Neonatal Intensive Care Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Neonatal Intensive Care is a specialized course focused on the advanced care and management of critically ill or premature newborns. The course covers essential topics such as the physiological adaptation of the neonate, common and complex neonatal conditions, respiratory and cardiovascular support, nutritional requirements, and principles of family-centered care. Students will also learn about the utilization of advanced monitoring equipment, pharmacological interventions, ethical considerations, and interdisciplinary collaboration within the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) environment. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practices and developing critical thinking skills necessary for providing high-quality care to this vulnerable population.
Recommended Textbook
Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care 4th Edition by Brian K. Walsh
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36 Chapters
733 Verified Questions
733 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Fetal Lung Development
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mechanisms is (are)responsible for the possible association between oligohydramnios and lung hypoplasia?
I.Abnormal carbohydrate metabolism
II.Mechanical restriction of the chest wall
III.Interference with fetal breathing
IV.Failure to produce fetal lung liquid
A)I and III only
B)II and III only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following tests of the amniotic fluid have been shown to be sensitive indicators of lung maturity?
A)Levels of prednisone
B)Levels of epidermal growth factor
C)Levels of prostaglandins
D)Levels of phosphatidylglycerol and phosphatidylcholine
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation
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7 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman is coming for an early prenatal evaluation and wants to know if she can listen to the baby's heartbeat.How early can the fetal heartbeat be detected?
A)Day 8
B)Day 22
C)Day 45
D)Day 60
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following embryonic germ layers gives formation to the respiratory system?
A)Endoderm
B)Mesoderm
C)Ectoderm
D)Periderm
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Antenatal Assessment and High Risk Delivery
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is responsible for up to 40% of the preterm births in the United States?
A)Cervical insufficiency
B)Premature rupture of the fetal membranes
C)Obstetrical intervention mandated by fetal jeopardy
D)Hormonal treatment during pregnancy
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following microorganisms often affect pregnancy outcome?
A)Group B Streptococcus
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D)Hepatitis C virus
Answer: A
Q3) Once preterm labor is diagnosed,which of the following medications should be considered as tocolytic?
A)Magnesium sulfate
B)Sodium bicarbonate
C)Calcium carbonate
D)Epinephrine
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the head of a neonate contaminated with meconium emerges at birth,the heart rate monitor indicates 120 beats/minute,and the physician notices that the infant has good muscle tone and a strong respiratory effort.What should the physician do at this time to provide airway care?
A)Intubate the infant immediately.
B)Perform pharyngeal and tracheal suctioning immediately.
C)Perform tracheal suctioning only at this time.
D)Only routine monitoring of respiratory vital signs is needed at this time.
Q2) The therapist notices that a preterm newborn has a grunting cry.Which of the following conditions is most consistent with this description?
A)Hypothyroidism
B)Neurologic injury
C)Respiratory distress syndrome
D)Laryngeal edema
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside
Pulmonary Mechanics
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapist is reviewing a flow-volume loop obtained from a pediatric patient and observes decreased volume and normal flows.On the basis of this observation,how should the therapist interpret this finding?
A)Obstructive pattern
B)Restrictive pattern
C)Fixed airway obstruction
D)Variable extrathoracic obstruction
Q2) Which of the following major forces opposes inspiration?
A)Inspiratory flow
B)Surface tension
C)Airway resistance
D)Respiratory rate
Q3) Which of the following factors is the most important determinant of high airway resistance and air trapping in small infants?
A)The small tidal volume
B)Small diameter of the airways
C)Excessive amount of mucus production
D)The length of the airways
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Chapter 6: Radiographic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lateral decubitus view is a frontal radiographic projection whereby the side down can be evaluated for presence of ____________________.
A)Atelectasis;a pneumothorax
B)A pleural effusion;a pneumothorax
C)Consolidation;atelectasis
D)A pleural effusion;consolidation
Q2) A pediatric patient with pneumonia has an infiltrate in the lower half of the right lung.The right heart border is obliterated.In which lobe(s)of the right lung is the infiltrate located?
A)Right upper lobe
B)Right middle lobe
C)Right lower lobe
D)Right middle and lower lobes
Q3) Which of the following radiographic views would be the best suited for evaluating fractured ribs in a pediatric patient?
