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This course provides a comprehensive overview of designing and implementing computer networks to support organizational objectives and operations. Students will learn the fundamental principles of network architecture, including topologies, protocols, and security considerations. The course covers practical methodologies for assessing requirements, selecting appropriate network hardware and software, and developing detailed network blueprints. Through hands-on labs and projects, students will gain experience configuring routers, switches, and wireless components, as well as implementing security policies and troubleshooting network issues. By the end of the course, students will be equipped with the skills to design scalable, reliable, and secure network infrastructures for diverse environments.
Recommended Textbook
Computer Networking from LANs to WANs Hardware Software and Security 1st Edition by
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Q1) In the Physical Layer,the encoding technique,the type of connector used,and the data rate,all of which are physical properties,are established.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The ____ Layer takes care of framing data,error detection,and maintains flow control over the physical connection.
A)Network
B)Data-Link
C)Transport
D)Session
Answer: B
Q3) Networks in homes,office buildings,health care facilities,or on college campuses
A)Baseband system
B)MANs
C)LANs
D)Broadband system
E)WANs
Answer: C
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Q1) ____________________ is a logical,not physical,activity and is accomplished using a special subnet mask,such as 255.255.255.192.
Answer: Subnetting
Q2) A network that can be partitioned is secure and reliable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A(n)____ is a 32-bit number used to locate and identify nodes on the Internet.
A)MAC address
B)TCP address
C)Ethernet address
D)IP address
Answer: D
Q4) Even if the encrypted traffic is intercepted,chances are very small that the contents can be decrypted if a suitably strong encryption method and key are used.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The 10 in 10base2 stands for 10 Mbps,the bit rate of the system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The connection from the cable system ISP to the Internet uses traditional telecommunications devices,such as T1 or T3 lines.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) List the three varieties of Ethernet cables.
Answer: RG-58 coaxial cable,used for 10base2 operation (also called thinwire)
RG-11 coaxial cable,used for 10base5 operation (also called thickwire)
5Unshielded twisted pair (UTP),used for 10baseT,100baseT,and 1000baseT operation
Q4) An ____ cable is typically orange,with black rings around the cable every 2.5 meters.
A)RG-10
B)RG-11
C)RG-12
D)RG-13
Answer: B

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Q1) Diffused IR uses line-of-sight IR lasers and provides a faster data rate than diffused IR.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ____________________ area is where all data from the upper networking layers are carried.
Q3) The destination address is the destination ____________________ address of the station that is to receive the frame.
Q4) Discuss excess utilization.
Q5) When all the bits of a frame have been received,it is possible that the last bit received is not the last bit of the final byte in the frame.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Every Ethernet device manufactured (NIC,router)contains a unique ____-bit MAC address assigned by the manufacturer.
A)24
B)32
C)48
D)64

