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Network Management Exam Practice Tests - 529 Verified Questions

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Network Management Exam Practice Tests

Course Introduction

Network Management explores the principles, architectures, and tools essential for administering modern computer networks. This course covers key topics including network monitoring, configuration, fault and performance management, security considerations, and automation techniques. Students will gain practical experience with industry-standard protocols such as SNMP, NetFlow, and syslog, while learning best practices for managing both wired and wireless networks. The curriculum also addresses the challenges of scaling network infrastructure, integrating cloud-based systems, and leveraging management platforms to ensure optimal network efficiency, reliability, and security in enterprise environments.

Recommended Textbook Guide to Networking Essentials 6th Edition by

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13 Chapters

529 Verified Questions

529 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction to Computer Networks

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41 Verified Questions

41 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the difference between a client operating system and a server operating system?

Answer: A client operating system is designed mainly to run user applications like a word processor or spreadsheet program and to access network resources like file servers or the Internet. A server operating system is designed to provide clients with access to network resources such as directory services, shared files, and e-mail.

Q2) ____________ components include devices such as printers, disk drives, network cards, and monitors.

Answer: Output

Q3) There are two different network models. One of them, a peer-to-peer network, also is referred to as a ____________ network.

Answer: workgroup

Q4) File and printer sharing for Microsoft networks is an example of a network protocol. A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 2: Network Hardware Essentials

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41 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What command would you issue from the command prompt to test whether your computer has connectivity to the network?

A) ping IPaddress

B) arp -d IPaddress

C) ipconfig IPaddress

D) ipconfig /all

Answer: A

Q2) A __________ frame is a message that is intended to be processed by all devices on the LAN.

Answer: broadcast

Q3) How does a switch "learn" MAC addresses?

A) All the MAC addresses must be entered manually.

B) The switch comes loaded with the most frequently used addresses.

C) The switch reads each frame and makes a note of where each MAC address came from.

D) The switch uses a mathematical formula to determine what the MAC address would be for each computer connected to it.

Answer: C

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4

Chapter 3: Network Topologies and Technologies

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41 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the main disadvantage of cable modem networking?

A) The modems have to modulate and demodulate the signals.

B) It is only capable of speeds up to 60MBps and usually only delivers 10MBps.

C) It uses an asymmetrical communication scheme.

D) It uses a bus topology.

Answer: D

Q2) What is CSMA/CD and how does it work?

Answer: CSMA/CD is the media access method used by Ethernet, which is a set of rules that govern how and when a device can transmit on an Ethernet network. When two devices transmit a signal at the same time, they cause a collision to occur. then the devices must try to transmit again, and again, causing a bottleneck. to avoid these collisions, CSMA/CD says that a device must first listen to see whether it can detect any other signal on the medium. If no other signal is detected, then the device can transmit. If another device transmits at the same time and a collision occurs, then both transmitting stations must wait for a random period before they can try to transmit again.

Q3) A point-to-point topology is typically used for WAN connections.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Network Media

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a form of electromagnetic interference, or EMI?

A) rain/fog

B) transformer

C) fluorescent lights

D) crosstalk

Q2) What is the term used that defines network cabling in the work area and between telecommunications closets and equipment rooms?

A) backbone cabling

B) structured cabling

C) horizontal wiring

D) vertical wiring

Q3) What is the maximum bandwidth for a network cabled using category 5e UTP cable?

A) 10 Mbps

B) 16 Mbps

C) 100 Mbps

D) 1000 Mbps

Q4) What is a transceiver and what is its function?

Q5) A type of wireless network that uses light beams to send signals between two devices and is highly susceptible to visible light sources is called ____________.

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Chapter 5: Network Protocols

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Sample Questions

Q1) An IP address is composed of 48 bits that are grouped together into 8-bit octets and are represented by a decimal number from 0 to 255.

A)True

B)False

Q2) ___________ is a way of breaking a large address space into more, smaller, address spaces.

Q3) What is the hexadecimal number F equal to in binary?

A) 0011

B) 1011

C) 1001

D) 1111

Q4) Which of the following is a feature of TCP? (Choose all that apply.)

A) segments data into chunks

B) converts signals into bits

C) provides data-formatting services

D) ensures flow control

E) establishes a connection

Q5) ____________are sets of rules and procedures that dictate communication and behavior.

Q6) What does APIPA stand for, and what does it do?

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Chapter 6: Network Reference Models and Standards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Transport layer segments data into smaller chunks, the size of which is determined by which of the following?

A) MTU

B) LLC

C) PDU

D) TCP

Q2) How does window size provide flow control?

Q3) What information would you find in the header of a Transport layer PDU?

A) destination IP address

B) cyclic redundancy check

C) source MAC address

D) window size

Q4) One of the problems that can occur in the Network layer is the incorrect configuration of a hosts IP address.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The ____________ layer is the bottom layer, whose job it is to convert bits into signals and vice versa.

Q6) What are the sublayers of the Data Link layer, and what do they do?

