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Neonatal Intensive Care Nursing Final Test Solutions - 733 Verified Questions

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Neonatal Intensive Care Nursing

Final Test Solutions

Course Introduction

Neonatal Intensive Care Nursing is a specialized course designed to provide nursing students and professionals with comprehensive knowledge and clinical skills necessary for the care of critically ill newborns. This course covers topics such as the physiological and psychological needs of neonates, common congenital and acquired conditions, advanced assessment techniques, therapeutic interventions, and the use of specialized equipment in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). Emphasis is placed on family-centered care, ethical considerations, interprofessional collaboration, and evidence-based practices to promote optimal outcomes for neonates and their families. Through simulations, clinical placements, and case studies, students gain hands-on experience to confidently support fragile newborns in high-acuity settings.

Recommended Textbook

Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care 4th Edition by Brian K. Walsh

Available Study Resources on Quizplus

36 Chapters

733 Verified Questions

733 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2235 Page 2

Chapter 1: Fetal Lung Development

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6 Verified Questions

6 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44421

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following phases of human lung development is characterized by the formation of a capillary network around airway passages?

A)Pseudoglandular

B)Saccular

C)Alveolar

D)Canalicular

Answer: D

Q2) The respiratory therapist is evaluating a newborn with mild respiratory distress due to tracheal stenosis.During which period of lung development did this problem develop?

A)Embryonal

B)Saccular

C)Canalicular

D)Alveolar

Answer: A

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation

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7 Verified Questions

7 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following organs is considered to be the first to form?

A)Heart

B)Brain

C)Lungs

D)Kidneys

Answer: A

Q2) How long after birth should it take for the ductus arteriosus to close completely?

A)24 hours

B)48 hours

C)96 hours

D)1 week

Answer: C

Q3) Which of the following embryonic germ layers gives formation to the respiratory system?

A)Endoderm

B)Mesoderm

C)Ectoderm

D)Periderm

Answer: A

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Antenatal Assessment and High Risk Delivery

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44423

Sample Questions

Q1) A therapist is resuscitating a term newborn.What should be the rate of ventilation?

A)20 to 30 breaths per minute

B)30 to 40 breaths per minute

C)40 to 60 breaths per minute

D)60 to 100 breaths per minute

Answer: C

Q2) A therapist is resuscitating a term newborn.The heart rate falls to 55 beats per minute.What is the best course of action?

A)Intubate and provide positive airway pressure

B)Administer IV or ET epinephrine

C)Apply bag-mask ventilation

D)Continue compressions until heart rate is greater than 60

Answer: B

Q3) How should the therapist interpret a fetal biophysical profile score of 7?

A)The fetus requires careful evaluation and possibly immediate delivery.

B)The fetus requires another biophysical profile in 24 hours.

C)The fetus appears to be normal.

D)The data are inconclusive and the profile needs to be redone immediately.

Answer: C

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient

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33 Verified Questions

33 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following neonatal skin presentations at birth is associated with a high hematocrit value or polycythemia and neonatal hyperviscosity syndrome?

A)Mottling

B)Lanugo

C)Reddish blue appearance

D)Vernix

Q2) The therapist is evaluating a newborn with an abdominal defect consisting of protrusion of the membranous sac that encloses abdominal contents through an opening in the abdominal wall into the umbilical cord.Which of the following conditions is consistent with this description?

A)Enterocolitis

B)Ascites

C)Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

D)Omphalocele

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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside

Pulmonary Mechanics

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) How is airway resistance calculated?

A)By dividing the airway occlusion pressure by the expiratory flow

B)By dividing the transpulmonary pressure by the expiratory flow

C)By multiplying the expiratory flow by the pressure gradient responsible for initiating inspiration

D)By multiplying the expiratory occlusion pressure by the transpulmonary pressure gradient

Q2) Which of the following pulmonary function values characterize an obstructive lung defect?

I.The forced vital capacity (FVC)may remain normal.

II.The forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV )is decreased.

III.The ratio of residual volume to total lung capacity (RV/TLC)may be normal.

IV.The FEV is decreased.

A)II and IV only

B)I,II,and III only

C)I,III,and IV only

D)II,III,and IV only

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Chapter 6: Radiographic Assessment

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) While viewing an anteroposterior view of a chest radiograph of a 24-month-old intubated child,a therapist notices that the endotracheal tube has now migrated right above the inferior clavicular border.What could explain this new location of the endotracheal tube?