A)Lateral decubitus at full inspiration
B)Posteroanterior view at full expiration
C)Anteroposterior view
D)Oblique view
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Bronchoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following features are consistent with a large flexible bronchoscope compared with a smaller one?
A)Has a suction channel
B)Provides recording of the procedure
C)Is more rigid
D)Produces less heat
Q2) Which of the following features characterize insertion tubes of bronchoscopes described as "spaghetti scopes"?
I.They lack cables necessary to direct the distal tip,causing it to flex and distend.
II.They are less than 2 mm in diameter.
III.They are used for patients who are not intubated.
IV.Their use is limited to visualization of an airway via insertion down an endotracheal tube.
A)I only
B)I and II only
C)I,II,and III only
D)I,II,and IV only
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Chapter 8: Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) How would tricuspid stenosis be expected to influence a patient's CVP value?
A)Elevate it above normal
B)Cause it to fall below normal
C)Produce fluctuations in the CVP value
D)Have no effect in the CVP value
Q2) In addition to applying direct pressure to the puncture site immediately after the arterial puncture procedure,what can the therapist do to minimize the risk of hematoma formation in a patient who requires frequent radial arterial punctures?
A)Have the patient maintain the arm in an elevated position for a couple of hours after the radial puncture.
B)Have the patient shake the arm periodically throughout the day.
C)Alternate arms used for arterial puncture and use other sites as well.
D)Apply a bandage to the puncture site.
Q3) With an umbilical artery catheter (UAC)in the "low position," which of the following blood vessels should be avoided?
A)Celiac artery
B)Superior mesenteric artery
C)Renal artery
D)Descending aorta
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Noninvasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A therapist is monitoring a child on the mechanical ventilator who is hemodynamically stable.The PetCO is 48 mm Hg.If accurate,what should be the PaCO ?
A)43-48 mm Hg
B)45-48 mm Hg
C)50-53 mm Hg
D)Exactly the same as PetCO
Q2) While attending to a neonatal patient in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU),the therapist notices that a transcutaneous electrode is affixed to the upper chest of the neonate.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)The therapist should only continue monitoring the patient since the transcutaneous electrode is properly placed.
B)The therapist should reposition the electrode on the neonate's abdomen.
C)The therapist needs to move the transcutaneous electrode to the infant's right shoulder.
D)The therapist should relocate the electrode on the sternum as close as possible to the heart.
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Chapter 10: Oxygen Administration
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following devices would be most appropriate to use for a 3-year-old patient who experiences immediate postextubation hypoxemia?
A)Blow-by setup
B)Partial rebreathing mask
C)Aerosol mask
D)T-piece
Q2) Which of the following problems occurs as a result of absorption atelectasis?
A)Pulmonary vasodilation
B)Increased intrapulmonary shunting
C)Decreased alveolar pressure
D)Increased partial pressure of nitrogen in the blood
Q3) Which of the following ranges of oxygen flow need to be set when administering oxygen to an infant via a simple mask?
A)Less than 1 L/minute
B)1 to 6 L/minute
C)6 to 10 L/minute
D)Greater than 10 L/minute
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Chapter 11: Aerosols and Administration of Medication
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which of the following types of patients would using a dry powder inhaler (DPI)for medication delivery likely be contraindicated?
A)A 4-year-old child
B)A patient with COPD
C)A teenager able to generate an inspiratory flow of 40 L/min
D)An 11-year-old diagnosed with stable asthma
Q2) Which of the following functions are served by spacer and holding chambers in conjunction with pMDIs?
I.Reduction in oropharyngeal deposition of drug
II.Elimination of the "cold Freon effect"
III.Improvement in lower respiratory tract deposition
IV.Decrease in treatment time without sacrificing efficacy
A)I and III only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)I,III,and IV only
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Chapter 12: Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung
Volume Expansion
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following maneuvers is characterized by having a patient forcibly exhale,from a middle to low lung volume,through an open glottis?
A)Autogenic drainage
B)Directed cough
C)Positive expiratory pressure
D)Active cycle of breathing
Q2) A respiratory therapist has been assigned to administer ACT to a number of patients on the ward.In which of the following conditions may ACT be contraindicated?
