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Network Fundamentals introduces students to the foundational concepts of computer networking, covering essential topics such as network topologies, protocols, and architectures. The course explores how data is transmitted across local and wide area networks, emphasizing the OSI and TCP/IP models, addressing and routing principles, and the basics of network devices like switches, routers, and hubs. Through theoretical lessons and practical exercises, students gain an understanding of wired and wireless communication, network security fundamentals, and troubleshooting common connectivity issues, preparing them for further study or entry-level roles in IT and networking fields.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
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Q1) The protocol data unit for the Physical layer of the OSI model is payload, or data.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The proper handling procedures for substances such as chemical solvents is typically outlined in which of the following options?
A) Toxic Chemical Safety Procedure (TCSP)
B) Dangerous and Hazardous Waste Disposal Sheet (DHWDS)
C) Environmental Chemical Hazard Sheet (ECHS)
D) Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Answer: D
Q3) HTTP, IMAP4, FTP, and Telnet are all examples of protocols that operate at what layer of the OSI model?
A) Layer 4
B) Layer 5
C) Layer 6
D) Layer 7
Answer: D
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Q1) Your company is setting itself up to distribute software made by another company. What type of document should your company procure from the developing company?
A) master service agreement
B) master license agreement
C) service-level agreement
D) memorandum of understanding
Answer: B
Q2) What statement correctly identifies the purpose of a software patch?
A) A software patch is a correction, improvement, or enhancement to software.
B) A software patch is a major change to a software package that enhances the functionality and features of the software, while also correcting bugs and vulnerabilities.
C) A software patch involves the process of reverting to a previous version of software after attempting to upgrade it.
D) A software patch is a container for new software, and must be installed on relevant devices and incorporated with network resources.
Answer: A
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Q1) When using DHCP for IPv6 (i.e. DHCPv6), what port do clients receive responses on?
A) port 67
B) port 68
C) port 546
D) port 547
Answer: D
Q2) An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits that are written as 10 blocks of hexadecimal numbers separated by colons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) At the root level of the DNS hierarchical structure, 13 clusters of root servers hold information used to locate TLD servers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The pathping utility sends 10 pings per hop by default.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which traceroute command will perform a trace using ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams to the host srv1.mycompany.com?
A) traceroute -i srv1.mycompany.com
B) traceroute -w srv1.mycompany.com
C) traceroute -o ICMP srv1.mycompany.com
D) traceroute -I srv1.mycompany.com
Q3) Which routing protocol started as a Cisco proprietary protocol and combines some of the features of a link-state protocol with that of distance-vector protocols?
A) IS-IS
B) BGP
C) OSPF
D) EIGRP
Q4) In general, a Layer 3 or Layer 4 switch is still optimized for fast Layer 2 data handling.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The ST and SC fiber connectors are the most commonly found connectors due to their smaller sizes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cabling is accurate?
A) Fiber-optic cabling has a low resistance to signal noise.
B) Light experiences virtually no resistance when traveling through glass.
C) Fiber-optic cable is cheaper than shielded twisted pair cabling.
D) The maximum length for a fiber segment is 20km.
Q3) Describe the two different shapes and polishes currently used on SMF ferrules to reduce back reflection.
Q4) What is the maximum supported throughput of a CAT6 cable?
A) 100 Mbps
B) 1 Gbps
C) 10 Gbps
D) 100 Gbps
Q5) How does modal bandwidth affect the performance of a multimode fiber segment?
Q6) What is the difference between bandwidth and throughput?
Q7) Noise can degrade or distort a signal on a network; what are some of its causes?
Q8) What is the biggest limiting factor on fiber-optic cable length?
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Q1) A wireless node that is in active scanning mode transmits what special type of frame in order to find available access points?
A) beacon frame
B) association request
C) probe frame
D) ping frame
Q2) What is the difference between war driving and war chalking?
Q3) Diffraction has what affect on a wireless signal's propagation?
A) The signal is redirected into multiple directions.
B) The signal is split into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which they split.
C) The signal is returned back towards the source of the original signal.
D) The signal is completely absorbed by the diffracting material.
Q4) The 802.11 standard specifies the use of what technique in order to minimize the potential for collisions?
A) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)
B) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)
C) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Mitigation (CMSA/CM)
D) Carrier Sense Single Access with Collision Adaptation (CSSA/CA)
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Q1) After L2TP establishing a VPN tunnel, GRE is used to transmit L2TP data frames through the tunnel.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is NOT a potential disadvantage of utilizing virtualization?
A) Multiple virtual machines contending for finite resources can compromise performance.
B) Increased complexity and administrative burden can result from the use of virtual machines.
C) Licensing costs can be high due to every instance of commercial software requiring a separate license.
D) Virtualization software increases the complexity of backups, making creation of usable backups difficult.
Q3) FTPS (FTP Security or FTP Secure) and SFTP (Secure FTP) are two names for the same protocol.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are some of the features that all cloud services usually have in common?
Q5) What two different types of encryption can be utilized with IPsec?
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Q1) A /24 CIDR block is equivalent to a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A network with 10 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses?
A) 510
B) 1022
C) 2046
D) 4192
Q3) In 1993, the IETF devised a shorthand method for identifying network and host bits in an IP address. What is this method, and how do you use it?
Q4) Network segmentation at Layer 2 of the OSI model is accomplished using VLANs. A)True
B)False
Q5) How do unmanaged switches and managed switches differ from each other?
Q6) How does a DHCP relay agent allow a centrally managed DHCP server to handle assignments for multiple subnets?
Q7) When a hacker attempts to perform a VLAN hopping attack, what are the two approaches likely to be used?
Page 10
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Q1) The day after Patch Tuesday is informally dubbed Exploit Wednesday.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of door access control is a physical or electronic lock that requires a code in order to open the door?
A) key fob lock
B) cipher lock
C) biometric lock
D) encrypted lock
Q3) It is ideal to use the same password for multiple different applications, provided the password is complex enough.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Utilized by China's so-called "Great Firewall", what type of attack can prevent user access to web pages, or even redirect them to illegitimate web pages?
A) MAC address spoofing
B) denial-of-service attack
C) DNS poisoning
D) rogue DHCP server
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Q1) What is NOT a variable that an network access control list can filter traffic with?
A) The Network layer protocol used for the packet.
B) The Transport layer protocol used for the packet.
C) The source or destination TCP/UDP port number in the packet.
D) The operating system used by the source or destination device.
Q2) Which legacy authentication protocol requires mutual authentication?
A) Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
B) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
C) Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (MS-CHAP)
D) Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, version 2 (MS-CHAPv2)
Q3) The Wired Equivalent Privacy standard had what significant disadvantage?
A) It did not allow the use of a password for access to the network.
B) It provided no encryption for traffic sent over the air.
C) It used a shared encryption key for all clients, and the key might never change.
D) It only encrypted the initial connection authentication, but did not encrypt subsequent traffic.
Q4) What are the three components required to manage access control to a network and its resources?
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Q1) The Link Aggregation Control Protocol was initially defined by what IEEE standard?
A) IEEE 802.3af
B) IEEE 802.1cd
C) IEEE 802.3ad
D) IEEE 802.3bd
Q2) Sections of a disaster recovery plan related to computer systems should include what information?
Q3) The creation of a response team should include what team roles?
Q4) The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) can be configured in what three different ways?
Q5) Wireshark or any other monitoring software running on a single computer connected to a switch doesn't see all the traffic on a network, but only the traffic the switch sends to it, which includes broadcast traffic and traffic specifically addressed to the computer.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the difference between a fault and a failure in relation to networking?
Q7) In response to an incident, how should chain of custody of evidence be handled?
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Q8) How do the three versions of the Simple Network Management Protocol differ?

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Q1) Multiplexing enables a single T1 circuit to carry how many channels?
A) 1
B) 12
C) 24
D) 64
Q2) All ISDN connections were based on what two different types of channels?
Q3) When using DOCSIS 3.0, what is the minimum number of channels that can be used?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 16
Q4) What is the role of a multiplexer when working with T-carrier lines?
Q5) What is a data-link connection identifier (DLCI) utilized for?
A) It is used by routers to determine which circuit to forward a frame to in a frame relay network.
B) It is used by routers to establish a packet-switched path to the destination.
C) It is used by ATM switches to determine how to create a switched virtual circuit.
D) It is a locally significant ID used to send connectionless information.
Q6) List and describe the four different generations of cellular technology.
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