A)Flexion of the head

B)Extension of the head

C)Rotation of the head to the right

D)Rotation of the head to the left

Q2) How will well-expanded,air-filled lungs appear on a chest radiograph?

A)Light colored

B)Gray

C)Black

D)White

Q3) The lateral decubitus view is a frontal radiographic projection whereby the side down can be evaluated for presence of ____________________.

A)Atelectasis;a pneumothorax

B)A pleural effusion;a pneumothorax

C)Consolidation;atelectasis

D)A pleural effusion;consolidation

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Bronchoscopy

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Because one of the major risks of flexible bronchoscopy is aspiration of gastric contents,infants under 6 months should not take anything by mouth how many hours before the procedure?

A)1-2 hours

B)3-4 hours

C)4-6 hours

D)8-12 hours

Q2) A hospitalized patient with cystic fibrosis has developed massive hemoptysis.What is the utility of flexible fiberoptic bronchoscopy in this situation?

A)It is useful for removing blood clots.

B)Flexible bronchoscopy can be effectively used to insert balloon catheters to tamponade the bleeding portion of the lung.

C)The flexible bronchoscope can be effectively inserted to enable the deposition of blood-clotting medications into the lungs.

D)Flexible bronchoscopy is usually inadequate in this type of situation.

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Chapter 8: Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) With an umbilical artery catheter (UAC)in the "low position," which of the following blood vessels should be avoided?

A)Celiac artery

B)Superior mesenteric artery

C)Renal artery

D)Descending aorta

Q2) Which of the following factors influence the central venous pressure (CVP)measurement?

I.Bicuspid valve function

II.Right ventricular pressure

III.Intravascular volume

IV.Systemic venous return

A)I and III only

B)II and III only

C)II and IV only

D)II,III,and IV only

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Chapter 9: Noninvasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A therapist is monitoring a child on the mechanical ventilator who is hemodynamically stable.The PetCO is 48 mm Hg.If accurate,what should be the PaCO ?

A)43-48 mm Hg

B)45-48 mm Hg

C)50-53 mm Hg

D)Exactly the same as PetCO

Q2) The therapist has been asked to measure preductal oxygen saturation.Where could the therapist place the pulse oximeter probe?

A)Right thumb

B)Left thumb

C)Forehead

D)Left earlobe

Q3) What clinical parameter is critically important to monitor when mechanical ventilation is administered?

A)Blood pressure

B)Heart rate

C)Temperature

D)Respiratory rate

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Chapter 10: Oxygen Administration

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following oxygen-delivery devices would be most suitable for an infant being treated for choanal atresia?

A)Nasal cannula

B)Nasal catheter

C)Oxygen hood

D)Oxygen mask

Q2) Which of the following problems occurs as a result of absorption atelectasis?

A)Pulmonary vasodilation

B)Increased intrapulmonary shunting

C)Decreased alveolar pressure

D)Increased partial pressure of nitrogen in the blood

Q3) Which of the following devices would be most appropriate to use for a 3-year-old patient who experiences immediate postextubation hypoxemia?

A)Blow-by setup

B)Partial rebreathing mask

C)Aerosol mask

D)T-piece

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12

Chapter 11: Aerosols and Administration of Medication

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following suggestions will have the most significant impact on the inhaled dose of medications with nebulizers?

A)Increasing the flow rate powering the nebulizer

B)Terminating the treatment prior to "sputter"

C)Adding a 6 inches of tubing on the expiratory side of the nebulizer

D)Using breath-enhanced nebulizers

Q2) Which of the following nebulizers should be suggested to improve lung dose in patients undergoing invasive mechanical ventilation?

A)Jet nebulizer

B)Ultrasonic nebulizer

C)Breath-actuated nebulizer

D)Vibrating mesh nebulizer

Q3) How can a patient avoid the problem of terminating inhalation when a plume from a pressurized metered-dose inhaler (pMDI)impacts the oropharynx?

A)Hold the pMDI closer the mouth.

B)Use a valved holding chamber.

C)Depress the nozzle only half the full distance.

D)Instruct the patient to inspire a short,rapid breath.

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung

Volume Expansion

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) When performing endotracheal suctioning on a neonate,why should the therapist routinely avoid advancing the catheter tip beyond the distal end of the endotracheal tube?

A)To reduce the risk of inadvertent extubation with the suction catheter

B)To prevent the development of bronchial stenosis and granulomas

C)To decrease the chance of removing too much lung volume

D)To minimize the risk of oxygen desaturation

Q2) What do postural drainage,positive expiratory pressure therapy,autogenic drainage,forced expiration techniques,and high-frequency chest compressions have in common?

