Network Defense and Countermeasures
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Network Defense and Countermeasures explores the strategies, tools, and best practices used to protect computer networks from internal and external threats. This course covers topics such as risk analysis, intrusion detection and prevention systems, firewalls, VPNs, and endpoint security. Students will learn about common attack vectors, how to identify vulnerabilities, and the implementation of layered defense strategies to mitigate security risks. Hands-on labs provide practical experience in configuring defensive technologies, analyzing traffic for suspicious activity, and responding to security incidents. By the end of the course, students will be equipped with the knowledge and skills to design and manage resilient network security infrastructures.
Recommended Textbook
CompTIA Security Guide to Network Security Fundamentals 6th Edition by Mark Ciampa
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15 Chapters
750 Verified Questions
750 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q2) Which law requires banks and financial institutions to alert customers of their policies and practices in disclosing customer information?
A)Gramm-Leach-Bliley
B)Sarbanes-Oxley
C)California Database Security Breach
D)USA Patriot Answer: A
Q3) The Security Administrator reports directly to the CIO.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q4) To mitigate risk is the attempt to address risk by making the risk less serious.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Malware and Social Engineering Attacks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe a macro virus.
Answer: A macro virus is written in a script known as a macro.A macro is a series of commands and instructions that can be grouped together as a single command.Macros often are used to automate a complex set of tasks or a repeated series of tasks.Macros can be written by using a macro language,such as Visual Basic for Applications (VBA),and are stored within the user document (such as in an Excel .XLSX worksheet).Once the document is opened,the macro instructions execute,whether those instructions are benign or a macro virus.
Q2) What term below is used to describe the process of gathering information for an attack by relying on the weaknesses of individuals?
A)phreaking
B)hacking
C)social engineering
D)reverse engineering
Answer: C
Q3) What are botnets?
Answer: Botnets are collections of thousands or even hundreds of thousands of zombie computers are gathered into a logical computer network under the control of an attacker,or bot herder.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Basic Cryptography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are considered to be common asymmetric cryptographic algorithms? (Choose all that apply. )
A)Data Encryption Standard
B)Elliptic Curve Cryptography
C)Advanced Encryption Standard
D)Digital Signature Algorithm
Answer: B,D
Q2) Which hash algorithm's primary design feature is two different and independent parallel chains of computation,the results of which are then combined at the end of the process?
A)SHA-384
B)HMAC
C)RIPEMD
D)MD5
Answer: C
Q3) The XOR cipher is based on the binary operation eXclusive OR that compares two bits.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Advanced Cryptography and PKI
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Sample Questions
Q1) A digital certificate is a technology used to associate a user's identity to a private key.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Authentication Header (AH)protocol is a part of what encryption protocol suite below?
A)TLS 3.0
B)IPSec
C)GPG
D)SSL
Q3) What allows an application to implement an encryption algorithm for execution?
A)counters
B)crypto service providers
C)initialization vectors
D)crypto modules
Q4) What is used to create session keys?
A)master secret
B)crypto modules
C)validation
D)domain validation
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Chapter 5: Networking and Server Attacks
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is a network-based MITM attack executed?
Q2) When TCP/IP was developed,the host table concept was expanded into a hierarchical name system for matching computer names and numbers using this service:
A)HTTP
B)NSDB
C)URNS
D)DNS
Q3) The exchange of information among DNS servers regarding configured zones is known as:
A)resource request
B)zone sharing
C)zone transfer
D)zone removal
Q4) Where are MAC addresses stored for future reference?
A)MAC cache
B)Ethernet cache
C)ARP cache
D)NIC
Q5) How does a buffer overflow attack occur?
Q6) How does a cross-site scripting (XSS)attack work?
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Chapter 6: Network Security Devices, Design, and Technology
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Sample
Questions
Q1) What is the difference between anomaly based monitoring and signature based monitoring?
Q2) Describe how a mail gateway operates?
Q3) How does a Unified Threat Management (UTM)security product help reduce administrative overhead?
Q4) All modern operating systems include a hardware firewall,usually called a host-based firewall.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An early networking device that functioned at layer 1 of the OSI model and added devices to a single segment is known as which of the following choices?
A)switch
B)router
C)firewall
D)hub
Q6) Anomaly monitoring is designed for detecting statistical anomalies.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe how VLAN communication takes place.
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Chapter 7: Administering a Secure Network
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Sample Questions
Q1) SNMP-managed devices must have an agent or a service that listens for commands and then executes them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss at least two security advantages of a host running virtualization.
Q3) When using SNMPv1 or SNMPv2,what piece of information is needed to view information from an agent?
A)entity
B)community string
C)MIB
D)OID
Q4) In what type of cloud computing does the customer have some control over the operating systems,storage,and their installed applications?
A)Application as a Service
B)Infrastructure as a Service
C)Software as a Service
D)System as a Service
Q5) What Microsoft Windows feature prevents attackers from using buffer overflows to execute malware?
