Network and Systems Security Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Network and Systems Security is a comprehensive course that explores the principles, practices, and tools essential for protecting digital assets in modern computing environments. The course covers foundational topics such as threat models, cryptographic techniques, authentication protocols, and access control mechanisms, as well as advanced subjects including firewalls, intrusion detection systems, secure network architectures, vulnerability analysis, and incident response. Through a combination of theoretical concepts and hands-on labs, students gain practical experience in assessing and mitigating security risks, designing robust security solutions, and understanding the ever-evolving landscape of cyber threats. This course prepares students for careers in cybersecurity and equips them with the knowledge to safeguard information and maintain the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of networked systems.
Recommended Textbook
Computer Security Principles and Practice 2nd Edition by William Stallings
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Computer Systems Overview
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)_________ is an attempt to learn or make use of information from the system that does not affect system resources.
A)passive attack
B)outside attack
C)inside attack
D)active attack
Answer: A
Q2) __________ assures that individuals control or influence what information related to them may be collected and stored and by whom and to whom that information may be disclosed.
A)Availability
B)Privacy
C)System Integrity
D)Data Integrity
Answer: B
Q3) Release of message contents and traffic analysis are two types of _________ attacks.
Answer: passive
Q4) A(n)_________ is any means taken to deal with a security attack.
Answer: countermeasure
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Chapter 2: Cryptographic Tools
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Q1) T F 4.The secret key is input to the encryption algorithm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) __________ is a procedure that allows communicating parties to verify that received or stored messages are authentic.
A)Cryptanalysis
B)Decryption
C)Message authentication
D)Collision resistance
Answer: C
Q3) Cryptanalytic attacks try every possible key on a piece of ciphertext until an intelligible translation into plaintext is obtained.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Also referred to as single-key encryption,the universal technique for providing confidentiality for transmitted or stored data is __________ .
Answer: symmetric encryption
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Chapter 3: User Authentication
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ defines user authentication as "the process of verifying an identity claimed by or for a system entity".
A)RFC 2828
B)RFC 2493
C)RFC 2298
D)RFC 2328
Answer: A
Q2) Presenting or generating authentication information that corroborates the binding between the entity and the identifier is the ___________.
A)identification step
B)authentication step
C)verification step
D)corroboration step
Answer: C
Q3) A token is the best means of authentication because it cannot be forged or stolen by an adversary.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Access Control
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Q1) The __________ user ID is exempt from the usual file access control constraints and has system wide access.
Q2) __________ is verification that the credentials of a user or other system entity are valid.
A)Adequacy
B)Authentication
C)Authorization
D)Audit
Q3) A(n)__________ is a resource to which access is controlled.
A)object
B)owner
C)world
D)subject
Q4) Role hierarchies make use of the concept of __________ to enable one role to implicitly include access rights associated with a subordinate role.
Q5) The default set of rights should always follow the rule of least privilege or read-only access
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Database Security
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Q1) The database management system operates on the assumption that the computer system has authenticated each user.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A telephone directory is an example of a statistical database.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Random-sample query is a simple output perturbation technique.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Statistics are derived from a database by means of a ___________.
A)characteristic formula
B)compromise
C)partition
D)data perturbation
Q5) In addition to granting and revoking access rights to a table,in a ___________ administration the owner of the table may grant and revoke authorization rights to other users,allowing them to grant and revoke access rights to the table.
Q6) The __________ is a human entity that presents requests (queries)to the system.
Q7) In a relational database columns are referred to as _________.
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Chapter 6: Malicious Software
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Q1) A computer __________ is a piece of software that can "infect" other programs or any type of executable content and tries to replicate itself.
Q2) Computer viruses first appeared in the early __________.
A)1960s
B)1970s
C)1980s
D)1990s
Q3) Unsolicited bulk e-mail is referred to as __________.