A)They dislodge mucus from the bronchial walls of patients.

B)They attempt to prevent dynamic airway collapse.

C)They work toward increasing the functional residual capacity of patients.

D)They are intended to promote the ability of patients to generate effective coughs.

Q3) What is the most important variable used to assess the efficacy of CPT?

A)Quality of the chest radiograph

B)Degree and persistence of coughing

C)Changes in the color and consistency of mucus

D)Amount of mucus obtained during and after treatment

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Airway Management

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following criteria are used to define ventilatory and hypoxemic dysfunction in patients who may need intubation?

I.PaO < 80 mm Hg with FiO > 0.60

II.PaCO > 50-60 mm Hg

III.pH < 7.3

IV.PaO /FiO > 250

A)I and III only

B)II and III only

C)I,II,and III only

D)I,III,and IV only

Q2) Where is the tracheostomy tube usually placed in children?

A)Between the second and fourth tracheal rings

B)Between the fourth and fifth tracheal rings

C)Between the cricoid and the thyroid cartilage

D)Between the first and second tracheal rings

Q3) What are the most common causes of death in tracheotomy-dependent children?

A)Hemorrhage

B)Sepsis/infection

C)Significant leaks

D)Mucous plugging

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Chapter 14: Surfactant Replacement

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A term baby with meconium aspiration syndrome is receiving mechanical ventilation per protocol.On the third day,the therapist observes that the FiO requirement is increasing and both lung compliance and oxygenation index are worsening.What should be suggested at this time?

A)Switch to a pressure-limited mode

B)High-frequency chest oscillation

C)ECMO

D)Administer surfactant

Q2) A pregnant woman believed to be at 26 weeks gestation has been admitted for premature labor.What should be administered to this woman to decrease the risk of RDS if the infant is delivered prematurely?

A)Magnesium sulfate

B)Terbutaline

C)Systemic corticosteroids

D)Lecithin

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16

Chapter 15: Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and

Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) After initiating B-CPAP in an infant at 6 cm H O,the therapist notices that,although "bubbling" is present,the pressure in the manometer fluctuates between 2 and 5 cm

H O.What may have caused this situation?

A)The Fio was not increased sufficiently.

B)The CPAP level was not raised enough.

C)The flow through the CPAP system is too low.

D)A problem with the interface has likely developed.

Q2) Which of the following features are often components of CPAP systems incorporated within infant ventilators?

I.Highly responsive demand flow systems

II.Apnea backup breaths

III.FiO compensation mechanisms

IV.Leak compensation capabilities

A)I and II only

B)II and III only

C)III and IV only

D)I,II,and IV only

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Chapter 16: Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is considered the most successful therapeutic condition where NPPV can be used in children?

A)Treatment of hypoxemic exacerbation of children with chronic neuromuscular disorders

B)Treatment of hypercapnic exacerbation of children with chronic neuromuscular disorders

C)Treatment of exacerbation of children with acute asthma attacks

D)Treatment of exacerbation of children with pulmonary edema due to congenital heart defects

Q2) What level of IPAP is typically sufficient to achieve the goals of NPPV in pediatric patients?

A)20 to 25 cm H O

B)15 to 20 cm H O

C)8 to 12 cm H O

D)5 to 10 cm H O

Q3) When should NPPV be selected over CPAP in children with OSA?

A)For every patient who is hypoxemic

B)When OSA is complicated by alveolar hypoventilation and hypercarbia

C)When OSA is complicated by hypoxemia

D)For every patient who is hypoxemic and hypercapnic

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Chapter 17: Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonate and Pediatric Patient

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28 Verified Questions

28 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are indications for HFV?

A)Diffuse,heterogeneous lung disease

B)Existing pulmonary air leak syndrome

C)Severe bronchiolitis

D)PaO /Fio ratio of 300

Q2) How is the radiographic assessment of neonatal lung volume performed?

A)Counting the number of anterior ribs above the diaphragm

B)Counting the number of posterior ribs above the diaphragm

C)Counting the number of posterior ribs below the clavicle

D)Counting the number of anterior ribs below the clavicle

Q3) During HFOV manipulation of which of the following components establishes the continuous distending pressure?

A)Gas flow through the pneumotachometer during expiration

B)Peak inspiratory pressure-trough pressure gradient

C)Inspiratory valve aperture

D)Bias flow

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Chapter 18: Administration of Gas Mixtures

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24 Verified Questions

24 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following medications contributes to an increased right-to-left intrapulmonary shunting?

