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Networking Concepts provides a foundational understanding of how computer networks operate, covering essential principles, architectures, and protocols that enable communication between devices. The course explores topics such as the OSI and TCP/IP models, data transmission methods, network topologies, addressing and routing, switching, and wireless networking. Students will also learn about network hardware, such as routers, switches, and hubs, as well as concepts around network security and troubleshooting. This course lays the groundwork for further study in networking and prepares students for practical tasks in designing, implementing, and maintaining basic network infrastructures.
Recommended Textbook Guide to Networking Essentials 6th Edition by
Greg Tomsho
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13 Chapters
529 Verified Questions
529 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are building a gaming computer and you want to install a dedicated graphics card that has a fast GPU and 1GB of memory onboard. You need to make sure that you have the right connector available on your motherboard. What type of connector would be appropriate?
A) PCI
B) SATA
C) PCI-Express
D) IDE
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following are examples of output devices? (Choose all that apply.)
A) monitor
B) printer
C) keyboard
D) hard disk
E) CPU
Answer: A, B, D
Q3) The three basic functions of a computer are input, ____________, and output. Answer: processing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Routers do not forward broadcast packets.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) List the steps that a switch performs for each frame.
Answer: first, the switch receives a frame. It examines the frame for the source and destination MAC addresses. then the switch looks up the destination MAC address in its switching table. In the switching table, the MAC address will be listed with the port number where the destination device can be found. the switch then will forward the frame out the appropriate port. the switch also updates its switching table with the source MAC address.
Q3) What command issued from the command prompt will show the route that a packet travels from the issuing computer to another computer?
A) route
B) tracert
C) ipconfig
D) arp
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) When discussing Ethernet standards, what does the XBaseY terminology refer to?
A) the length or type of cabling, the transmission speed, and the type of transmissions
B) the transmission speed, the type of transmissions, and the length or type of cabling
C) the transmission speed, the length or type of cabling, and the type of transmissions
D) the length or type of cabling, the type of transmissions, and the transmission speed
Answer: B
Q2) When a wireless computer connects with an AP before it connects with other devices, it is operating in ____________ mode.
Answer: infrastructure
Q3) In a token ring network, what is the central device called?
A) multiport Ethernet switch
B) multiservice switch
C) multisession drive
D) multistation access unit
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the main differences between the types of network cabling?
A) the distance that a signal can travel
B) the ability to send and receive signals
C) the type of signal that the media can transmit
D) the speed at which the signal can be sent
Q2) Why is copper cabling susceptible to eavesdropping?
Q3) The entrance facility is the place where the connection to a WAN is located. It is basically the point where the LAN begins and ends. What is another name for this point?
A) departure point
B) entrance point
C) demarcation point
D) customer premises point
Q4) Which of the following is a length of cable that connects a computer to either a networking device or to an RJ-45 jack?
A) patch panel
B) cable segment
C) backbone cable
D) patch cable
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many bits are available in an IPv6 network for creating subnets when the prefix is /48 and the host ID is 64 bits?
A) 48
B) 16
C) 32
D) 64
Q2) Which protocol is responsible for determining the MAC address associated with each IP address and keeping a table of its results?
A) MAC
B) DNS
C) ARP
D) NAT
Q3) Which of the following is not an Application layer protocol?
A) DNS
B) TCP
C) DHCP
D) SMTP
Q4) ___________ is a way of breaking a large address space into more, smaller, address spaces.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the IEEE standard that governs all forms of Ethernet media?
A) 802.11
B) 802.3
C) 802.15
D) 802.2
Q2) List the layers of the OSI model from the top down, along with their counterparts in the TCP/IP model.
Q3) How does window size provide flow control?
Q4) You are working at the help desk and you get a message that a user cannot access the Internet. You open a command prompt, ping the workstation's IP address, and get a response. You ask the user to try the Internet again. He does so with the same result- no connection. Which type of device is most likely to be the problem?
A) Physical layer device
B) Data Link layer device
C) Network layer device
D) Presentation layer device
Q5) The Transport layer is the same in both the OSI model and the TCP/IP model.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Briefly describe an entry in a routing table from a router.
Q2) What physical characteristics must you take into account when shopping for a new NIC?
Q3) What type of routing protocol are RIP and RIPv2?
A) distance-state protocol
B) link-state protocol
C) hybrid protocol
D) distance-vector protocol
Q4) What does the Spanning Tree Protocol do?
