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Network Security introduces students to the principles and practices essential for protecting computer networks and data from unauthorized access, attacks, and vulnerabilities. The course covers topics such as risk management, cryptographic methods, authentication protocols, firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and security policies. Students will learn how to assess security threats, implement secure network architectures, and respond to incidents, preparing them with the technical and strategic skills needed to safeguard digital communication in organizational and enterprise environments.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Incident Response and Disaster Recovery 1st Edition by Michael E. Whitman
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549 Verified Questions
549 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some of the key elements that a security policy should have in order to remain viable?
Answer: An individual (like a policy administrator)responsible for the creation,revision,distribution,and storage of the policy;this individual should solicit input from all communities of interest in policy development
A schedule of reviews to ensure currency and accuracy,and to demonstrate due diligence
A mechanism by which individuals can comfortably make recommendations for revisions,preferably anonymously
A policy and revision date and possibly a "sunset" expiration date
Optionally,policy management software to streamline the steps of writing policy,tracking the workflow of policy approvals,publishing policy once it is written and approved,and tracking when individuals have read the policy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The violation of fair use of copyrighted material is an example of a(n)____.
A)compromise to intellectual property
B)act of human error
C)deliberate act of trespass
D)deliberate act of information distortion
Answer: A
Q2) What is the difference between a champion and a project manager?
Answer: A champion provides the strategic vision and the linkage to the power structure of the organization,but someone has to manage the project.A project manager,possibly a midlevel manager or even the CISO,must lead the project and make sure a sound project planning process is used,a complete and useful project plan is developed,and project resources are prudently managed to reach the goals of the project.
Q3) ____ should include scenarios depicting a typical attack,including its methodology,indicators of an attack,and broad consequences.
A)Cross-training
B)Attack triggers
C)Attack scenarios
D)Incident profiles
Answer: C
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Q1) ____ services augment existing and well-established services that are independent of incident handling and traditionally performed by other areas of an organization such as the IT,Audit,or Training departments.
A)Proactive
B)Security quality management
C)Reactive
D)Forensic
Answer: B
Q2) In CP,an event that threatens the security of the organization's information is called a(n)____.
A)incident
B)problem
C)after-action
D)warning
Answer: A
Q3) Conversations with ____________________ help identify the skills and abilities of the team,as well as the specific needs of the end users.
Answer: stakeholders
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Pipkin,what are the four types of incident candidates that are probable indicators of actual incidents? Provide a brief description of each incident candidate.
Q2) A(n)____ is an event that triggers alarms and causes a false positive when no actual attacks are in progress.
A)alert
B)false negative
C)false attack stimulus
D)True Attack Stimulus
Q3) When placed next to a hub,switch,or other key networking device,the NIDS may use that device's monitoring port,also known as a(n)____ port or mirror port.
A)SWAN
B)HID
C)SPAN
D)IDS
Q4) Briefly describe the tasks involved in managing logs.
Q5) The term ____________________ refers to a consolidation of almost identical alarms into a single higher-level alarm.
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Q6) What are the advantages and disadvantages of NIDS?
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Q1) What are some of the questions that should be asked when reviewing the incidence response plan?
Q2) Provides information on the type,scope,and extent of damage caused by the incident.
A)IR plan
B)After-action review
C)Interview
D)Incident
E)System log
F)Forensics
G)War game
H)Computer forensics
I)Hashing
Q3) All changes proposed to the IR plan must be coordinated with the CPMT so that changes to the IR plan stay aligned with the use of other contingency planning documents used in the company.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss five key steps in the Apprehend and Prosecute reaction strategy.
Q5) List five incident containment strategies.
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Q1) The usage of _________________________________ systems can overcome some of the limits of magnetic tape backup systems,and,as seen later in the section titled "Real-Time Protection,Server Recovery,and Application Recovery," RAID systems provide enhanced capabilities.
Q2) A(n)____ provides some of the same services and options of the hot site,but typically software applications are either not included,not installed,or not configured.
A)cold site
B)hot site
C)warm site
D)electronic vault
Q3) The bulk transfer of data in batches to an off-site facility is called
Q4) What is the difference between RAID level 7 and RAID level 10?
Q5) Discuss the six step process of the Grandfather-Father-Son backup method.
Q6) What are the disadvantages of a time-share?
Q7) The disadvantage of a full backup is that it takes a comprehensive snapshot of the organization's system.
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A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is involved in training for the DR plan?
Q2) Works to reestablish functions by repairing or replacing damaged or destroyed components.
A)Disaster management team
B)Business interface team
C)Actions after
D)Network recovery team
E)Storage recovery team
F)Data management team
G)Vendor contact team.
H)Logistics team.
I)Business interface team.
Q3) Once the incident has been contained,and all signs of the incident removed,the ____ phase begins.
A)actions after
B)black bag operation
C)chain of custody
D)blue bag operation
Q4) The ________________________________________ assembles a disaster recovery team.
Q5) List five contingency strategies that should be considered for servers. Page 9
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Q1) The ____ team is responsible for providing the initial assessments of the extent of damage to equipment and systems on site and/or for physically recovering equipment to be transported to a location where the other teams can evaluate it.
A)damage assessment
B)data management
C)logistics
D)business interface
Q2) The ____ must have a mechanism to contact everyone in the organization,especially if part of the message is "don't report to work today,but call this number for more information."
A)business interface
B)staff roster
C)forensic roster
D)DR plan roster
Q3) What are the main purposes of the response phase?
Q4) What is the purpose of the disaster management team?
Q5) What are the primary goals associated with the restoration phase?
Q6) What are some of the key points that the CP team must build into the DR plan?
Q7) Briefly discuss the five phases of the DR recovery plan.
Page 11
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Q1) The ____ is the point in the past to which the recovered applications and data at the alternate infrastructure will be restored.
A)recovery point objective
B)relocation point objective
C)simulation point objective
D)warm site objective
Q2) A(n)____________________ site is an empty room with standard heating,air conditioning,and electrical service.
Q3) In the ____ section of the business continuity policy,the training requirements for the various employee groups are defined and highlighted.
A)scope
B)training requirements
C)roles and responsibilities
D)special considerations
Q4) ____ involves the batch transfer of data to an off-site facility.
A)Database shadowing
B)Remote journaling
C)Six-tape rotation
D)Electronic vaulting
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Q1) Also called a set point.
A)Trigger point
B)Preparation undertaken by an organization
C)Network recovery team
D)Security
E)Insurance
F)BC plan
G)BC review
H)Information systems security control
I)Plan
Q2) Among the activities that occur during the ____ phase are disconnecting temporary services,equipment disassembly,packaging of recovered equipment and supplies,storage or transportation of recovered equipment and supplies,and clearing the control of the assigned space from the BC service provider.
A)after-action review
B)settling in back at the primary site
C)scheduling the move
D)clearing activities
Q3) What are some of the options available for BC training?
Q4) What are the requirements for the CBCP certification?
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Q1) Organizations typically respond to a crisis by focusing on technical issues and economic priorities,and overlook the steps needed to preserve the most critical assets of the organization - its people.
A)True
B)False
Q2) EAPs fill the need to talk through issues that people are unable to deal with on their own.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cross-training provides a mechanism to get everyone out of the crime scene and thus prevent contamination of possible evidentiary material.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____ refers to the range of services necessary to get your employees back to original levels of productivity.
A)Crisis communications
B)Humanitarian assistance
C)Emergency response
D)Cross-training
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