A)spam
B)propagating
C)phishing
D)crimeware
Q4) A Trojan horse is an apparently useful program containing hidden code that, when invoked,performs some harmful function.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Programmers use backdoors to debug and test programs.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A __________ is a collection of bots capable of acting in a coordinated manner.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Denial-Of-Service Attacks
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Q1) In both direct flooding attacks and ______ the use of spoofed source addresses results in response packets being scattered across the Internet and thus detectable.
A)SYN spoofing attacks
B)indirect flooding attacks
C)ICMP attacks
D)system address spoofing
Q2) The standard protocol used for call setup in VoIP is the ________ Protocol.
Q3) ______ attacks are a variant of reflector attacks and also involve sending a packet with a spoofed source address for the target system to intermediaries.
Q4) The attacker needs access to a high-volume network connection for a SYN spoof attack.
A)True
B)False
Q5) There is very little that can be done to prevent a flash crowd.
A)True
B)False
Q6) DoS attacks cause damage or destruction of IT infrastructures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Intrusion Detection
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Q1) The _______ is the ID component that analyzes the data collected by the sensor for signs of unauthorized or undesired activity or for events that might be of interest to the security administrator.
A)data source
B)sensor
C)operator
D)analyzer
Q2) Signature-based approaches attempt to define normal,or expected, behavior,whereas anomaly approaches attempt to define proper behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A _________ is a security event that constitutes a security incident in which an intruder gains access to a system without having authorization to do so.
A)intrusion detection
B)IDS
C)criminal enterprise
D)security intrusion
Q4) A distributed IDS consists of three main components: host agent module,central manager module,and ___________ module.
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Chapter 9: Firewalls and Intrusion Prevention Systems
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Q1) A _________ firewall applies a set of rules to each incoming and outgoing IP packet and then forwards or discards the packet.
Q2) A firewall can serve as the platform for IPSec.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The firewall can protect against attacks that bypass the firewall.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Snort Inline enables Snort to function as an intrusion prevention capability.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _________ control controls how particular services are used.
A)Service
B)Behavior
C)User
D)Direction
Q6) The firewall follows the classic military doctrine of _________ because it provides an additional layer of defense.
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Chapter 10: Buffer Overflow
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Q1) The x86 Assembly Language Instruction NOP means _______.
A)no operation or do nothing instruction
B)call function at addr
C)software interrupt to access operating system function
D)no push value onto the stack
Q2) The attacker can specify the return address used to enter code as a location somewhere in the run of NOPs,which is called a NOP ______.
Q3) The attacker is able to precisely specify the starting address of the instructions in the shellcode.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _______ defenses aim to detect and abort attacking existing programs.
Q5) Several of the items in the CWE/SANS Top 25 Most Dangerous
Software Errors list,Risky Resource Management category,are buffer overflow variants.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A _______ overflow occurs when the targeted buffer is located on the stack,usually as a local variable in a function's stack frame.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Software Security
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Q1) Program _______ refers to any source of data that originates outside the program and whose value is not explicitly known by the programmer when the code was written.
Q2) Defensive programming requires a changed mindset to traditional programming practices.
A)True
B)False
Q3) "Incorrect Calculation of Buffer Size" is in the __________ software error category.
A)Porous Defenses
B)Allocation of Resources
C)Risky Resource Management
D)Insecure Interaction Between Components
Q4) To counter XSS attacks a defensive programmer needs to explicitly identify any assumptions as to the form of input and to verify that any input data conform to those assumptions before any use of the data.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of transforming input data that involves replacing alternate,equivalent encodings by one common value is called _________.
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Chapter 12: Operating System Security
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Q1) ______ systems should not run automatic updates because they may possibly introduce instability.
A)Configuration controlled
B)Policy controlled
C)Change controlled
D)Process controlled
Q2) ________ refers to a technology that provides an abstraction of the computing resources that run in a simulated environment.
Q3) Unix and Linux systems grant access permissions for each resource using the ______ command.
Q4) It is possible for a system to be compromised during the installation process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A plan needs to identify appropriate personnel to install and manage the system,noting any training needed.