I.Foreign body aspiration
II.Frank hemoptysis
III.Empyema
IV.Untreated pneumothorax
A)I,II,III,and IV
B)II and IV only
C)III and IV only
D)I and IV only
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14
Chapter 13: Airway Management
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where should the therapist secure a 4.0-mm endotracheal tube after the intubation procedure?
A)8 cm at the lip
B)9 cm at the lip
C)10 cm at the lip
D)12 cm at the lip
Q2) The therapist is trying to confirm the proper placement of an endotracheal tube of an infant.Auscultation reveals breath sounds over both the stomach and the chest wall.What should the therapist do?
A)Advance the ETT until breath sounds are not heard over the stomach.
B)Pull the ETT at least 4 cm until breath sounds are not heard over the stomach.
C)Leave it in place because breath sounds over the stomach are simply transmitted from the lungs.
D)Pull the ETT because it is most probably in the esophagus.
Q3) What is considered the best predictor of a successful extubation?
A)An oxygen saturation > 95%
B)A respiratory rate < 35 breaths per minute
C)A cuff leak < 25 cm H O
D)A successful spontaneous breathing trial
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Surfactant Replacement
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What appears to be the benefit of administering prophylactic surfactant replacement therapy to preterm infants?
I.Decreased risk of mortality
II.Reduced threat of pneumothorax
III.Decreased incidence of diaphragmatic hernia
IV.Reduced risk of developing pulmonary interstitial emphysema
A)I and II only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) Which of the following physiologic consequences would develop if the liquid-gas interface were without surfactant?
A)Large alveoli would empty into smaller ones at the end of exhalation.
B)Every exhalation would demand ventilatory muscle activity.
C)Every breath would require a considerable amount of pressure to expand the lung with each inspiration.
D)Some alveoli would collapse during exhalation.
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16
Chapter 15: Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and
Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following features are often components of CPAP systems incorporated within infant ventilators?
I.Highly responsive demand flow systems
II.Apnea backup breaths
III.FiO compensation mechanisms
IV.Leak compensation capabilities
A)I and II only
B)II and III only
C)III and IV only
D)I,II,and IV only
Q2) After initiating B-CPAP in an infant at 6 cm H O,the therapist notices that,although "bubbling" is present,the pressure in the manometer fluctuates between 2 and 5 cm
H O.What may have caused this situation?
A)The Fio was not increased sufficiently.
B)The CPAP level was not raised enough.
C)The flow through the CPAP system is too low.
D)A problem with the interface has likely developed.
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17
Chapter 16: Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect should the therapist expect to observe after successful initiation of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)on a neonate who has a restrictive lung disorder?
A)Decreased arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO )
B)A lower mean airway pressure
C)A normal alveolar-arterial oxygen tension difference [P(A-a)O ] gradient
D)Increased lung volume
Q2) When a bilevel ventilator is used in the spontaneous/timed mode,at what point does the ventilator employ the timed feature?
A)During exhalation
B)To terminate inspiration
C)Throughout the ventilatory cycle
D)Only in the event of prolonged apnea
Q3) HFNC has been ordered for a newborn at a rate of 3 L/min.What is the approximate nasopharyngeal pressure at this setting?
A)3 cm H O
B)2 cm H O
C)1 cm H O
D)1.5 cm H O
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonate and Pediatric Patient
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a frequent requirement when employing the low-volume strategy while ventilating a neonatal patient with pulmonary interstitial emphysema by HFV?
A)High inspiratory flow
B)Positive end-expiratory pressure
C)High inspired fraction of oxygen (Fio?)
D)Longer inspiratory time
Q2) The therapist is about to mechanically ventilate a neonate with a ventilator that delivers the volume guarantee mode.Which of the ventilator settings does the therapist need to set for this mode?
I.Minute ventilation
II.Tidal volume
III.Inspiratory time
IV.Inspiratory flow
A)I and II only
B)II and IV only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
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Chapter 18: Administration of Gas Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following parameters of mechanical ventilation are affected negatively by the use of heliox?
A)PEEP
B)Plateau pressure
C)Peak pressure
D)Volume
Q2) An infant has been receiving iNO for the last 3 days.Which important level should be monitored when ordering a co-oximetry?
