Network Security Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Network Security focuses on the principles, protocols, and practices used to protect digital networks and data from unauthorized access, misuse, or attacks. The course covers foundational concepts such as cryptography, authentication, firewalls, intrusion detection and prevention systems, virtual private networks (VPNs), and secure network design. Students will explore common network vulnerabilities, threat landscapes, and emerging security technologies, as well as strategies for developing robust security policies. Through theoretical study and practical exercises, learners gain the skills necessary to identify and mitigate risks, analyze potential threats, and implement effective security solutions in real-world network environments.
Recommended Textbook
Computer Security Principles and Practice 3rd Edition by William Stallings
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Chapter 1: Computer Systems Overview
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Q1) Threats are attacks carried out.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Misappropriation and misuse are attacks that result in ________ threat consequences.
Answer: usurpation
Q3) Data integrity assures that information and programs are changed only in a specified and authorized manner.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Confidentiality,Integrity,and Availability form what is often referred to as the _____.
Answer: CIA triad
Q5) Replay,masquerade,modification of messages,and denial of service are example of _________ attacks.
Answer: active
Q6) A(n)_________ is any means taken to deal with a security attack. Answer: countermeasure
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Chapter 2: Cryptographic Tools
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Sample Questions
Q1) The advantage of a stream cipher is that you can reuse keys.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Public-key cryptography is asymmetric.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) There are two general approaches to attacking a symmetric encryption scheme: cryptanalytic attacks and __________ attacks. Answer: brute-force
Q4) A __________ processes the plaintext input in fixed-size blocks and produces a block of ciphertext of equal size for each plaintext block. Answer: block cipher
Q5) Also referred to as single-key encryption,the universal technique for providing confidentiality for transmitted or stored data is __________ . Answer: symmetric encryption
Q6) Public-key encryption was first publicly proposed by __________ in 1976. Answer: Diffie and Hellman
Page 4
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Chapter 3: User Authentication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ is the pattern formed by veins beneath the retinal surface.
Answer: retinal pattern
Q2) A __________ is an individual to whom a debit card is issued.
Answer: cardholder
Q3) A host generated random number is often called a __________.
Answer: nonce
Q4) A __________ attack attempts to disable a user authentication service by flooding the service with numerous authentication attempts.
Answer: denial-of-service
Q5) Memory cards store and process data.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q6) __________ systems identify features of the hand,including shape,and lengths and widths of fingers.
A)Signature
B)Fingerprint
C)Hand geometry
D)Palm print
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Access Control
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Q1) The __________ user ID is exempt from the usual file access control constraints and has system wide access.
Q2) __________ is based on the roles the users assume in a system rather than the user's identity.
A)DAC
B)RBAC
C)MAC
D)URAC
Q3) __________ is verification that the credentials of a user or other system entity are valid.
A)Adequacy
B)Authentication
C)Authorization
D)Audit
Q4) A user may belong to multiple groups.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The basic elements of access control are: subject,__________,and access right.
Q6) X.800 defines __________ as the prevention of unauthorized use of a resource, including the prevention of use of a resource in an unauthorized manner.
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Chapter 5: Database and Cloud Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) T F 4.The value of a primary key must be unique for each tuple of its table.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a relational database columns are referred to as _________.
Q3) _________ is a model for enabling ubiquitous,convenient,on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction.
Q4) The information transfer path by which unauthorized data is obtained is referred to as an ___________ channel.
Q5) A(n)__________ is a structured collection of data stored for use by one or more applications.
A)attribute
B)database
C)tuple
D)inference
Q6) A __________ is a suite of programs for constructing and maintaining the database and for offering ad hoc query facilities to multiple users and applications.
Q7) The __________ cloud infrastructure is operated solely for an organization.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Malicious Software
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Q1) A __________ uses multiple methods of infection or propagation to maximize the speed of contagion and the severity of the attack.
Q2) Many forms of infection can be blocked by denying normal users the right to modify programs on the system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Keyware captures keystrokes on a compromised system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A bot propagates itself and activates itself,whereas a worm is initially controlled from some central facility.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Malicious software aims to trick users into revealing sensitive personal data.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In addition to propagating,a worm usually carries some form of payload. A)True
B)False
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Q7) A __________ is a collection of bots capable of acting in a coordinated manner.