A)Dobutamine

B)Dopamine

C)Prostacyclin

D)Prostaglandin A

Q2) What is the potential benefit of adding heliox to patients who have status asthmaticus while undergoing mechanical ventilation?

A)To improve pulmonary compliance

B)To reverse bronchospasm

C)To minimize air trapping

D)To facilitate the removal of tracheobronchial secretions

Q3) The therapist is treating a very irritable young child with upper airway obstruction.Which oxygen device will be the most appropriate to administer the greatest concentration of helium?

A)Close-fitting nonrebreathing mask

B)Close-fitting partial rebreathing mask

C)Nasal cannula

D)High flow nasal cannula

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Extracorporeal Life Support

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The ECMO specialist has noticed excessive clotting in the circuit despite increase doses of heparin.What is the most feasible explanation for this event?

A)Too many platelet transfusions

B)Defective heparin

C)Blood flow too slow

D)Deficiency of ATIII

Q2) Which of the following parameters have been suggested as indications for pediatric ECMO?

I.PaO < 50 mm Hg

II.PaO /FiO < 75

III.OI > 35

IV.Pre-ECMO pH < 7.20

A)II,III and IV only

B)I,II,and III only

C)I,II,and IV only

D)II and IV only

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Chapter 20: Pharmacology

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following side effects are consistent with chronic administration of theophylline?

I.Nausea

II.Vomiting

III.Tachycardia

IV.Central nervous system stimulation

A)I and II only

B)II and III only

C)III and IV only

D)I,II,III,and IV

Q2) Which of the following medications is most suited for the treatment of postextubation edema?

A)Racemic epinephrine

B)Ephedrine

C)Norepinephrine

D)Fluticasone

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22

Chapter 21: Thoracic Organ Transplantation

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following conditions is a frequent cause of graft failure occurring within the first 90 days after lung transplantation?

A)Organ rejection

B)The potency of the antirejection drugs among this population

C)Ischemia-reperfusion

D)High pulmonary vascular pressures

Q2) Months after receiving a lung transplant a patient with cystic fibrosis exhibits the following signs and symptoms:

Increasing dyspnea

Increased coughing with sputum production

Colonization with Pseudomonas species

The patient also appears to be in respiratory failure.Which of the following conditions is likely developing?

A)Bronchiolitis obliterans

B)Bronchorrhea

C)Acute respiratory distress syndrome

D)Pulmonary hypertension

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23

Chapter 22: Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders

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26 Verified Questions

26 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What ventilator settings should a therapist select for a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome?

I.PIP 25-30 cm H O

II.PEEP 3-6 cm H O

III.VT 5-6 mL/kg

IV.Frequency 60 breaths per minute

A)I and II only

B)II only

C)I,II,and III only

D)I,II,III,and IV

Q2) Which of the following conditions increase the risk for developing RDS?

I.Maternal diabetes

II.Cesarean delivery

III.Multiple births

IV.Premature rupture of membranes

A)I only

B)II and III only

C)I,II,and III only

D)II,III,and IV only

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Chapter 23: Congenital and Surgical Disorders That Affect

Respiratory Care

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following clinical manifestations characterize congenital diaphragmatic hernia?

I.The herniated contents cause compression of the developing ipsilateral lung.

II.The ipsilateral side may be compressed from shifting of the mediastinum.

III.Histologic studies demonstrate increased musculature in the media of the arterioles.

IV.Lung tissue is hypoplastic,including the pulmonary vasculature,even on the contralateral side.

A)I and III only

B)II and III only

C)III and IV only

D)I,III,and IV only

Q2) Which of the following acronyms is associated with esophageal atresia and tracheoesophageal fistula?

A)VACTERL

B)PROM

C)CHARGE

D)PPHN

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25

Chapter 24: Congenital Cardiac Defects

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following medications is the most common preoperative treatment to minimize preductal constriction until surgical correction of coarctation of the aorta can be achieved?

A)Indomethacin

B)Prostaglandin E

C)Negative inotropes

D)Diuretics

Q2) Which of the following clinical features characterize a critical aortic stenosis in a neonate?

A)Chest radiography reveals pleural effusion and pulmonary engorgement.

B)The neonate often has metabolic alkalosis.

C)The neonate presents in cardiogenic shock with hypotension.

D)These infants are rarely symptomatic during the first month of life.

Q3) At birth,what factor causes dilation of the pulmonary vascular bed and a decrease in the pulmonary vascular resistance?

