Network+ Certification Preparation Review
Questions
Course Introduction
This course is designed to prepare students for the CompTIA Network+ certification exam by providing a comprehensive overview of networking concepts, technologies, and best practices. Topics include network architecture, protocols, routing and switching, network security, wireless networking, troubleshooting techniques, and network operations. Through a blend of theoretical instruction and hands-on labs, students will develop the skills needed to design, manage, and secure both wired and wireless networks. Emphasis is placed on real-world applications, industry standards, and exam-specific content to ensure students are well-equipped to achieve Network+ certification and pursue careers in network administration and support.
Recommended Textbook
Network+ Guide to Networks 8th Edition Jill West
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12 Chapters
600 Verified Questions
600 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the two different categories of Application layer protocols, and then detail the PDU used at this layer.
Answer: Application layer protocols are used by programs that fall into two categories:
*Application programs that provide services to a user, such as a browser and Web server using the HTTP Application layer protocol
*Utility programs that provide services to the system, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) programs that monitor and gather information about network traffic and can alert network administrators about adverse conditions that need attention.
Data that is passed between applications or utility programs and the operating system is called a payload and includes control information. The two end-system computers that initiate sending and receiving data are called hosts.
Q2) The Transport layer header addresses a receiving application by a number called a MAC address.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Network Infrastructure and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of designing, implementing, and maintaining an entire network is called the system life cycle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The TIA/EIA standard for wall jacks in a work area require that at least one outlet be provided for data and one for voice.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Your company is setting itself up to distribute software made by another company. What type of document should your company procure from the developing company?
A) master service agreement
B) master license agreement
C) service-level agreement
D) memorandum of understanding
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Addressing on Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following IP addresses would be a loopback IP address?
A) 169.254.0.1
B) 192.168.1.1
C) 224.0.0.1
D) 127.0.0.1
Answer: D
Q2) DNS follows a centralized database model, allowing for easier management of DNS records.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a range of IP addresses recommended for use in private networks?
A) 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255
B) 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255
C) 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
D) 127.0.0.0 through 127.255.255.255
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Network Protocols and Routing
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are routing paths determined?
Q2) What is the purpose of the checksum TCP field?
A) It specifies special options, such as the maximum segment size a network can handle.
B) It allows the receiving node to determine whether the TCP segment became corrupted during transmission.
C) It identifies the data segment's position in the stream of data segments being sent.
D) It confirms receipt of data via a return message to the sender.
Q3) Which traceroute command will perform a trace using ICMP echo requests instead of UDP datagrams to the host srv1.mycompany.com?
A) traceroute -i srv1.mycompany.com
B) traceroute -w srv1.mycompany.com
C) traceroute -o ICMP srv1.mycompany.com
D) traceroute -I srv1.mycompany.com
Q4) What is MAC address spoofing?
Q5) The Border Gateway Protocol is considered to be a hybrid routing protocol.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Network Cabling
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a time domain reflectometer (TDR) work?
Q2) A continuity tester should not be used on a live network segment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What multiplexing technology lowers cost by spacing frequency bands wider apart to allow for cheaper transceiver equipment?
A) statistical time division multiplexing
B) dense wavelength division multiplexing
C) coarse wavelength division multiplexing
D) spaced wavelength division multiplexing
Q4) Latency on data networks is based on a calculation of a packet's round trip time (RTT).
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a coaxial cabling, what does the RG rating measure?
A) The number of twists in the copper core.
B) The overall thickness of the cable.
C) The maximum distance the cable is rated for, in kilometers.
D) The materials used for shielding and conducting cores.
Q6) Noise can degrade or distort a signal on a network; what are some of its causes?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Wireless Networking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Z-Wave transmissions have a range of up to 50m per hop, and can tolerate up to 8 hops through repeaters.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Infrared technology utilizes an LED that emits light with shorter wavelengths than red light.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Upon connecting to a Wi-Fi network, you're redirected to a login screen and a request to accept terms of service before being connected. What is this an example of?
A) guest network profile
B) captive portal
C) WPA2-Enterprise
D) browser hijacking
Q4) Why should an access point not always utilize all the power it has for broadcasting wireless signals?
Q5) How does configuration of wireless clients for wireless access in an enterprise environment differ from normal setup?
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Chapter 7: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
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Sample Questions
Q1) After L2TP establishing a VPN tunnel, GRE is used to transmit L2TP data frames through the tunnel.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All types of remote access techniques connecting to a network require at least one of what two different types of remote access server?