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Chapter 8: Wireless Network Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) An access point that is unauthorized and allows an attacker to bypass network security configurations is considered to be what type of access point?
A)random
B)sanctioned
C)rogue
D)legitimate
Q2) Discuss the different types of interference one might encounter using wireless devices.
Q3) In ad hoc mode,devices can only communicate between themselves and cannot connect to another network.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following self-contained APs are autonomous,or independent,because they are separate from other network devices and even other autonomous APs?
A)fat APs
B)single APs
C)thin APs
D)super APs
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Chapter 9: Client and Application Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-virus products typically utilize what type of virus scanning analysis?
A)Static analysis
B)Wildcard scanning analysis
C)Heuristic detection analysis
D)String scanning analysis
Q2) An automated patch update service is used to manage patches within the enterprise instead of relying on the vendor's online updates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What specific process in application development removes a resource that is no longer needed?
A)deprovisioning
B)version control
C)change management
D)baselining
Q4) What is a bollard?
Q5) What is provisioning?
Q6) What type of package helps prevent computers from becoming infected by different types of spyware?
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Chapter 10: Mobile and Embedded Device Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) List at least three things that can be done in order to reduce the risk of theft or loss of a mobile device.
Q2) An embedded system is computer hardware and software contained within a smaller system that is designed for a specific function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What particular option can be used mobile devices that contain both personal and corporate data?
Q4) Which of the following frameworks requires a QR code or PIN on each IoT device for authenticating it to the network,and uses an Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman secure key exchange and a Transport Layer Security (TLS)tunnel?
A)P2413 Standard
B)European Union Telecomm Law and Regulations
C)Security 2 (S2)framework
D)Industrial Internet Security Framework (IISF)
Q5) Describe a notebook computer in relation to a laptop computer.
Q6) What is the Internet of Things (IoT)?
Q7) What basic steps are included in securing mobile devices?
Q8) How might an attacker misuse a QR code?
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Chapter 11: Authentication and Account Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a retina scanner work?
Q2) Why should account passwords be disabled instead of the account being immediately deleted?
Q3) Which of the following is a category of group password settings in Microsoft Windows? (Choose all that apply. )
A)Password Policy Settings
B)Account Policy Settings
C)Password Lockout Policy
D)Account Lockout Policy
Q4) Hash algorithms like MD5 and SHA are considered secure for creating digests because these hashing algorithms are designed to create a digest as strong as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What can be used to increase the strength of hashed passwords?
A)salt
B)key stretching
C)double hashing
D)single crypting
Q6) What are the three advantages of a rainbow table over other password attacks?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Access Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What process periodically validates a user's account,access control,and membership role or inclusion in a specific group?
A)recertification
B)revalidation
C)control audit
D)group auditing
Q2) During RADIUS authentication,what type of packet includes information such as identification of a specific AP that is sending the packet and the username and password?
A)accounting request
B)access request
C)verification request
D)authentication request
Q3) Discuss the differences between DAP and LDAP.
Q4) Least privilege in access control means that only the minimum amount of privileges necessary to perform a job or function should be allocated.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List three major access control models.
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Chapter 13: Vulnerability Assessment and Data Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is defined as the state or condition of being free from public attention to the degree that you determine?
A)freedom
B)secure
C)privacy
D)contentment
Q2) What type of reconnaissance is a penetration tester performing if they are using tools that do not raise any alarms?
A)active
B)passive
C)invasive
D)evasive
Q3) Vulnerability scanning should be conducted on existing systems and particularly as new technology equipment is deployed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List two types of hardening techniques.
Q5) Describe the purpose of a honeypot.
Q6) Describe a penetration testing report.
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Chapter 14: Business Continuity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A location that has all the equipment installed but does not have active Internet or telecommunications facilities,and does not have current backups of data,is an example of a:
A)cold site
B)hot site
C)spare site
D)warm site
Q2) What type of assessment can determine if a system contains PII,whether a privacy impact assessment is required,and if any other privacy requirements apply to the IT system?
A)privacy threshold
B)privacy impact
C)privacy availability
D)privacy identification
Q3) The goal of redundancy is to reduce what variable?
A)average time between failures
B)mean time to recovery
C)median time to recovery
D)median time between failures
Q4) Why should redundant networks be implemented in many enterprise environments?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Risk Mitigation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term below describes the art of helping an adult learn?
A)andragogical
B)pedagogical
C)deontological
D)metagogical
Q2) Why should authorization be obtained for penetration testing and vulnerability testing?
Q3) What control is designed to identify any threat that has reached the system?
A)preventive control
B)compensating control
C)detective control
D)deterrent control
Q4) What describes an agreement between two or more parties and demonstrates a "convergence of will" between the parties?so that they can work together?
A)MOU
B)NDA
C)BPA
D)ISA
Q5) List and describe three of the six risk categories.
Q6) What is a risk register?
Page 17
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