A)Increased arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO )

B)Decreased arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO )

C)Lung inflation

D)Circulating indomethacin

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Sleep Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following body systems is the most important to evaluate when considering differential diagnoses for ALTE?

A)Gastrointestinal

B)Neurologic

C)Respiratory

D)Cardiac

Q2) Which age group is more often affected by periodic breathing?

A)Newborns

B)Infants

C)Children

D)Adults

Q3) Which of the following statements best describes the condition sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

A)More than 70% of victims are found in the late evening hours after the afternoon naps.

B)Infants are most likely to experience SIDS in the first 12 to 24 months of life.

C)SIDS is uncommon after infants are 6 months old.

D)SIDS occurs exclusively when the infant is presumed to have been asleep during the night.

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Chapter 26: Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary

Infections

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following radiographic techniques is best for determining the presence of a ball-valve type obstruction?

A)A standard portable A-P chest X-ray

B)A lateral neck radiograph

C)Either a right or left lateral decubitus film

D)Inspiratory and expiratory A-P chest X-rays

Q2) A 3-year-old child has been diagnosed with epiglottitis and was intubated due to severe respiratory distress.After 24 hours of antibiotics the therapist is considering extubation.What will be an acceptable leak before considering extubation?

A)£20 cm H O

B)21-30 cm H O

C)31-35 cm H O

D)An audible leak at any pressure level is enough to consider extubation.

Q3) Why does an infant's respiratory distress from choanal atresia seem to lessen when the infant cries?

A)Because the anterior nares widen more

B)Because the infant breathes more through the mouth

C)Because the infant is able to generate a stronger inspiratory effort

D)Because accessory muscles of ventilation help stabilize the chest wall

Page 28

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Chapter 27: Asthma

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following spirometric measurements is sensitive to small changes in airway caliber and decreases in value with increasing obstructive disease?

A)Forced vital capacity (FVC)

B)Forced expiratory flow between 200 and 1200 mL of the FVC (FEF200-1200)

C)Mean forced expiratory flow during the middle half of the FVC (FEF25-75)

D)Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV )

Q2) What is typically the first pharmacologic intervention instituted by the therapist to treat a patient who enters the emergency room with an asthmatic episode?

A)Three 20-minute administrations of salmeterol via a small-volume nebulizer in the first hour

B)Three treatments with albuterol given every 20 to 30 minutes by nebulization

C)Intravenous administration of corticosteroids

D)Combination therapy with a short-acting agonist and an anticholinergic bronchodilator via a metered dose inhaler (MDI)

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Chapter 28: Cystic Fibrosis

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 10-year-old child has had two sweat tests,each indicating a sweat chloride concentration of 30 mEq/L.How should the therapist interpret these data?

A)The child is a carrier of CF.

B)The child has CF.

C)The child is likely to develop CF.

D)The child does not have CF.

Q2) What are the primary characteristics of cystic fibrosis?

I.Chronic obstruction and inflammation of the airways

II.Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

III.Malabsorption and small bowel obstruction

IV.Decreased sweat chloride concentration

A)I and IV only

B)I,II,and III only

C)I,II,and IV only

D)II,III,and IV only

Q3) What are the chances of two CFTR gene carriers having a normal child?

A)100%

B)75%

C)50%

D)25%

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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following indirect insults can cause ARDS?

A)Pneumonia

B)Chest trauma

C)Closed head injury

D)Cor pulmonale

Q2) How should the therapist use the point on the pressure-volume loop where the shape changes from concave to exponential?

A)To set PEEP

B)To set VT

C)To set Ti

D)To set PIP

Q3) What level of FiO should the therapist avoid using long term in patients with ARDS?

A)40%

B)50%

C)60%

D)Any level above 30%

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Chapter 30: Shock, Sepsis and Anaphylaxis

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which vascular site would provide the most reliable measurement of the beat-to-beat monitoring of the blood pressure in an infant who is suspected of having shock?

A)Any vessel

B)Any peripheral vein

C)A peripheral or central artery

D)A central vein

Q2) In which of the following clinical situations may the administration of packed red blood cells be indicated?

A)When a patient demonstrates leukopenia

B)When a patient shows evidence of anemia

C)When the risk of sepsis is present

D)When a patient shows evidence of hypovolemic shock

Q3) Which of the following hemodynamic assessments can be obtained from a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure measurement?