A)True
B)False
Q6) System security begins with the installation of the ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Trusted Computing and Multilevel Security
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Q1) The _______ is a hardware module that is at the heart of a hardware/software approach to trusted computing.
A)BLP
B)TC
C)CC
D)TPM
Q2) The addition of multilevel security to a database system does not increase the complexity of the access control function.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Multilevel security is of interest when there is a requirement to maintain a resource in which multiple levels of data sensitivity are defined.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An object is said to have a security clearance of a given level.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The _________ model is intended to deal with the case in which there is data that must be visible to users at multiple or all security levels but should only be modified in controlled ways by authorized agents.
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Chapter 14: It Security Management and Risk Assessment
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Q1) The aim of the _________ process is to provide management with the information necessary for them to make reasonable decisions on where available resources will be deployed.
Q2) ________ specification indicates the impact on the organization should the particular threat in question actually eventuate.
A)Risk
B)Consequence
C)Threat
D)Likelihood
Q3) The _________ provides the most accurate evaluation of an organization's IT system's security risks.
Q4) The purpose of ________ is to determine the basic parameters within which the risk assessment will be conducted and then to identify the assets to be examined.
A)establishing the context
B)control
C)risk avoidance
D)combining
Q5) _________ is sharing responsibility for the risk with a third party.
Q6) A(n)_________ is anything that has value to the organization.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: It Security Controls, plans, and Procedures
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Q1) The implementation process is typically monitored by the organizational ______.
A)security officer
B)general counsel
C)technology officer
D)human resources
Q2) The objective of the ________ control category is to avoid breaches of any law,statutory,regulatory,or contractual obligations,and of any security requirements.
A)access
B)asset management
C)compliance
D)business continuity management
Q3) The _______ plan documents what needs to be done for each selected control,along with the personnel responsible,and the resources and time frame to be used.
Q4) Controls can be classified as belonging to one of the following classes: management controls,operational controls,technical controls,detection and recovery controls,preventative controls,and _______ controls.
Q5) ______ checking is an audit process to review the organization's security processes.
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Chapter 16: Physical and Infrastructure Security
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Q1) The role of physical security is affected by the operating location of the information system,which can be characterized as ______ .
A)static
B)portable
C)mobile
D)all of the above
Q2) Low-intensity devices such as cellular telephones do not interfere with electronic equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person that becomes statically charged can damage electronic equipment by an electric discharge.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n)________ is a battery backup unit that can maintain power to processors,monitors,and other equipment and can also function as a surge protector,power noise filter,and an automatic shutdown device.
Q5) ______ authentication is implemented by using a fingerprint or iris data object sent from the PIV card to the PACS.
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Chapter 17: Human Resources Security
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Q1) After security basics and literacy,training becomes focused on providing the knowledge,skills,and abilities specific to an individual's _______ relative to IT systems.
Q2) A(n)________ is any file or object found on a system that might be involved in probing or attacking systems and networks or that is being used to defeat security measures.
Q3) Complying with regulations and contractual obligations is a benefit of security awareness,training,and education programs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Employees cannot be expected to follow policies and procedures of which they are unaware.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The principal problems associated with employee behavior are errors and omissions,_______,and actions by disgruntled employees.
Q6) An employer cannot be held liable for negligent hiring if an employee causes harm to a third party while acting as an employee.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Security Auditing
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Q1) ______ is detection of events within a given set of parameters,such as within a given time period or outside a given time period.
Q2) The basic audit objective is to establish accountability for system entities that initiate or participate in security-relevant events and actions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Data items to capture for a security audit trail include: A)events related to the security mechanisms on the system
B)operating system access
C)remote access
D)all of the above
Q4) Monitoring areas suggested in ISO 27002 include: authorized access,all privileged operations,unauthorized access attempts,changes to (or attempts to change)system security settings and controls,and __________.
Q5) Windows is equipped with three types of event logs: system event log,security event log,and ________ event log.
