2) A short circuit is one where needed connections are missing, such as when a wire breaks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The 1000Base-LX utilizes light with what wavelength?
A) 850 nanometers
B) 1200 nanometers
C) 1300 nanometers
D) 1550 nanometers
Q4) What is the difference between bandwidth and throughput?
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Q1) What are some of the different types of wireless topologies that can be created?
Q2) In an 802.11 data frame, what is the size of the frame check sequence field?
A) 2 bytes
B) 4 bytes
C) 6 bytes
D) 8 bytes
Q3) When deciding antenna types, why might the use of an omnidirectional antenna be inadvisable?
Q4) Most wireless devices use one of two technologies to avoid interference. What are these technologies?
Q5) The Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN) is defined in the 802.15 standard.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which 802.11 frame type is related to medium access and data delivery, and includes ACK and RTS/CTS frames?
A) management frames
B) control frames
C) data frames
D) extended frames
Q7) Why should the WPS PIN feature be avoided if possible?
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Q1) The HTTPS (HTTP Secure) protocol utilizes the same TCP port as HTTP, port 80.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Digital certificates are issued, maintained, and validated by an organization called a certificate authority (CA).
A)True
B)False
Q3) What open-source VPN protocol utilizes OpenSSL for encryption and has the ability to possibly cross firewalls where IPsec might be blocked?
A) Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
B) Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
C) Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)
D) OpenVPN
Q4) A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model?
A) Layer 1
B) Layer 2
C) Layer 4
D) Layer 7
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Q1) What are some common configuration errors that can occur when configuring VLANs?
Q2) What are some of the different reasons to use VLANs?
Q3) Subtracting an interesting octet value from 256 yields what number?
A) network ID
B) subnet ID
C) magic number
D) host ID
Q4) What command will set the native VLAN on a Juniper switch port?
A) switchport trunk native vlan
B) switchport set native vlan
C) config native vlan
D) set native-vlan-id
Q5) Network segmentation at Layer 2 of the OSI model is accomplished using VLANs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When dealing with a Cisco switch, what is NOT one of the pre-established VLANs?
A) VLAN 1
B) VLAN 1001
C) VLAN 1003
D) VLAN 1005
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is an acceptable use policy typically used?
Q2) What statement regarding the different versions of the SHA hashing algorithm is accurate?
A) SHA-0 is the most secure version of SHA.
B) SHA-1 supports a 128-bit hash function.
C) SHA-2 only supports a 256-bit hash.
D) SHA-2 and SHA-3 both support the same hash lengths.
Q3) It is ideal to use the same password for multiple different applications, provided the password is complex enough.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and describe the four different locations in which anti-malware can be installed.
Q5) How often should you require users to change their passwords?
A) every 30 days
B) every 60 days
C) every 90 days
D) every 120 days
Q6) Why might an organization be required to undergo a security audit?
Q7) What is hashing, and how does it differ from encryption?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Q1) The Group Policy utility can be opened by typing what name into a Run box?
A) secpol.msc
B) gpedit.msc
C) grouppol.msc
D) grppol.msc
Q2) The Wired Equivalent Privacy standard had what significant disadvantage?
A) It did not allow the use of a password for access to the network.
B) It provided no encryption for traffic sent over the air.
C) It used a shared encryption key for all clients, and the key might never change.
D) It only encrypted the initial connection authentication, but did not encrypt subsequent traffic.
Q3) What IEEE standard includes an encryption key generation and management scheme known as TKIP?
A) 802.11i
B) 802.11h
C) 802.1X
D) 802.11j
Q4) How does a reverse proxy differ from a normal proxy?
Q5) Describe the TACACS+ AAA protocol, and detail how it differs from RADIUS.
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Q1) How does a line conditioning UPS protect network equipment?
A) It protects against electrical surges.
B) It shields equipment from lightning damage.
C) It reduces fluctuations in incoming voltage.
D) It filters line noise from incoming power.
Q2) In preparing and planning for disaster recovery, what is the difference between an incident and a disaster?
Q3) If you wish to maintain a "4 nines" availability rating, what is the maximum amount of down time you can have per day?
A) .4 seconds
B) 8 seconds
C) 1 minute, 26 seconds
D) 14 minutes, 23 seconds
Q4) The SNMP version 3 protocol introduces authentication, validation, and encryption for messages exchanged between devices and the network management console.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) can be configured in what three different ways?
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Q1) In a public switched telephone network, lines are terminated at the central office.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The T-carrier standards, also called T-CXR standards, utilize what type of multiplexing over two wire pairs to create multiple channels?
A) wavelength division multiplexing (WDM)
B) frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
C) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM)
D) time division multiplexing (TDM)
Q3) DSL services require many subscribers to share the same local line, causing potential security concerns.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All ISDN connections were based on what two different types of channels?
Q5) List and describe the four different generations of cellular technology.
Q6) How does a LAN connection differ from a WAN connection?
Q7) Describe the HSPA+ (High Speed Packet Access Plus) and LTE (Long Term Evolution) cellular networking technologies.
Page 14
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