Q5) Why should you change the SSID on your wireless router?
Q6) Which is the PCI bus type that has the highest possible transfer rate?
A) PCI
B) PCIe
C) PCI-X
D) PCMCIA
Q7) Which is the strongest form of wireless security?
A) WEP
B) WPA
C) WPA2
D) WAP2
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Sample Questions
Q1) What storage solution involves a third-party company that provides off-site hosting of data?
A) network-attached storage
B) cloud-based storage
C) network accessed appliance
D) storage area network
Q2) What is a hypervisor?
Q3) Which common e-mail protocol allows the user to access messages, yet still have them stored on the server?
A) SMTP
B) IMAP
C) POP3
D) SNMP
Q4) What are the names of four broadcast packets involved in a DHCP lease?
Q5) Which edition of Windows Server 2008 includes support for up to 64 processors and provides unlimited virtual instances?
A) Web Server 2008
B) Standard Edition
C) Enterprise Edition
D) Datacenter Edition
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Q1) What is an image backup and why would you use one?
Q2) Which of the following are standard NTFS permissions?
A) List Folder Contents
B) Read
C) Change
D) Write
E) Execute
Q3) How does RAID 5 work?
Q4) Group accounts make it easier for an administrator to manage user rights and permissions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following are case sensitive? (Choose all that apply.)
A) Windows logon name
B) Windows password
C) Linux logon name
D) Linux password
Q6) What is the key difference between a user account created in Active Directory and a user account created in a Windows client OS?
Q7) To what does a print device refer?
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Q1) What is an IDS?
Q2) Describe the purpose of a protocol analyzer and how an attacker could use one to compromise your network.
Q3) How the network resources are to be used should be clearly defined in a (an) ____________ policy.
Q4) What is a policy that defines the methods involved when a user logs on to the network called?
A) audit
B) security
C) authentication
D) acceptable use
Q5) How should a room that is going to house your servers be equipped?
Q6) A DoS attack ties up network bandwidth or services, rendering resources useless to legitimate users.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A(an) ____________ is a type of Trojan program that hides in the operating system files and is extremely difficult to detect.
Q8) What is a VPN?
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Q1) In most cases, you can install a small business network and move on to the next job, leaving the company's IT staff to support the network.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a small business network, the router usually takes on the responsibilities of many roles, which include a firewall as well as a DHCP server.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following are potential sources of interference in a wireless network?
(Choose all that apply.)
A) cordless phone
B) television
C) microwave oven
D) electric lights
E) nearby wireless networks
Q4) What is Windows Small Business Server?
Q5) What is port forwarding?
Q6) What is the purpose of CRM software?
Q7) Briefly describe the connection when using client-to-gateway VPN mode.
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Q1) A router is considered to be a CSU/DSU.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following protocols is NOT used for Windows 7 VPN connections?
A) SMTP
B) PPTP
C) L2TP
D) SSTP
Q3) Explain how V.92 modems achieve 56 Kbps over traditional phone lines.
Q4) A __________ is a device that allows a computer, which works with digital information, to communicate over lines that use analog signals.
Q5) Describe the difference between a digital signal and an analog signal.
Q6) You have been asked to install a VPN remote access solution using Windows Server.What do you need to install?
A) Microsoft Mobile User Service (MMUS)
B) Windows Server Remote Access (WSRA)
C) Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)
D) Dialup and Remote Access Services (DRAS)
Q7) What is a DCE, and what does it do?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Almost immediately after a server migration project, employees are complaining that they can't reach the Internet. You sit down at a machine and try to ping a well-known website, which fails. You then try to ping a known-public IP address, which succeeds. What is most likely the issue?
A) IP Address of each machine is set incorrectly.
B) Subnet mask is wrong.
C) No gateway address is set.
D) DNS settings are incorrect.
Q2) What should be done prior to installing upgrades in a live production environment?
Q3) Following a massive infection of your network by a virus, you have been tasked with developing preventive measures for keeping the network infection free. What would be an effective preventive measure?
A) Install an enterprise-based anti-virus solution.
B) Send a sternly worded e-mail detailing the company's strict "no-viruses" policy.
C) Decrease the amount of time before a user must change their password.
D) Modify your disaster recovery plan to include forensic analysis of any potential viruses to determine their source.
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