A)Methemoglobin
B)Carboxyhemoglobin
C)Reduced hemoglobin
D)Oxyhemoglobin
Q3) What is the purpose of administering helium-oxygen gas mixtures to patients?
A)To reduce the work of breathing
B)To improve gas exchange
C)To increase the functional residual capacity
D)To improve pulmonary compliance
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Chapter 19: Extracorporeal Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements describes venoarterial ECMO?
A)A cannula is inserted into the subclavian vein for the removal of blood.
B)Blood is removed from the venous circulation through the external jugular vein.
C)Blood returns to the heart through the subclavian artery.
D)A cannula is inserted into the right common carotid artery for arterial return.
Q2) It is not uncommon for patients undergoing ECMO to experience renal failure.What can be done to enhance renal function?
A)Add either colloids or crystalloids to fluid challenge the patient.
B)Perform hemofiltration.
C)Add either vasodilators or vasoconstrictors.
D)Conduct plasmapheresis.
Q3) What is considered the most concerning complication of ECMO in the newborn?
A)Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
B)Pneumonia
C)Intracranial hemorrhage
D)Hemosiderosis
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21
Chapter 20: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following responses are considered adverse effects of inhaled corticosteroids?
I.Oropharyngeal candidiasis
II.Dry mouth
III.Wheezing
IV.Dysphonia
A)I and II only
B)II and III only
C)II and IV only
D)I,III,and IV only
Q2) Which of the following agents should be considered in the rapid-sequence intubation of patients with status asthmaticus?
A)Atropine
B)Magnesium sulfate
C)Halothane
D)Ketamine
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22
Chapter 21: Thoracic Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is a frequent cause of graft failure occurring within the first 90 days after lung transplantation?
A)Organ rejection
B)The potency of the antirejection drugs among this population
C)Ischemia-reperfusion
D)High pulmonary vascular pressures
Q2) What are some reasons for the decline in heart-lung transplants among infants?
I.Difficulty in obtaining a donor
II.Avoidance of cardiac rejection
III.Averting premature coronary artery disease
IV.Reducing the length of time on cardiopulmonary bypass
A)I and IV only
B)II and III only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q3) What typically makes lungs unsuitable for donation?
A)Pulmonary edema
B)Platelike atelectasis
C)Tracheal tear
D)Tracheitis
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Chapter 22: Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the incidence of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)among infants born at less than 28 weeks of gestation?
A)30% to 40%
B)40% to 50%
C)60% to 80%
D)>80%
Q2) A neonate diagnosed with a pneumothorax was treated with a chest tube.After 36 hours,the therapist noticed that bubbling is present in the chest tube system.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)Suggest removal of the chest tube in 24 hours
B)Clamp the tube and obtain a CXR
C)Keep the chest tube until bubbling stops
D)Remove the chest tube and obtain a follow-up CXR
Q3) What radiographic features is the therapist likely to see on a typical chest X-ray of an infant with MAS?
A)Ground-glass appearance
B)Complete whiteout
C)Decreased lung volume
D)Patchy areas of atelectasis
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Congenital and Surgical Disorders That Affect
Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is consistent with micrognathia,glossoptosis,and cleft palate in a newborn?
A)Pierre Robin syndrome
B)Choanal atresia
C)Treacher Collins syndrome
D)Esophageal atresia
Q2) What is the most common patient complaint associated with pectus carinatum?
A)Cough
B)Dyspnea at rest
C)Cosmetic
D)Cardiac palpitations
Q3) What is the role of radiography in the determination of tracheoesophageal fistula and esophageal atresia?
A)The esophageal pouch can be observed.
B)The opening into the airway can be located.
C)The presence of left-to-right shunt can be seen.
D)The location of the nasogastric tube may confirm obstruction of the proximal esophagus caused by atresia.
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Chapter 24: Congenital Cardiac Defects
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Q1) Which of the following medications is the most common preoperative treatment to minimize preductal constriction until surgical correction of coarctation of the aorta can be achieved?
A)Indomethacin
B)Prostaglandin E
C)Negative inotropes
D)Diuretics
Q2) Which of the following methods is involved in the management of a PDA?
A)Increasing the circulating volume
B)Maintaining/optimizing the hematocrit at the low end of normal hemoglobin level
C)Administering indomethacin
D)Administering digoxin
Q3) When using subambient oxygen therapy,what range of oxygen saturations should the therapist target?