A)Central venous pressure

B)Right ventricular preload

C)Left ventricular afterload

D)Left ventricular preload

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Chapter 31: Pediatric Trauma

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Q1) When should a rescuer begin applying airway management and rescue breathing at the scene of a drowning event?

A)As soon as the victim is removed from the water

B)Once water is removed from the victim's lungs after the victim is removed from the water

C)By the emergency medical crew after the victim is removed from the water

D)If possible,before the victim is out of the water

Q2) The presence of entrance wounds below the level of the nipples suggests which of the following types of injury?

A)Spinal cord injury

B)Thoracic cage damage

C)Esophageal injury

D)Intra-abdominal injury

Q3) When should endotracheal intubation be performed on a smoke inhalation victim?

A)As soon as possible

B)Only if the patient demonstrates inspiratory and expiratory stridor

C)When the airway appears to be narrowing as determined by bronchoscopy

D)When the signs and symptoms of respiratory failure are present

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33

Chapter 32: Disorders of the Pleura

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Q1) Which of the following conditions is considered a complication of a thoracentesis?

A)Increased intracranial pressure

B)Pneumothorax

C)Pneumonia

D)Consolidation

Q2) Fluid drained from a thoracentesis has the appearance of pus.Which of the following microorganisms should the therapist typically suspect in children with empyema?

A)Staphylococcus aureus

B)Streptococcus pneumoniae

C)Klebsiella pneumoniae

D)Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Q3) Which of the following are the most common symptoms associated with pneumothorax?

A)Cough and headache

B)Shortness of breath and chest pain

C)Hemoptysis and chest pain

D)Dry cough and dyspnea

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34

Chapter 33: Neurologic and Neuromuscular Disorders

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Q1) What are the consequences of bulbar muscle dysfunction?

I.Dysphagia

II.Impaired coughing

III.Dysarthria

IV.Impaired inspiration

A)II and IV only

B)I and III only

C)I,II,and III only

D)II,III,and IV only

Q2) Which of the following neuromuscular diseases is characterized in early childhood by progressive muscle weakness,followed by skeletal and respiratory muscle weakness,and in adolescence by confinement to a wheelchair and requirement for ventilatory assistance?

A)Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

B)Duchenne muscular dystrophy

C)Glycogen storage disease

D)Becker muscular dystrophy

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35

Chapter 34: Transport of Infants and Children

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Sample Questions

Q1) How large should the interior of an ambulance be for accommodating equipment and personnel?

A)Large enough for two incubators and eight personnel

B)Large enough for one large incubator and two team members

C)Large enough to secure two transport incubators and room to seat enough team members to provide care

D)Large enough to be versatile regardless of the equipment and personnel needs

Q2) Which of the following distances is generally considered the maximum mileage in one direction for ground transport of a critically ill child?

A)15 miles

B)30 miles

C)45 miles

D)60 miles

Q3) Which of the following effects are expected during ascent in air transport?

A)Decreased urine output

B)Respiratory rate decreases

C)Endotracheal tube cuff pressure decreases

D)Depth of breathing increases

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Chapter 35: Home Care

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Q1) Before a ventilator-dependent child can be discharged home,which of the following criteria must be met?

A)The ventilator setting must be stable for at least 3 weeks.

B)Arterial blood gas measurements must be stable and within normal limits.

C)The patient's Fio must be 0.80 or less.

D)If PEEP is used,it must be no more than 10 cm H O.

Q2) At what point during the patient's admission to the hospital should discharge planning begin?

A)On admission

B)Once the patient gets situated in a private or semiprivate room

C)Once the patient stabilizes

D)When the patient stabilizes and after all resources have been evaluated

Q3) What are the advantages of an oxygen concentrator?

A)It provides an unlimited supply of oxygen.

B)It does not require a power source.

C)It does not require gas analysis.

D)It is ideal for transport situations.

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Chapter 36: Quality and Safety

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following types of infections are considered HAIs?

I.Catheter-associated blood stream infections

II.Catheter-associated urinary tract infections

III.Ventilator-associated pneumonias

IV.Surgical site infections

A)II and III only

B)I,II,and IV only

C)I,III,and IV only

D)I,II,III,and IV

Q2) What is the most common serious error observed in the NICU?

A)Medication related

B)Patient misidentification

C)Error in the diagnosis

D)Delayed diagnosis

Q3) What has been described by the IOM as a necessary component of change needed to occur to improve patient safety?

A)Increase the number of physicians

B)Increase the number of nurses and allied health professionals

C)Develop teams of caregivers for multidisciplinary communication

D)Involve the family in the health care team

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