Q6) Protection of the audit trail involves both integrity and confidentiality.
A)True B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Legal and Ethical Aspects
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Q1) _____ strengthens the protection of copyrighted materials in digital format.
A)HIPPA
B)DMCA
C)WIPO
D)DRM
Q2) The purpose of the privacy functions is to provide a user protection against discovery and misuse of identity by other users.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Any intangible asset that consists of human knowledge and ideas is _______.
A)cyber property
B)personal property
C)intellectual property
D)real property
Q4) The success of cybercriminals,and the relative lack of success of law enforcement,influence the behavior of _______.
A)cyber thieves
B)cybercrime victims
C)cybercrime acts
D)cyber detectives
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Chapter 20: Symmetric Encryption and Message
Confidentiality
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Q1) Stream ciphers are far more common than block ciphers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For general-purpose stream-oriented transmission you would typically use _______ mode.
A)CTR
B)CFB
C)ECB
D)CBC
Q3) _________ is the original message or data that is fed into the algorithm as input.
A)Plaintext
B)Encryption algorithm
C)Decryption algorithm
D)Ciphertext
Q4) Symmetric encryption is also referred to as secret-key or single-key encryption.
A)True
B)False
Q5) _________ is the process of attempting to discover the plaintext or key.
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Chapter 21: Public-Key Cryptography and Message
Authentication
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Q1) "Must support hash value lengths of 224,256,384,and 512 bits" and "algorithm must process small blocks at a time instead of requiring the entire message to be buffered in memory before processing it" are requirements for ________.
Q2) ___________ was the first published public-key algorithm.
A)NIST
B)Diffie-Hellman
C)RC4
D)RSA
Q3) Cryptographic hash functions generally execute faster in software than conventional encryption algorithms such as DES.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Perhaps the most widely used public-key algorithms are _________ and Diffie-Hellman.
Q5) The purpose of the algorithm is to enable two users to exchange a __________ securely that can then be used for subsequent encryption of messages.
Q6) One of the first public-key schemes,_______,was developed in 1977 by Ron Rivest,Adi Shamir,and Len Adleman.
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Chapter 22: Internet Security Protocols and Standards
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Q1) _______ is a list that contains the combinations of cryptographic algorithms supported by the client.
A)Compression method
B)Session ID
C)CipherSuite
D)All of the above
Q2) The IAB included authentication and encryption as necessary security features in IPv6.
A)True
B)False
Q3) IPsec can assure that _________.
A)a router advertisement comes from an authorized router
B)a routing update is not forged
C)a redirect message comes from the router to which the initial packet was sent
D)all of the above
Q4) Search engines support HTTPS.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The default algorithms used for signing S/MIME messages are SHA-1 and the
24
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Chapter 23: Internet Authentication Applications
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Q1) In Kerberos,the ___________ decrypts the ticket and authenticator,verifies the request,and creates ticket for requested server.
Q2) The certification _________ is the issuer of certificates and certificate revocation lists.
Q3) A _______ is a generic term used to denote any method for storing certificates and CRLs so that they can be retrieved by end entities.
A)RA
B)registration
C)repository
D)CA
Q4) The principal objective for developing a PKI is to enable secure, convenient,and efficient acquisition of private keys.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The overall scheme of Kerberos is that of a trusted third-party authentication service.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In a generic identity management architecture a ________ is an identity holder.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Wireless Network Security
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Q1) Like TKIP,CCMP provides two services: message integrity and ________.
Q2) The primary purpose of the MAC layer is to transfer MSDUs between MAC entities.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most significant source of risk in wireless networks in the underlying communications medium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A wireless client can be _______.
A)a cell phone
B)a Wi-Fi enabled laptop
C)a Bluetooth device
D)all of the above
Q5) The wireless environment lends itself to a ______ attack because it is so easy for the attacker to direct multiple wireless messages at the target.
A)DoS
B)man-in-the-middle
C)network injection
D)identity theft
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