Chapter 7: Denial-Of-Service Attacks
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Q1) The best defense against broadcast amplification attacks is to block the use of _______ broadcasts.
Q2) Flooding attacks take a variety of forms based on which network protocol is being used to implement the attack.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The standard protocol used for call setup in VoIP is the ________ Protocol.
Q4) ______ attacks are a variant of reflector attacks and also involve sending a packet with a spoofed source address for the target system to intermediaries.
Q5) A characteristic of reflection attacks is the lack of _______ traffic.
A)backscatter
B)network
C)three-way
D)botnet
Q6) A _______ flood refers to an attack that bombards Web servers with HTTP requests.
Q7) The four lines of defense against DDoS attacks are: attack prevention and preemption,attack detection and filtering,attack source traceback and identification and _______.
9
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection
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Q1) The _________ to an IDS enables a user to view output from the system or control the behavior of the system.
Q2) Intrusion detection is based on the assumption that the behavior of the intruder differs from that of a legitimate user in ways that can be quantified.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The _________ module analyzes LAN traffic and reports the results to the central manager.
A)LAN monitor agent
B)host agent
C)central manager agent
D)architecture agent
Q4) ________ are decoy systems that are designed to lure a potential attacker away from critical systems.
Q5) __________ is a security service that monitors and analyzes system events for the purpose of finding,and providing real-time warning of attempts to access system resources in an unauthorized manner.
Q6) An IDS comprises three logical components: analyzers,user interface and _____.
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Chapter 9: Firewalls and Intrusion Prevention Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ control controls access to a service according to which user is attempting to access it.
A)User
B)Direction
C)Service
D)Behavior
Q2) _________ matching scans incoming packets for specific byte sequences (the signature)stored in a database of known attacks.
Q3) __________ scans for attack signatures in the context of a traffic stream rather than individual packets.
A)Pattern matching
B)Protocol anomaly
C)Traffic anomaly
D)Stateful matching
Q4) The _________ is inserted between the premises network and the Internet to establish a controlled link and to erect an outer security wall or perimeter to protect the premises network from Internet-based attacks.
Q5) Snort Inline adds three new rule types: drop,reject,and _________.
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Chapter 10: Buffer Overflow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Traditionally the function of __________ was to transfer control to a user command-line interpreter,which gave access to any program available on the system with the privileges of the attacked program.
A)shellcode
B)C coding
C)assembly language
D)all of the above
Q2) In 2003 the _________ exploited a buffer overflow in Microsoft SQL Server 2000.
A)Slammer worm
B)Morris Internet Worm
C)Sasser worm
D)Code Red worm
Q3) Shellcode must be able to run no matter where in memory it is located.
A)True
B)False
Q4) __________ is one of the best known protection mechanisms that is a GCC compiler extension that inserts additional function entry and exit code.
Q5) __________ defenses aim to harden programs to resist attacks in new programs.
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Chapter 11: Software Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Defensive programming is sometimes referred to as _________.
A)variable programming
B)secure programming
C)interpretive programming
D)chroot programming
Q2) "Improper Access Control (Authorization)" is in the _________ software error category.
A)Porous Defenses
B)Allocation of Resources
C)Risky Resource Management
D)Insecure Interaction Between Components
Q3) "Failure to Preserve SQL Query Structure" is in the __________ CWE/SANS software error category.
Q4) To counter XSS attacks a defensive programmer needs to explicitly identify any assumptions as to the form of input and to verify that any input data conform to those assumptions before any use of the data.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _________ attacks are most commonly seen in scripted Web applications.
Page 13
Q6) Program input data may be broadly classified as textual or ______.
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Chapter 12: Operating System Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each layer of code needs appropriate hardening measures in place to provide appropriate security services.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Manual analysis of logs is a reliable means of detecting adverse events.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ______ is a reactive control that can only inform you about bad things that have already happened.
Q4) The final step in the process of initially securing the base operating system is ________.
