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Network Administration focuses on the principles and practices involved in managing, configuring, and securing computer networks within an organization. The course covers a broad range of topics including network topologies, protocols, hardware devices, and addressing schemes. Students gain hands-on experience in installing and maintaining network operating systems, managing user accounts and permissions, troubleshooting common network issues, and implementing security best practices. Emphasis is placed on real-world scenarios to prepare students for roles in network support, monitoring, and administration, as well as providing foundational skills for further specialization in network engineering and cybersecurity.
Recommended Textbook Network Guide to Networks 6th Edition by Tamara Dean
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15 Chapters
627 Verified Questions
627 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) ____________________ is a computer that is not connected to other computers and that uses software applications and data stored on its local disks.
Answer: stand-alone computer
Q2) The simplest form of a network is a client/server network.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Often, separate LANs are interconnected and rely on several ____ running many different applications and managing resources other than data.
A) workstations
B) servers
C) clients
D) stand-alone computers
Answer: B
Q4) To function as a server, a computer must be running a(n)
Answer: NOS (network operating system)
network operating system
NOS
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Q1) The ____ is a fixed number associated with a device's NIC.
A) LLC address
B) frame address
C) logical address
D) physical address
Answer: D
Q2) Transport layer protocols break large data units into ____.
A) PDUs
B) segments
C) frames
D) block IDs
Answer: B
Q3) ____ is the process of reconstructing segmented data.
A) Reassembly
B) Reengineering
C) Resegmenting
D) Realigning
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The distance between corresponding points on a wave's cycle is called its ____.
A) amplitude
B) frequency
C) phase
D) wavelength
Answer: D
Q2) Which term describes the hardware that makes up the enterprise-wide cabling system?
A) wiring board
B) patch panel
C) network diagram
D) cable plant
Answer: D
Q3) One of the most common transmission flaws affecting data signals is ____.
A) noise
B) attenuation
C) throughput
D) latency
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the standard port number for the Telnet service is 23, a host whose IPv4 address is 10.43.3.87 has a socket address for Telnet of ____.
A) 10.43.3.87/23
B) 10.43.3.87:23
C) 10.43.3.87-23
D) 23:10.43.3.87
Q2) Define and describe DDNS (Dynamic DNS).
Q3) In IPv6, each address contains a(n) ____, or a variable-length field at the beginning of the address that indicates what type of address it is.
A) Variable Prefix
B) Address Prefix
C) Format Prefix
D) Field Prefix
Q4) A(n) ____________________ is a special 32-bit number that, when combined with a device's IP address, informs the rest of the network about the segment or network to which the device is attached.
Q5) The format of ARP tables is the same from one operating system to another. A)True B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Together, the FCS and the header make up the ____-byte "frame" for the data.
A) 15
B) 18
C) 21
D) 24
Q2) Briefly explain how CSMA/CD works.
Q3) Explain how the star-wired bus topology works. Include a description of its drawbacks and benefits.
Q4) Without ____, a bus network would suffer from signal bounce.
A) hubs
B) repeaters
C) terminators
D) jamming
Q5) In packet switching, when packets reach their destination node, the node ____ them based on their control information.
A) disassembles
B) deletes
C) reassembles
D) separates
Q6) Describe the advantage of the star topology.
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Q1) Describe how a computer's bus can be expanded to include devices other than those found on the motherboard.
Q2) Switches that operate anywhere between Layer 4 and Layer 7 are also known as ____ switches.
A) peripheral
B) STP
C) content
D) multiport
Q3) Buses differ according to their ____.
A) connectors
B) resistance
C) capacity
D) speed
Q4) A router that directs data between nodes on an autonomous LAN (or one owned and operated by a single organization) is known as a(n) ____________________ router.
Q5) On a Linux workstation, a popular utility called ____________________ allows you to view and change NIC settings.
Q6) Define wireless NICS. Include a description of disadvantages associated with their use.
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Q1) ____ is an updated, digital version of X.25 that also relies on packet switching.
A) DSL
B) ISDN
C) Frame relay
D) ATM
Q2) Describe the fundamental properties WANs and LANs have in common.
Q3) ISDN PRI uses ____ B channels and one 64-Kbps D channel.
A) 10
B) 12
C) 23
D) 32
Q4) At the customer's demarcation point, either inside or outside the building, RJ-48 connectors terminate in a ____.
A) terminal adapter
B) smart jack
C) CSU/DSU
D) switch
Q5) Define the term xDSL and name the better known DSL varieties.
Q6) Describe the most important advantage of SONET.
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Q1) The use of multiple frequencies to transmit a signal is known as ____________________ technology.
Q2) Discuss what must be taken into account when placing an access point on a WLAN.