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Q1) The ____________________ bits indicate the current priority of the token and any associated information frames.
Q2) Contains support for voice,video,and other multimedia applications
A)ARCnet
B)Token
C)Bluetooth
D)Scatternet
E)FDDI-II
Q3) IEEE 802.5 limits the number of stations on any ring to ____.
A)33
B)78
C)125
D)250
Q4) ____ can be used to determine the distance to a fault in a cable.
A)TDRs
B)RDRs
C)TPRs
D)TLRs
Q5) ____________________ is where an unwanted message,picture,or sound is sent to a Bluetooth device.
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Q1) In the System Properties window,if a small ____ is present on the Network adapters device,there is a problem with the NIC or its driver.
A)exclamation mark
B)question mark
C)red 'X'
D)diagonal line
Q2) Discuss why the use of coax in Ethernet networking is obsolete.
Q3) Discuss how to use test equipment to detect hardware problems.
Q4) Use a ____ to get the fastest data transfer speed between two direct connected computers running Windows 9x.
A)serial cable
B)Firewire cable
C)parallel cable
D)USB cable
Q5) Discuss baseband versus broadband.
Q6) The ____________________ button on the Connect Direct Connection window allows access to many configuration options available under Windows XP.
Q7) List three ways to connect just two computers.
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Q1) When a protocol is bound to a network adapter (a NIC or dial-up adapter)a communication channel is formed between the protocol and the adapter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A special dynamic database called ____ maps NetBIOS names to IP addresses when larger networks are needed.
A)WINS
B)DNS
C)WIND
D)NDS
Q3) In serial communication,an 8-bit binary number is transmitted one bit at a time,beginning with the ____________________ bit.
Q4) The number of transitions per second
A)SLIP
B)Parity
C)Baud
D)NetBEUI
E)Serial
Q5) The first bit in a 11-bit transmission waveform is the ____________________ bit.
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Q1) Many FTP sites allow you to log in as an anonymous user,which is an open account with limited privileges,but still capable of file transfers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____ is a TCP/IP application that determines the path through the network to a destination entered by the user.
A)NETSTAT
B)IFCONFIG
C)TRACERT
D)NBTSTAT
Q3) ____ displays protocol statistics and current TCP/IP network connections.
A)NETSTAT
B)IFCONFIG
C)TRACERT
D)NBTSTAT
Q4) Describe protocol analyzers.
Q5) The IP datagram is transmitted on a local network to a special purpose device called a(n)____________________.
Q6) Discuss the functionality of PING.
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Q1) Responsible for the majority of traffic on a NetWare network
A)Internet Packet Exchange (IPX)protocol
B)SSCP
C)NCP
D)IPX/SPX protocol suite
E)Sequenced Packet Exchange (SPX)protocol
Q2) In IPX,the ____ field indicates the number of bytes in the IPX packet,including the 30-byte header.
A)Control
B)Length
C)Marker
D)Description
Q3) A(n)____________________ unit is used to access the programs run by the end user.
Q4) The IPX network addressing space is flat,meaning there is no subnetting allowed. A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ is used to synchronize both ends of the SPX connection to achieve maximum throughput.
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Q6) List and describe the two segments of the SNA protocol stack.
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Q1) ____________________ switching reduces the latency of a switch tremendously.
Q2) Responsible for directing the received frames from each input port to the appropriate output port
A)Crossbar switch
B)Buffer
C)Switching fabric
D)Input port logic
E)Multiplexed bus
Q3) Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)was initially developed to recover many of the unused addresses in class A and class C networks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the ____________________ section,each output port contains an Ethernet transmitter and output frame buffer.
Q5) The ____ is a link-state routing protocol based on IS-IS.
A)NetWare Link State Protocol
B)NetWare Link Services Protocol
C)NetWare Link Layer Protocol
D)NetWare Link Structure Protocol
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Q1) Discuss the advantage of having a disk image.
Q2) A proxy-service firewall provides a combination of packet-filtering and proxy-service in one unit,requiring the most amount of inspection time per packet.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is a firewall?
Q4) A(n)____ is a stand-alone hardware unit that connects to the network or a software program running on a network host,collecting statistical information about the network performance.
A)program analyzer
B)packet analyzer
C)interface analyzer
D)protocol analyzer
Q5) A ____ is a partitioning of the ports on a VLAN-capable switch into LAN groups whose traffic is isolated from each other.
A)private LAN
B)software LAN
C)segmented LAN
D)virtual LAN
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Q1) IMAP does not provide direct access to the messages that are stored on the server.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A protocol designed to provide access to electronic messages that are stored on a mail server
A)Header
B)IMAP
C)IMAP4
D)Base64 encoding method
E)SMTP
Q3) Two of the most common e-mail errors stem from the user incorrectly specifying either ____.
A)the mailbox name or the computer name
B)the username or the mailbox name
C)the computer name or the server name
D)the username or the user's address
Q4) List three features that the MIME standard provides.
Q5) What is IMAP and what does it do?
Q6) Describe the features of IMAP4rev1.
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Q1) It is always a good idea to record the FTP activity of the server into a(n)____________________ file.
Q2) The initial response from an FTP server is called the ____.
A)greeting
B)handshake
C)sync
D)connect
Q3) An FTP ____________________ consists of a command or an action to be performed.
Q4) On a Windows NT/2000/XP/2003/Vista/2008 computer,the ____ program provides the FTP service.
A)Microsoft Internet Interface Services
B)Microsoft Information Services
C)Microsoft Internet Provider Services
D)Microsoft Internet Information Services
Q5) Defines standard control codes and nonprinting character functions for Telnet
A)SSH
B)Text file
C)PuTTY
D)Binary file
E)NVT

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Q1) When a GIF image is being displayed,any pixels whose color is the ____________________ color will cause the background to show through.
Q2) Discuss why VoIP service in the residential and business community is becoming more common.
Q3) Animation in a GIF image is accomplished by storing all of the animation images in a single GIF image file,with appropriate time delays inserted between the display of each stored image,one after another.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ____ file is the standard audio file format used by Windows.
A)AAC
B)MIDI
C)MP3
D)WAV
Q5) GIF is the best format for high-quality images.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List the features of GIF images.
Q7) List and describe the three types of frames that MPEG video is processed in.
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Q1) ____________________ Web pages contain a combination of HTML code and Java applets,or Microsoft Active Server Pages.
Q2) List the capabilities that a VPN using PPTP or L2TP provides.
Q3) The Web ___________________ is used to navigate the Internet by selecting links on any Web page or by specifying an address,in the form of a Uniform Resource Locator.
Q4) Allows for remote private LANs to communicate securely through an untrusted public network such as the Internet
A)JavaScript
B)CGI
C)VPN
D)Applet
E)CSS
Q5) Network programming is a challenging activity and requires a large investment of time and resources.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the World Wide Web.
Q7) Describe the Java programming language.
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Q1) Uses UDP datagrams and eliminates the session overhead
A)Connectionless communication
B)Socket binding
C)Socket
D)Connection-oriented communication
E)Administrator privileges
Q2) _____________________________________________ is an interpreted language useful for CGI applications.
Q3) Associates the protocol (Internet),the IP address (ANY)and the specific port number (7500)with a socket
A)Connectionless communication
B)Socket binding
C)Socket
D)Connection-oriented communication
E)Administrator privileges
Q4) The ____ function is used to send text results back to the browser.
A)cgi_write()
B)cgi_writeln()
C)cgi_printf()
D)cgi_post()
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Q1) Windows communicates with the network printer's host machine using ____________________.
Q2) A(n)_________________________ is any facility that contains its own direct connection to the Internet.
Q3) Whenever you use a network to transfer data,an entire set of ____________________ is used to set up and maintain reliable data transfer between the two network stations.
Q4) Describe ICA.
Q5) TCP/IP will not work without a DNS server.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A ____ is a printer that a user has decided to share.For the user's machine it is a local printer.
A)network printer
B)print server
C)print master
D)system printer
Q7) List the three components that the ICA uses.
Q8) Describe a network printer.