A)>95% to 95%
B)85% to 90%
C)75% to 85%
D)70% to 80%
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Chapter 25: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Sleep
Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mother of an 11-month-old infant suspected of suffering from sleep-disordered breathing reports that her child sleeps 15 hours per day.What should the therapist tell her regarding the sleep duration of her infant?
A)The sleep duration is consistent with the infant's age.
B)The sleep duration is consistent with an infant in the first 24 hours of life.
C)The sleep duration is consistent with a that of a 10-year-old child.
D)The sleep duration is consistent with a midadolescent child.
Q2) Which of the following are typical features of the obstructive hypoventilation syndrome?
I.Disruption of sleep architecture
II.Degradation of sleep quality
III.Abnormal gas exchange
IV.Significant daytime symptoms
A)I and III only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
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Chapter 26: Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following radiographic techniques is best for determining the presence of a ball-valve type obstruction?
A)A standard portable A-P chest X-ray
B)A lateral neck radiograph
C)Either a right or left lateral decubitus film
D)Inspiratory and expiratory A-P chest X-rays
Q2) Which of the following agents has been shown to significantly reduce bronchiolitis scores?
A)Prednisone
B)Nebulized 3% hypertonic saline
C)Dexamethasone
D)Theophylline
Q3) As the therapist auscultates over an infant's larynx,he hears a very low-pitched sound.On the basis of this finding,what impression is he likely to have regarding the nature of the upper airway obstruction?
A)Mild obstruction
B)Moderate obstruction
C)Severe obstruction
D)Complete obstruction
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Chapter 27: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is indicated for a 15-year-old patient with moderate asthma who is not controlled with inhaled corticosteroids and exhibits the following signs: (1)a positive skin test or positive in vitro test for aeroallergens and (2)an IgE level of 500 IU/L?
A)Zileuton
B)Salmeterol
C)Xopenex
D)Omalizumab
Q2) The therapist is asked to explain to a 10-year-old how to use a corticosteroid inhaler.Which of the following side effects should the therapist mention to the patient and caregiver?
A)Headache
B)Blurred vision
C)Changes in pupillary size
D)Oral candidiasis
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Chapter 28: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following radiographic features is consistent with CF?
A)Air bronchograms
B)Dome-shaped diaphragms
C)Bronchiectatic changes
D)Meniscus sign
Q2) On pulmonary function testing,which of the following lung abnormalities is/are common in patients with severe cystic fibrosis?
I.Obstructive pattern
II.Restrictive pattern
III.Airway hyperreactivity
IV.Normal pattern when asymptomatic
A)I only
B)I and IV only
C)II and III only
D)I,II,and III only
Q3) What are the chances of two CFTR gene carriers having a normal child?
A)100%
B)75%
C)50%
D)25%
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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the therapist use the point on the pressure-volume loop where the shape changes from concave to exponential?
A)To set PEEP
B)To set VT
C)To set Ti
D)To set PIP
Q2) The therapist was titrating PEEP levels to maintain an SaO of 85% and found that 13 cm H O were required to achieve this goal.What should the most important concern with this level of PEEP?
A)Risk of pneumothorax
B)Decreased cardiac output
C)Auto-PEEP
D)Overdistention
Q3) Which of the following pathophysiologic changes seen in ARDS is responsible for the decrease in available surface area for gas exchange?
A)Hyperinflation of the lungs
B)Decreased right ventricular cardiac output
C)Pulmonary hypertension
D)Obliteration of small precapillary vessels
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Chapter 30: Shock, Sepsis and Anaphylaxis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A therapist is calculating oxygen delivery for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of shock.Which of the following parameters should the therapist measure?
I.Hemoglobin
II.Oxygen bound to hemoglobin
III.Dissolved oxygen
IV.Cardiac output
A)I,II,and IV only
B)II,III,and IV only
C)I,II,III,and IV
D)I,II,and III only
Q2) In which of the following clinical situations may the administration of packed red blood cells be indicated?
A)When a patient demonstrates leukopenia
B)When a patient shows evidence of anemia
C)When the risk of sepsis is present
D)When a patient shows evidence of hypovolemic shock
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Chapter 31: Pediatric Trauma
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Q1) Which of the following procedures can cause an iatrogenic pneumothorax?