Q3) In the case of connecting two WLANs, access points could be as far as ____ feet apart.
A) 500
B) 800
C) 1000
D) 1200
Q4) ____________________ means that satellites orbit the Earth at the same rate as the Earth turns.
Q5) Define reassociation and provide two examples explaining when it occurs.
Q6) WiMAX is defined by the IEEE 802.11 standard. A)True B)False
Q7) The ____________________ is a unique character string used to identify an access point.
Q8) Spread spectrum is a popular way of making wireless transmissions more secure. A)True B)False
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Q1) POP3's design makes it best suited to users who retrieve their mail from the same workstation all the time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The standard message format specified by SMTP allows for lines that contain no more than ____ ASCII characters.
A) 100
B) 1000
C) 10,000
D) 1,000,000
Q3) In classful addressing, Class C IPv4 address host information is located in the ____.
A) last 8 bits
B) last 16 bits
C) first 8 bits
D) first 16 bits
Q4) ____________________ is a standard for encoding and interpreting binary files, images, video, and non-ASCII character sets within an e-mail message.
Q5) Describe four features of IMAP4.
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Q1) ____ mode is appropriate for test networks or if you simply need to install a different operating system on your workstation to use a program that is incompatible with your host's operating system.
A) Host-only
B) NAT
C) Bridged
D) Blocked
Q2) Describe how remote virtual computing is used.
Q3) Most cloud service providers use virtualization software to supply multiple platforms to multiple users.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Upon creation, each vNIC is automatically assigned a ____.
A) MAC address
B) switch address
C) block address
D) reference address
Q5) Describe metered service.
Q6) Describe PPPoE.
Q7) What are three advantages of virtualization?
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Q1) A(n) ____________________ is a software application on a network host that acts as an intermediary between the external and internal networks, screening all incoming and outgoing traffic.
Q2) Describe what distinguishes 802.1x from other authentication standards.
Q3) ____ protocols are the rules that computers follow to accomplish authentication.
A) Access
B) Availability
C) Authority
D) Authentication
Q4) In a ____ attack, a person redirects or captures secure transmissions as they occur.
A) denial-of service
B) man-in-the-middle
C) war driving
D) phishing
Q5) Describe one potential flaw in CHAP and MS-CHAP authentication and explain how it is resolved.
Q6) Describe an advantage of using EAP.
Q7) Define and describe PAP.
Q8) Describe the SCP (Secure CoPy) utility.
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Q1) ____________________ performs the same functions as MGCP, but using different commands and processes.
Q2) ____ is a measure of how well a network service matches its expected performance.
A) QoS
B) RSVP
C) DiffServ
D) MPLS
Q3) When a caller uses an IP telephone, his or her voice is immediately digitized and issued from the telephone to the network in ____ form.
A) segment
B) frame
C) circuit
D) packet
Q4) When streaming videos are supplied via the Web, they are often called
Q5) SIP and H.323 account for communication between media gateways.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Describe four ways a network professional might use a multimeter.
Q2) Resistance is measured in ____.
A) ohms
B) hertz
C) centimeters
D) volts
Q3) A____ is a small electronic device that issues a signal on a wire pair.
A) tone locator
B) probe kit
C) tone generator
D) probe
Q4) Describe five causes of unreliable network connectivity.
Q5) A ____ usually results from a bad NIC.
A) jabber
B) ghost
C) giant
D) runt
Q6) Describe three advantages of using wireless network tools.
Q7) Describe how a network administrator should react upon discovering that a network change has generated a problem.
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Q1) ____ is an automatic distribution of traffic over multiple links or processors is used to optimize response.
A) Redundancy
B) Failover
C) RAID
D) Load balancing
Q2) ____ scanning techniques attempt to identify malware by discovering "malware-like" behavior.
A) Integrity checking
B) Polymorphic
C) Signature
D) Heuristic
Q3) Define mirroring and server mirroring. Describe the necessary requirement for server mirroring.
Q4) A group of hard disks is called a ____.
A) RAID group
B) disk volume
C) disk array
D) disk partition
Q5) Describe how an organization implements anti-malware software.
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____ management refers to monitoring how well links and devices are keeping up with the demands placed on them.
A) Performance
B) Fault
C) Network
D) Configuration
Q2) ____ involves manipulating certain characteristics of packets, data streams, or connections to manage the type and amount of traffic traversing a network or interface at any moment.
A) Traffic monitoring
B) Traffic routing
C) Traffic polling
D) Traffic shaping
Q3) Explain how to gather baseline data on a network.
Q4) A ____ is a network device devoted to storage and delivery of frequently requested files.
A) cache engine
B) Web site host
C) server
D) database host

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