Page 8

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Chapter 7: Network Hardware in Depth

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Sample Questions

Q1) What does the Spanning Tree Protocol do?

Q2) A ____________ is used to make connections between the network interface card and the other vital components of the computer, such as the central processing unit.

Q3) Briefly describe an entry in a routing table from a router.

Q4) Access control lists can be configured based on which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)

A) protocol

B) source MAC address

C) destination network

D) destination MAC address

E) source IP address

Q5) What are the three most common encryption protocols for wireless security? Which is the strongest? Which is the weakest?

Q6) A switch that is configured to use the Spanning Tree Protocol will place a port in ____________ mode if sending traffic to it may cause a switching loop.

Q7) What physical characteristics must you take into account when shopping for a new NIC?

Q8) Briefly describe the three types of switching methods.

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Chapter 8: Network Operating System Fundamentals

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is a hot-swappable device?

Q2) What directory service protocol used in Linux systems is also supported by Windows?

A) NFS

B) NIS

C) LDAP

D) LEAP

Q3) You are testing out a new DHCP server and want to make sure that it does not interfere with your current network. What option would you use to configure your network adapter using VMware workstation?

A) NAT

B) bridged

C) host-only

D) internal

Q4) When a user enters his username and password to log on to a machine, he is invoking the process of ____________.

Q5) A ____________ is a program that runs in the background and provides support for other processes.

Q6) What is the System Idle process, and what does its value mean?

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Chapter 9: Server Management and Administration

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Sample Questions

Q1) Group accounts make it easier for an administrator to manage user rights and permissions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A disk must be formatted as what type of disk if you want to access additional features such as disk spanning?

A) system

B) active

C) basic

D) dynamic

Q3) In Linux, what is the command for viewing a file's contents onscreen?

A) dir

B) cat

C) etc

D) ls

Q4) What types of devices are considered to be locally attached storage?

Q5) Windows can be installed on an extended partition that has been formatted with the NTFS file system.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Introduction to Network Security

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Sample Questions

Q1) In Linux, passwords are stored in an encrypted format in the ____________ file, which is located in the /etc directory.

Q2) What is an IDS?

Q3) What are the complexity requirements for a Windows password? List the four characteristics.

Q4) When using BitLocker to encrypt your entire disk, which mode must you use if your system is not configured for TPM support?

A) transport mode

B) USB key mode

C) user authentication mode

D) encryption mode

Q5) What is a penetration tester?

Q6) In Windows 7, what is the maximum length that a password can be?

A) 8

B) 16

C) 64

D) 128

Q7) A(an) ____________ is a type of Trojan program that hides in the operating system files and is extremely difficult to detect.

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Chapter 11: Supporting a Small Business Network

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41 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a requirement for most small business networks?

A) Internet access for all users

B) file and printer sharing

C) complex WAN environment

D) accessibility to specialized business applications

Q2) After you have set up a network for a small business, you may need to access the network remotely to provide support for the users. Which remote access option should not be used unless a secure connection can be established first?

A) dial-up

B) Telnet

C) SSH

D) Windows Remote Assistance

Q3) What is port forwarding?

Q4) A router that is using ____________-to-gateway VPN mode allows users to connect to the network without having any specialized software installed on their computers.

Q5) What is Windows Small Business Server?

Q6) ____________ products are those that are intended for the home user and therefore don't come equipped with advanced features.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Wide Area Network Essentials

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Sample Questions

Q1) What two protocols are used in PPP to handle higher protocol encapsulation and connection control? Describe these two protocols.

Q2) Which one of the following is NOT a typical SONET data rate?

A) OC-3

B) OC-48

C) OC-768

D) OC-9001

Q3) The company you work for currently has ISDN service in place. Your supervisor wishes to know what sort of ISDN service is being used so that better alternatives can be considered. He tells you that the service has two B-Channels and a D-Channel. What ISDN format do you have?

A) Primary Rate Interface (PRI)

B) Basic Rate Interface (BRI)

C) Basic Rate Extended (BRE)

D) Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)

Q4) ________ is a cell-based packet-switching technology in which the cells are of a fixed length rather than typical packet-based systems that use variable length packets.

Q5) Describe the difference between a digital signal and an analog signal.

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Chapter 13: Troubleshooting and Support

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ping command is used to determine the path between two devices.

A)True

B)False

Q2) You receive a phone call from a co-worker telling you that "the network is down." Just as you are about to look into the issue, you receive several more phone calls from other co-workers. Using the problem-solving process, what must be done first to effectively troubleshoot the issue?

A) Determine what the problem is, and then figure out who has been affected on your network.

B) Check documentation for a possible cause of network outages.

C) Consider what could have caused the network outage.

D) Apply a solution.

Q3) What is the difference between an incremental and a differential backup?

Q4) Describe what tracert does and what it can be used to troubleshoot.

Q5) When devising a solution, you should consider what kind of undesirable results the proposed solution might have. What can you create to reverse your changes if the proposed solution does not succeed?

Q6) What should be done prior to installing upgrades in a live production environment?

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