A)Oropharyngeal suctioning
B)Central venous catheter placement
C)Orogastric tube placement
D)Nasogastric tube placement
Q2) Patients experiencing penetrating thoracic trauma presenting with a significant pneumothorax with a continuous air leak through the chest tube should be suspected of having what type of problem?
A)Decreased pulmonary compliance
B)Aspiration of stomach contents
C)Gastric inflation
D)Major airway injuries
Q3) Which ventilation strategy should the therapist suggest for patients with very large leaks?
A)Volume-controlled ventilation
B)Inverse ratio ventilation
C)High-frequency ventilation
D)Airway pressure release ventilation
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Chapter 32: Disorders of the Pleura
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of pleural effusion in the pediatric population?
A)Empyema
B)Congestive heart failure
C)Parapneumonic effusion
D)Adenobacterial effusion
Q2) Which of the following clinical conditions causes fluid to accumulate in the pleural space?
A)Congestive heart failure
B)Asthma
C)Cor pulmonale
D)Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Q3) Fluid drained from a thoracentesis has the appearance of pus.Which of the following microorganisms should the therapist typically suspect in children with empyema?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae
D)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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34
Chapter 33: Neurologic and Neuromuscular Disorders
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Q1) The therapist is performing an airway clearance technique to a 5-month-old child with a diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia.The child has a very weak cough and,although he appears alert,he cannot move.Which of the following disorders of the motor nerve should the therapist suspect?
A)Polio
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Spinal muscular atrophy
D)Guillian-Barré
Q2) Which of the following neuromuscular diseases is characterized in early childhood by progressive muscle weakness,followed by skeletal and respiratory muscle weakness,and in adolescence by confinement to a wheelchair and requirement for ventilatory assistance?
A)Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B)Duchenne muscular dystrophy
C)Glycogen storage disease
D)Becker muscular dystrophy
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Chapter 34: Transport of Infants and Children
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Q1) What has proved to be the benefit of point-of-care blood analysis during transport?
A)Cost-effectiveness
B)Durability of the equipment
C)Reduced patient stabilization time
D)The need for fewer blood samples
Q2) Which of the following distances is generally considered the maximum mileage in one direction for ground transport of a critically ill child?
A)15 miles
B)30 miles
C)45 miles
D)60 miles
Q3) What are the negative effects of an aircraft flown with a sea-level cabin altitude?
A)A higher flight altitude is necessary.
B)Air-to-ground communications become difficult.
C)Fuel consumption often increases.
D)The aircraft may encounter more altitude-related concerns.
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Chapter 35: Home Care
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Q1) Why are compressed gas cylinders of oxygen becoming more commonplace for patient transport in the home care setting?
A)Because patients generally cannot afford liquid oxygen
B)Because compressed gas cylinders are being made smaller and lighter
C)Because they are being made safer and people can smoke near them
D)Because the grade of oxygen in compressed gas cylinders is higher than in liquid systems
Q2) What is the outcome when delays in funding for the home care services occur?
A)The process continues because eventually the funding will materialize.
B)Only the essential components of the discharge plan are initially implanted.
C)The discharge process is delayed until the caregivers receive education to perform additional services.
D)The discharge is delayed indefinitely.
Q3) What are the advantages of an oxygen concentrator?
A)It provides an unlimited supply of oxygen.
B)It does not require a power source.
C)It does not require gas analysis.
D)It is ideal for transport situations.
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Chapter 36: Quality and Safety
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Q1) What has been described by the IOM as a necessary component of change needed to occur to improve patient safety?
A)Increase the number of physicians
B)Increase the number of nurses and allied health professionals
C)Develop teams of caregivers for multidisciplinary communication
D)Involve the family in the health care team
Q2) Which of the following types of infections are considered HAIs?
I.Catheter-associated blood stream infections
II.Catheter-associated urinary tract infections
III.Ventilator-associated pneumonias
IV.Surgical site infections
A)II and III only
B)I,II,and IV only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q3) What is the most common serious error observed in the NICU?
A)Medication related
B)Patient misidentification
C)Error in the diagnosis
D)Delayed diagnosis
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