Network Security Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Network Security explores the principles and practices used to safeguard computer networks and data from unauthorized access, misuse, and cyber threats. The course covers fundamental concepts such as cryptography, authentication, firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and network protocols. Students will analyze various types of network attacks including viruses, worms, and denial of service attacks and implement defense mechanisms to mitigate these threats. Through hands-on labs and case studies, learners gain practical experience in securing networks, managing security policies, and ensuring the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of networked resources in both enterprise and cloud environments.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some of the typical elements that might be present in a fire suppression system, and what do they do?
Answer: A fire suppression system in a data center typically includes the following:
* emergency alert system-These systems vary, but they typically generate loud noise and flashing lights. Some send text and voice message alerts to key personnel, and post alerts by email, network messages, and other means.
* portable fire extinguishers-Note that electrical fires require a Class C fire extinguisher.
* emergency power-off switch-Don't use a power-off switch unless you really need to; improper shutdowns are hard on computers and their data.
* suppression agent-This can consist of a foaming chemical, gas, or water that sprays everywhere to put out the fire.
Q2) The Transport layer header addresses a receiving application by a number called a MAC address.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is plenum, and what must you do to be able to run cable through plenum space?
Answer: Plenum is the area above the ceiling tile or below the subflooring. If you run cable in this space, the cable sheath must be plenum-rated. You should also consult with local electric installation codes to be certain you are installing it correctly.
Q2) What component of the backbone runs between a building's floors and can be used to connect an MDF and IDF or multiple IDFs?
A) horizontal cross connect
B) patch cable
C) vertical cross connect
D) diagonal cabling
Answer: C
Q3) A change coordinator functions as what type of manager?
A) project manager
B) inventory manager
C) human resources manager
D) time manager
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of a MAC address serves as the extension identifier, or device ID?
A) The first 24 bits of the MAC address.
B) The last 24 bits of the MAC address.
C) The first 12 bits of the MAC address.
D) The last 12 bits of the MAC address.
Answer: B
Q2) An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits that are written as 10 blocks of hexadecimal numbers separated by colons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) You are troubleshooting a DNS issue on a Linux system, and need to test the resolution of your domain mycompany.com MX record using Google's DNS server with the IP address of 8.8.8.8. What dig command will accomplish this?
A) dig --server 8.8.8.8 --type=mx mycompany.com
B) dig -s 8.8.8.8 -t mx mycompany.com
C) dig query 8.8.8.8 domain mycompany.com type mx
D) dig @8.8.8.8 mycompany.com MX
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a TCP segment, what field indicates how many bytes the sender can issue to a receiver before acknowledgment is received?
A) urgent pointer
B) sliding-window
C) URG flag
D) PSH flag
Q2) What is MAC address spoofing?
Q3) Which routing protocol started as a Cisco proprietary protocol and combines some of the features of a link-state protocol with that of distance-vector protocols?
A) IS-IS
B) BGP
C) OSPF
D) EIGRP
Q4) What IPv6 field is similar to the TTL field in IPv4 packets?
A) flow label
B) next header
C) hop limit
D) distance vector
Q5) How does IPv6 utilize Neighbor Discovery Protocol to detect neighboring devices?
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) What multiplexing technology lowers cost by spacing frequency bands wider apart to allow for cheaper transceiver equipment?
A) statistical time division multiplexing
B) dense wavelength division multiplexing
C) coarse wavelength division multiplexing
D) spaced wavelength division multiplexing
Q2) A Fast Ethernet connection utilizes what pins on an RJ-45 plug?
A) 1, 2, 4, 5
B) 1, 2, 3, 5
C) 1, 2, 3, 6
D) 1, 2, 7, 8
Q3) Which statement accurately describes what near end crosstalk (NEXT) is?
A) NEXT is crosstalk that occurs between wire pairs near the source of a signal.
B) NEXT is crosstalk that occurs near the opposite end of a signal source.
C) NEXT is crosstalk that occurs when an EMI source is near the data signal source.
D) NEXT is crosstalk that occurs only when a cable segment exceeds the bend radius.
Q4) What is the difference between single mode fiber and multimode fiber, and how do they compare?
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many data streams are used in 802.11ac Wave 2 devices?
A) 2 data streams
B) 3 data streams
C) 4 data streams
D) 8 data streams
Q2) When deciding antenna types, why might the use of an omnidirectional antenna be inadvisable?
Q3) Healing messages are a feature of what smart home protocol?