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Q9) Describe how to map a network drive.
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Q1) List the categories of choices for Active Directory installation when a domain already exists.
Q2) Windows NT actually consists of two products: ____.
A)Windows NT Master and Windows NT Client
B)Windows NT Server and Windows NT Client
C)Windows NT Server and Windows NT Workstation
D)Windows NT Server and Windows NT Basic
Q3) A ____ involves either providing or receiving services from an external domain.
A)domain partnership
B)trust key
C)trust enterprise
D)trust relationship
Q4) List four different versions of the Windows 2008 Server operating system.
Q5) Windows NT/200x is a(n)____ operating system,when it is configured properly as defined by the National Computer Security Center (NCSC).
A)C2-compliant
B)B3-compliant
C)A1-complaint
D)C1-compliant
Q6) List four important Active Directory Management features.
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Q1) The ____ operating system is a free UNIX-like operating system that was created by Linus Torvalds.
A)BSD
B)GNU
C)System V
D)Linux
Q2) All NetBIOS names must be resolved to ____.
A)IP Addresses
B)DNS names
C)TCP names
D)Winsock Addresses
Q3) List five items that need to be reviewed regularly by a Linux system administrator.
Q4) Change file protection
A)tar
B)chmod
C)man
D)cat
E)vi
Q5) Describe NIS+.
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Q1) Involves shutting down the NetWare server to perform the upgrade directly on the machine
A)Across-the-wire migration
B)OpenVMS
C)System area network card
D)In-place migration
E)Rights
Q2) Describe the two ways to perform an upgrade of NetWare.
Q3) The ____ operating system is a powerful network operating system with features such as pre-emptive multitasking,protected and virtual memory,and symmetric multiprocessing.
A)Apple OS 9
B)Mac Core OS
C)Mac OS X
D)Mac OS 11
Q4) The latest version of NetWare is version ____________________.
Q5) Explain print services in the Mac environment.
Q6) A workstation connecting to a NetWare server may do so by installing the appropriate ____________________ software.
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Q7) Security on the Mac OS X operating system is provided by

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Q1) How is data hidden inside a WAV?
Q2) What is a frequency analysis?
Q3) A ____ is visible or invisible information added to an image,video,or audio that identifies the copyright owner of the media.
A)digital signature
B)digital footprint
C)digital fingerprint
D)digital watermark
Q4) Asymmetric encryption algorithms use ____________________ keys to perform the encryption and decryption.
Q5) The power of a particular encryption technique is based on the ____.
A)key length
B)encryption strength
C)storage technique
D)system entropy
Q6) Discuss the encryption strength of symmetric and asymmetric encryption.
Q7) Describe asymmetric encryption.
Q8) A(n)____________________ is a special word,phrase,or binary number that is used during encryption or decryption to manipulate the data.
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Q1) The ability of a computer or a computer network to keep operating in the event of a hardware failure
A)Multi-homed
B)Intrusion Detection System
C)Link aggregation
D)Fault tolerance
E)Hardening
Q2) While nothing can prevent a lost connection due to an unplugged cable,the use of multi-homed computers means that two cables would have to be unplugged at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The process of making a server more secure by turning off un-necessary protocols and services,applying up-to-date patches,and securing the applications that run on the server
A)Multi-homed
B)Intrusion Detection System
C)Link aggregation
D)Fault tolerance
E)Hardening
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Q1) One way around the switch-based limitation is to use a managed switch that allows a ____ to be designated.
A)block port
B)pan port
C)management port
D)mirror port
Q2) Promiscuous mode guarantees that the network adapter will capture all the network traffic on the LAN.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____ is a vulnerability scanner that will scan the host system,or any and all computers on the local network or anywhere on the Internet.
A)GFI LANguard
B)NetCat
C)L0phtCrack
D)Brutus
Q4) A(n)____________________ describes the steps needed to execute the policy.
Q5) The most common approaches to password ____________________ are guessing,brute force,and dictionary attacks.
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Q1) Each RP folder contains a set of files that were changed since the last Restore Point.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ____ provides the platform on which computer hardware is managed and made available to the computer software applications.
A)application software
B)network software
C)operating system
D)router software
Q3) Using the System Reset tool a Restore Point may be chosen and the system returned back to that point in time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the steps in the incident response process.
Q5) The first thing you want to do before analyzing network traffic is make sure you have permission to look at it.
A)True
B)False
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