Network Design and Implementation
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Network Design and Implementation introduces students to the principles and practices involved in creating and deploying computer networks that meet organizational needs. The course covers network topologies, protocols, hardware selection, security considerations, and scalable architectures, emphasizing the design process from needs analysis to documentation. Students will gain hands-on experience planning, configuring, and troubleshooting local and wide-area networks, and will explore current technologies such as wireless networking, virtual networking, and cloud-based solutions. By the end of the course, students will be equipped with the skills necessary to design robust, efficient, and secure networks suitable for various environments.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) If your network consists of all connected devices connecting to one central device, such as a switch, what type of topology is being used?
A) bus topology
B) star topology
C) star bus topology
D) mesh topology
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of peer-to-peer networks?
A) They lack scalability.
B) They are not necessarily secure.
C) They are impractical for connecting large numbers of computers.
D) They centralize user account logins.
Answer: D
Q3) What are the differences between the POP3 and IMAP4 protocols?
Answer: Using the POP3 (Post Office Protocol, version 3), email is downloaded to the client computer. When using IMAP4 however, the client application manages the email while it's stored on the server.
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3
Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is a memorandum of understanding document utilized?
Answer: An MOU (memorandum of understanding) documents the intentions of two or more parties to enter into a binding agreement, or contract, and is sometimes used between an informal handshake and the legally binding signatures on contracts. The MOU can be helpful in pushing along contract negotiations and in defining specific concerns of each party, but it is usually not a legally binding document, does not grant extensive rights to either party, provides no legal recourse, and is not intended to provide thorough coverage of the agreement to come.
Q2) What statement regarding main distribution frame or main distribution facilities is accurate?
A) The MDF and entrance facility are always in separate rooms.
B) The MDF refers to the racks holding network equipment in an organization.
C) The MDF provides intermediate connection between the IDF and end-user equipment on each floor.
D) The MDF is the centralized point of interconnection for an organization's LAN or WAN. Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Encrypted control of remote computers using the RDP protocol is accomplished using what port number?
A) TCP 22
B) UDP 161
C) TCP 3389
D) UDP 10000
Answer: C
Q2) An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits that are written as 10 blocks of hexadecimal numbers separated by colons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) DNS follows a centralized database model, allowing for easier management of DNS records.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pathping utility sends 10 pings per hop by default.
A)True
B)False
Q2) UDP provides error checking, but not sequencing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The cost of upgrading infrastructure has been a major factor in the slow adoption of IPv6.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which command will produce statistics about each message transmitted by a host, separated according to protocol type?
A) ipconfig -s
B) netstat -s
C) ipstat -a
D) netstat -an
Q5) In general, a Layer 3 or Layer 4 switch is still optimized for fast Layer 2 data handling.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Signals that can travel in only one direction on a medium are referred to as what type of signal?
A) full-duplex
B) duplex
C) half-duplex
D) simplex
Q2) Broadband cable Internet service and cable TV are most commonly delivered over long distances via what type of cable?
A) RG-59
B) RG-6
C) RG-20
D) LRG-50
Q3) The 1000Base-LX utilizes light with what wavelength?
A) 850 nanometers
B) 1200 nanometers
C) 1300 nanometers
D) 1550 nanometers
Q4) Noise can degrade or distort a signal on a network; what are some of its causes?
Q5) How does modal bandwidth affect the performance of a multimode fiber segment?
Q6) What is the difference between bandwidth and throughput?
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some of the different types of wireless topologies that can be created?
Q2) Infrared technology utilizes an LED that emits light with shorter wavelengths than red light.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does the 802.11 data frame indicate how a large packet should be fragmented?
A) It uses the preamble header to estimate the ideal packet size.
B) The frame check sequence dictates the calculated packet size.
C) The sequence control field indicates how packets will be subdivided.
D) The duration field determines how long the station can transmit a packet, which then determines how it is divided.
Q4) In an 802.11 data frame, what is the size of the frame check sequence field?
A) 2 bytes
B) 4 bytes
C) 6 bytes
D) 8 bytes
Q5) Why should the WPS PIN feature be avoided if possible?