Q5) The ______ process makes copies of data at regular intervals for recovery of lost or corrupted data over short time periods.
A)logging
B)backup
C)hardening
D)archive
Q6) System security begins with the installation of the ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Trusted Computing and Multilevel Security
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Q1) _________ rules are built-in system security mechanisms that achieve the objectives of the certification rules.
Q2) When multiple categories or levels of data are defined,the requirement is referred to as __________ security.
Q3) "No write down" is also referred to as the *-property.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _________ secure is a class of system that has system resources at more than one security level and that permits concurrent access by users who differ in security clearance and need-to-know,but is able to prevent each user from accessing resources for which the user lacks authorization.
Q5) In the United States the ______ and the NSA jointly operate the Common Criteria Evaluation and Validation Scheme.
Q6) The _________ model is intended to deal with the case in which there is data that must be visible to users at multiple or all security levels but should only be modified in controlled ways by authorized agents.
Q7) "No read up" is also referred to as the _________ property.
Q8) An object is said to have a security ________ of a given level.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: It Security Management and Risk Assessment
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Q1) A threat may be either natural or human made and may be accidental or deliberate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The advantages of the _________ approach are that it doesn't require the expenditure of additional resources in conducting a more formal risk assessment and that the same measures can be replicated over a range of systems.
A)combined
B)informal
C)baseline
D)detailed
Q3) The intent of the ________ is to provide a clear overview of how an organization's IT infrastructure supports its overall business objectives.
A)risk register
B)corporate security policy
C)vulnerability source
D)threat assessment
Q4) A(n)_________ is anything that has value to the organization.
Q5) Not proceeding with the activity or system that creates the risk is _________.
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Chapter 15: It Security Controls,plans,and Procedures
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Q1) A _________ on an organization's IT systems identifies areas needing treatment.
Q2) An IT security plan should include details of _________.
A)risks
B)recommended controls
C)responsible personnel
D)all of the above
Q3) The objective of the ________ control category is to counteract interruptions to business activities and to protect critical business processes from the effects of major failures of information systems or disasters and to ensure their timely resumption.
A)asset management
B)business continuity management
C)information security incident management
D)physical and environmental security
Q4) All controls are applicable to all technologies.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ controls involve the correct use of hardware and software security capabilities in systems.
Q6) Contingency planning falls into the _________ class of security controls.
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Chapter 16: Physical and Infrastructure Security
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Q1) The most essential element of recovery from physical security breaches is ____.
Q2) Human-caused threats can be grouped into the following categories: unauthorized physical access,theft,_________ and misuse.
Q3) ______ authentication is implemented by using a fingerprint or iris data object sent from the PIV card to the PACS.
Q4) Tornados,tropical cyclones,earthquakes,blizzards,lightning,and floods are all types of ________ disasters.
Q5) Physical security must also prevent any type of physical access or intrusion that can compromise logical security.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ includes data processing and storage equipment,transmission and networking facilities,and offline storage media.
A)Supporting facilities
B)Physical facilities
C)Information system hardware
D)Infrastructure facilities
Q7) _______ threats encompass threats related to electrical power and electromagnetic emission.
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Chapter 17: Human Resources Security
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Q1) A(n)________ is any file or object found on a system that might be involved in probing or attacking systems and networks or that is being used to defeat security measures.
Q2) The _______ category is a transitional stage between awareness and training.
A)roles and responsibilities relative to IT systems
B)security basics and literacy
C)education and experience
D)security awareness
Q3) Employee behavior is not a critical concern in ensuring the security of computer systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The principal problems associated with employee behavior are errors and omissions,_______,and actions by disgruntled employees.
Q5) The principles that should be followed for personnel security are: limited reliance on key employees,separation of duties,and _______.
Q6) After security basics and literacy,training becomes focused on providing the knowledge,skills,and abilities specific to an individual's _______ relative to IT systems.
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Chapter 18: Security Auditing
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Q1) Thresholding is a form of baseline analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The basic audit objective is to establish accountability for system entities that initiate or participate in security-relevant events and actions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ______ repository contains the auditing code to be inserted into an application.