A) ZigBee
B) Bluetooth
C) Z-Wave
D) ANT+
Q4) If you need to evaluate Wi-Fi network availability as well as optimize Wi-Fi signal settings and identify security threats, what tool should you use?
A) spectrum analyzer
B) protocol analyzer
C) Wi-Fi analyzer
D) air scanner
Q5) Why should the WPS PIN feature be avoided if possible?
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between a virtual firewall and a software firewall?
Q2) A Type 2 hypervisor installs on a computer before any OS, and is therefore called a bare-metal hypervisor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How is the CIA triad used to evaluate encryption methods?
Q4) Office 365 is an example of an SaaS implementation with a subscription model. A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following statements regarding the Point-to-Point (PPP) protocol is NOT accurate?
A) PPP can negotiate and establish a connection between two endpoints.
B) PPP can utilize an authentication protocol, such as MS-CHAPv2 or EAP to authenticate a client.
C) PPP can support several Network layer protocols, such as IP, that might use the connection.
D) PPP can support strong encryption, such as AH or ESP.
Q6) Why is the DTLS (Datagram Transport Layer Security) protocol used for streaming applications that need security?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What subnet mask can be used to segment the 172.16.0.0 network to allow for a minimum of 6 subnets while maximizing the number of hosts per subnet?
A) 255.255.248.0
B) 255.255.224.0
C) 255.255.192.0
D) 255.255.128.0
Q2) What IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information?
A) 802.1c
B) 802.1Q
C) 802.1V
D) 802.1d
Q3) You are working on a Cisco switch and need to learn what VLANs exist on the switch. Which command will list the current VLANs recognized by the switch?
A) get vlans
B) show vlan
C) list switch-vlans
D) show vlandb
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hackers are categorized according to their intent and the prior approval of the organizations whose networks they're hacking. What are some of these categories?
Q2) VMware's AirWatch and Cisco's Meraki Systems Manager are both examples of what type of software?
A) mobile device management software
B) software defined network software
C) virtual device management software
D) cloud network management software
Q3) Why might an organization be required to undergo a security audit?
Q4) A virus that remains dormant until a specific condition is met, such as the changing of a file or a match of the current date is known as what type of malware?
A) encrypted virus
B) logic bomb
C) boot sector virus
D) worm
Q5) The day after Patch Tuesday is informally dubbed Exploit Wednesday.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) User access to network resources falls into one of these two categories: 1) the privilege or right to execute, install, and uninstall software, and 2) permission to read, modify, create, or delete data files and folders.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The supplicant is an EAP entity responsible for requesting authentication, such as a smartphone or laptop.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If your LAN utilizes a proxy server, and you wish to send an email message from your workstation inside the LAN to a colleague via the Internet, what does this process look like?
Q4) When using a host-based intrusion detection system, what additional feature might be available to alert the system of any changes made to files that shouldn't change?
A) file integrity monitoring (FIM)
B) file change management (FCM)
C) file access auditing (FAA)
D) file checksum watching (FCW)
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Link Aggregation Control Protocol was initially defined by what IEEE standard?
A) IEEE 802.3af
B) IEEE 802.1cd
C) IEEE 802.3ad
D) IEEE 802.3bd
Q2) The creation of a response team should include what team roles?
Q3) A brownout is a momentary decrease in voltage; also known as a sag.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When using DiffServ, what type of forwarding utilizes a minimum departure rate from a given node, which is then assigned to each data stream?
A) assured forwarding
B) prioritized forwarding
C) scaled forwarding
D) expedited forwarding
Q5) The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) can be configured in what three different ways?
Q6) What are the different types of power flaws that can cause damage?
Q7) How do the three versions of the Simple Network Management Protocol differ?
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What OC level is primarily used as a regional ISP backbone, and occasionally by very large hospitals, universities, or other major enterprises?
A) OC-3
B) OC-12
C) OC-48
D) OC-96
Q2) The T-carrier standards, also called T-CXR standards, utilize what type of multiplexing over two wire pairs to create multiple channels?
A) wavelength division multiplexing (WDM)
B) frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
C) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM)
D) time division multiplexing (TDM)
Q3) What is the maximum throughput of a DS3 connection?
A) 1.544 Mbps
B) 3.152 Mbps
C) 44.736 Mbps
D) 274.176 Mbps
Q4) List and describe the four different generations of cellular technology.
Q5) How does a LAN connection differ from a WAN connection?
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