Q6) The Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN) is defined in the 802.15 standard.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The PPP headers and trailers used to create a PPP frame that encapsulates Network layer packets vary between 8 and 10 bytes in size due to what field?
A) priority
B) FCS
C) FEC
D) encryption
Q2) By default, what network connection type is selected when creating a VM in VMware, VirtualBox, or KVM?
A) host-only mode
B) bridged mode
C) NAT mode
D) lockdown mode
Q3) What security encryption protocol requires regular re-establishment of a connection and can be used with any type of TCP/IP transmission?
A) L2TP
B) TLS
C) IPsec
D) SSL
Q4) How is the CIA triad used to evaluate encryption methods?
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have been tasked with the creation and design of a network that must support a minimum of 5000 hosts. Which network accomplishes this goal?
A) 10.3.0.0/19
B) 172.20.50.0/23
C) 192.168.0.0/20
D) 10.90.0.0/22
Q2) A network with 10 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses?
A) 510
B) 1022
C) 2046
D) 4192
Q3) A /24 CIDR block is equivalent to a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A network with a CIDR notation of /26 would have what subnet mask?
A) 255.255.255.0
B) 255.255.255.192
C) 255.255.255.224
D) 255.255.255.240
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following utilities performs sophisticated vulnerability scans, and can identify unencrypted data such as credit card numbers?
A) Nmap
B) Nessus
C) Metasploit
D) L0phtcrack
Q2) In a red team-blue team exercise, what is the purpose of the blue team?
A) The blue team is tasked with attacking the network.
B) The blue team must observe the actions of the red team.
C) The blue team is charged with the defense of the network.
D) The blue team consists of regulators that ensure no illegal activity is undertaken.
Q3) A virus that remains dormant until a specific condition is met, such as the changing of a file or a match of the current date is known as what type of malware?
A) encrypted virus
B) logic bomb
C) boot sector virus
D) worm
Q4) How does a zero-day exploit differ from a typical exploit?
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Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the three methods of access control (RBAC, DAC, and MAC), RBAC is the least secure of the options.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the three components required to manage access control to a network and its resources?
Q3) What IEEE standard includes an encryption key generation and management scheme known as TKIP?
A) 802.11i
B) 802.11h
C) 802.1X
D) 802.11j
Q4) When using a host-based intrusion detection system, what additional feature might be available to alert the system of any changes made to files that shouldn't change?
A) file integrity monitoring (FIM)
B) file change management (FCM)
C) file access auditing (FAA)
D) file checksum watching (FCW)
Q5) How does the CCMP help ensure data confidentiality?
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do the three versions of the Simple Network Management Protocol differ?
Q2) What 3-bit field in a 802.1Q tag is modified to set a frame's Class of Service (CoS)?
A) EtherType
B) CRC checksum
C) Tag Protocol Identifier (TPID)
D) Priority Code Point (PCP)
Q3) What statement regarding the use of a network attached storage device is accurate?
A) A NAS does not contain its own file system, rather it relies on the host file system provided by individual clients.
B) A NAS reads and writes from its disks significantly slower than other types of servers.
C) A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service.
D) A NAS can typically only support RAID-0 configurations.
Q4) Class of Service utilizes 8 levels of priority, and modifies the PCP field in an 802.1Q tag.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In response to an incident, how should chain of custody of evidence be handled?
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) List and describe the four different generations of cellular technology.
Q2) On an ATM network, how is the path that data will take determined?
A) Switches determine the optimal path between sender and receiver, and then establish the path before transmission.
B) Data is transmitted, and then the path taken will vary depending on the load encountered at each ATM participant node.
C) A frame relay route table establishes each hop that will be taken to a single destination.
D) When data is ready to be transmitted, an ATM participating router will contact the destination ATM router, establish a tunnel, then pass the data.
Q3) Which SONET OC level is a popular choice for large businesses, and is equivalent to 100 T1s?
A) OC-1
B) OC-3
C) OC-12
D) OC-24
Q4) The NIU (network interface unit) or NID (network interface device) at the ISP's demarc serves what purpose?
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Page 14