Q4) Event and audit trail analysis software,tools,and interfaces may be used to analyze collected data as well as for investigating data trends and anomalies.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All UNIX implementations will have the same variants of the syslog facility.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ______ is UNIX's general-purpose logging mechanism found on all UNIX variants and Linux.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Legal and Ethical Aspects
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Q1) A servicemark is the same as a trademark except that it identifies and distinguishes the source of a service rather than a product.
A)True
B)False
Q2) _____ strengthens the protection of copyrighted materials in digital format.
A)HIPPA
B)DMCA
C)WIPO
D)DRM
Q3) ________ ensures that a user may make multiple uses of resources or services without others being able to link these uses together.
A)Anonymity
B)Pseudonymity
C)Unobservability
D)Unlinkability
Q4) The purpose of the privacy functions is to provide a user protection against discovery and misuse of identity by other users.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The three types of patents are: utility patents,design patents,and ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Symmetric Encryption and Message
Confidentiality
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Q1) Plaintext is the scrambled message produced as output.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cryptographic systems are generically classified by _________.
A)the type of operations used for transforming plaintext to ciphertext
B)the number of keys used
C)the way in which the plaintext is processed
D)all of the above
Q3) A brute-force approach involves trying every possible key until an intelligible translation of the ciphertext into plaintext is obtained.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _________ is the original message or data that is fed into the algorithm as input.
A)Plaintext
B)Encryption algorithm
C)Decryption algorithm
D)Ciphertext
Q5) A symmetric encryption scheme has five ingredients: plaintext,encryption algorithm,ciphertext,decryption algorithm and _________.
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Chapter 21: Public-Key Cryptography and Message
Authentication
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Q1) SHA-1 is considered to be very secure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The principal attraction of __________ compared to RSA is that it appears to offer equal security for a far smaller bit size,thereby reducing processing overhead.
A)ECC
B)MD5
C)Diffie-Hellman
D)none of the above
Q3) HMAC can be proven secure provided that the embedded hash function has some reasonable cryptographic strengths.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The _________ scheme has reigned supreme as the most widely accepted and implemented approach to public-key encryption.
A)SHA-1
B)HMAC
C)MD5
D)RSA
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Chapter 22: Internet Security Protocols and Standards
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Q1) ________ is a security enhancement to the MIME Internet e-mail format standard,based on technology from RSA Data Security.
Q2) Transport mode provides protection primarily for lower-layer protocols.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ________ function consists of encrypted content of any type and encrypted-content encryption keys for one or more recipients.
A)clear-signed data
B)signed data
C)enveloped data
D)signed and enveloped data
Q4) An ADMD is an Internet e-mail provider.
A)True
B)False
Q5) MIME is an extension to the old RFC 822 specification of an Internet mail format.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Internet Authentication Applications
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Q1) ______ is the set of hardware,software,people,policies,and procedures needed to create,manage,store,distribute,and revoke digital certificates based on asymmetric cryptography.
Q2) ________ is a process where authentication and permission will be passed on from one system to another,usually across multiple enterprises,reducing the number of authentications needed by the user.
A)Integration
B)Registration
C)Synchronization
D)Federation
Q3) Federated identity management makes use of a number of standards that provide the building blocks for secure identity information exchange across different domains or heterogeneous systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An obvious security risk is that of impersonation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a generic identity management architecture a ________ is an identity holder.
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Chapter 24: Wireless Network Security
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Q1) The wireless environment lends itself to a ______ attack because it is so easy for the attacker to direct multiple wireless messages at the target.
A)DoS
B)man-in-the-middle
C)network injection
D)identity theft
Q2) A ________ is a secret key shared by the AP and a STA and installed in some fashion outside the scope of IEEE 802.11i.
A)pre-shared key
B)master session key
C)pairwise master key
D)group master key
Q3) There are two types of keys: ________ used for communication between a STA and an AP and group keys used for multicast communication.
Q4) Company wireless LANs or wireless access points to wired LANs in close proximity may create overlapping transmission ranges.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Like TKIP,CCMP provides two services: message integrity and ________.
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