Q3) What is NOT a potential disadvantage of utilizing virtualization?
A) Multiple virtual machines contending for finite resources can compromise performance.
B) Increased complexity and administrative burden can result from the use of virtual machines.
C) Licensing costs can be high due to every instance of commercial software requiring a separate license.
D) Virtualization software increases the complexity of backups, making creation of usable backups difficult.
Q4) Why is the DTLS (Datagram Transport Layer Security) protocol used for streaming applications that need security?
Q5) What is the difference between a virtual firewall and a software firewall?
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Chapter 8: Subnets and VLANs
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Sample Questions
Q1) By default, when using classful addressing, how many bits exist in the host portion of a Class A address?
A) 8
B) 16
C) 24
D) 32
Q2) Network segmentation at Layer 2 of the OSI model is accomplished using VLANs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What command will set the native VLAN on a Juniper switch port?
A) switchport trunk native vlan
B) switchport set native vlan
C) config native vlan
D) set native-vlan-id
Q4) How large is the 802.1Q tag that is added to an Ethernet frame when using VLANs?
A) 4 bytes
B) 8 bytes
C) 12 bytes
D) 20 bytes
Q5) What are some common configuration errors that can occur when configuring VLANs?
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Chapter 9: Network Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A variant of BYOD, what does CYOD allow employees or students to do?
A) They can supply their own software on a computer or mobile device.
B) They can supply their choice of cloud application or storage.
C) They can choose a device from a limited number of options.
D) They can use whatever devices they wish to bring.
Q2) In a red team-blue team exercise, what is the purpose of the blue team?
A) The blue team is tasked with attacking the network.
B) The blue team must observe the actions of the red team.
C) The blue team is charged with the defense of the network.
D) The blue team consists of regulators that ensure no illegal activity is undertaken.
Q3) A person posing as an employee strikes up a conversation with a legitimate employee as they walk into a secured area, in an attempt to gain access. What kind of social engineering is this?
A) phishing
B) baiting
C) quid pro quo
D) tailgating
Q4) List and describe the four different locations in which anti-malware can be installed.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Security in Network Design
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proxy servers and ACLs on network devices are examples of non-security devices with security features, while firewalls and IDS/IPS systems are the network's specialized security devices.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You have been tasked with the configuration of a Juniper switch, and have been told to restrict the number of MAC addresses allowed in the MAC address table. What command should you use?
A) set max-mac
B) set total-macs
C) mac-address limit
D) mac-limit
Q3) What is the purpose of Unified Threat Management (UTM)?
Q4) If your LAN utilizes a proxy server, and you wish to send an email message from your workstation inside the LAN to a colleague via the Internet, what does this process look like?
Q5) How does a reverse proxy differ from a normal proxy?
Q6) What is multifactor authentication, and what are some examples?
Q7) How does the Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) function?
Q8) Describe the TACACS+ AAA protocol, and detail how it differs from RADIUS.
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Chapter 11: Network Performance and Recovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What statement regarding the use of a network attached storage device is accurate?
A) A NAS does not contain its own file system, rather it relies on the host file system provided by individual clients.
B) A NAS reads and writes from its disks significantly slower than other types of servers.
C) A NAS can be easily expanded without interrupting service.
D) A NAS can typically only support RAID-0 configurations.
Q2) How do the three versions of the Simple Network Management Protocol differ?
Q3) The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) can be configured in what three different ways?
Q4) A system with an availability of 99.999% can be down for a maximum of 52 minutes per year.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In planning for disaster recovery, what is the ultimate goal?
A) The preservation of critical data.
B) The continuation of business.
C) The management of damage.
D) The protection of infrastructure.
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Chapter 12: Wide Area Networks
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Sample Questions
Q1) In North America, what ISDN connection type used two B channels and one D channel?
A) Basic Rate Interface (BRI)
B) Primary Rate Interface (PRI)
C) Bearer Rate Interface (BRI)
D) Dedicated Rate Interface (DRI)
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of leasing a frame relay circuit over leasing a dedicated circuit?
A) You are guaranteed to receive the maximum amount of bandwidth specified in the circuit contract
B) You pay only for the bandwidth you require.
C) The paths that your data will take are always known.
D) Frame relay is a newly established network technology with more features than other technology.
Q3) What is the MPLS standard, and why is it often used by ISPs to move traffic from one customer site to another?
Q4) List and describe the four different generations of cellular technology.
Q5) How does a LAN connection differ from a WAN connection?
Q6) How is ATM able to guarantee a specific QoS for certain types of transmissions?
Page 14
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