Neonatal Intensive Care Nursing Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Neonatal Intensive Care Nursing is a specialized course designed to prepare nursing students and practicing nurses for the complex and highly skilled care of critically ill newborns in neonatal intensive care units (NICUs). The course covers comprehensive assessment and management of neonatal conditions, including prematurity, respiratory distress, congenital anomalies, and infections. Emphasis is placed on advanced monitoring, use of specialized equipment, pharmacological and nutritional support, and developmentally supportive care. Students also learn about effective communication with families, ethical considerations, and multidisciplinary collaboration to promote the best possible outcomes for neonates and their families.
Recommended Textbook
Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care 4th Edition by Brian K. Walsh
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36 Chapters
733 Verified Questions
733 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Fetal Lung Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following phases of human lung development is characterized by the formation of a capillary network around airway passages?
A)Pseudoglandular
B)Saccular
C)Alveolar
D)Canalicular
Answer: D
Q2) Regarding postnatal lung growth,by approximately what age do most of the alveoli that will be present in the lungs for life develop?
A)6 months
B)1 year
C)1.5 years
D)2 years
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman is coming for an early prenatal evaluation and wants to know if she can listen to the baby's heartbeat.How early can the fetal heartbeat be detected?
A)Day 8
B)Day 22
C)Day 45
D)Day 60
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following events causes cessation of right-to-left shunt through the foramen ovale?
A)Increased levels of Po in the blood of the neonate
B)Decreased levels of Pco in the blood of the newborn
C)Increased systemic vascular resistance
D)Removal of the placenta,causing lowered blood volume returning to the right side of the fetal heart
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Antenatal Assessment and High Risk Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fetus is undergoing a contraction stress test.Uterine contractions are stimulated by the intravenous infusion of oxytocin into the mother.The fetal PO drops below 12 mm Hg and causes the fetal heart rate to slow.Which of the following conditions is likely indicated by this occurrence?
A)Placenta abruption
B)Oligohydramnios
C)Uteroplacental insufficiency
D)Nuchal cords
Answer: C
Q2) What is the most common invasive procedure to assess the fetal condition?
A)Amniocentesis
B)Scalp fetal pH
C)Stress test
D)Needle ultrasound
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While auscultating a young child's thorax,the therapist hears bilateral fine crackles. Which of the following conditions can produce these adventitious sounds?
A)Pulmonary edema
B)Bronchitis
C)Croup
D)Asthma
Q2) A newborn does not appear to respond to the extrauterine environment.Cry is weak and the respiratory effort is not strong.Which of the following methods should the therapist use to stimulate the newborn?
A)Hold the newborn upside down.
B)Rub over the sternal area.
C)Suction the nasopharynx.
D)Gently rub the back.
Q3) Which of the following white blood cell counts constitutes the condition leukopenia?
A)Less than or equal to 3500/mm³
B)5000 to 10,000/mm³
C)10,000 to 20,000/mm³
D)Greater than or equal to 25,000/mm³
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside
Pulmonary Mechanics
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why must caution be exercised when using a face mask while performing pulmonary function testing on neonates?
A)To prevent trigeminal nerve stimulation
B)To avoid necrosis of the facial skin
C)To prevent vagal reflexes
D)To prevent gastric insufflations
Q2) A child has been diagnosed with vocal cord dysfunction.Which of the following flow-volume loops demonstrates this condition?
A)Figure 5-9C
B)Figure 5-9A
C)Figure 5-9B
D)Figure 5-8B
Q3) What is the clinical purpose for measuring the maximal inspiratory pressure (MIP)?
A)To assess lung function before and after bronchodilator administration
B)To help patients with asthma management at home
C)To evaluate the strength of respiratory muscles
D)To assist in performing bronchial hygiene techniques
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Radiographic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lateral decubitus view is a frontal radiographic projection whereby the side down can be evaluated for presence of ____________________.
A)Atelectasis;a pneumothorax
B)A pleural effusion;a pneumothorax
C)Consolidation;atelectasis
D)A pleural effusion;consolidation
Q2) A therapist is viewing a frontal chest radiograph of a neonate who has just been endotracheally intubated.The tip of the endotracheal tube is located between the inferior clavicular border and the carina.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)Perform routine respiratory assessment in the morning and care for an intubated patient at this time.
B)Withdraw the endotracheal tube a few millimeters.
C)Advance the endotracheal tube a few millimeters.
D)Remove the endotracheal tube and reinsert it because it is in the esophagus.
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8
Chapter 7: Bronchoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following features are considered advantages of the rigid bronchoscope over the flexible bronchoscope?
I.Improved anatomic definition
II.Ability to provide better ventilation
III.Large internal diameter
IV.Ability to introduce larger instruments
A)I and II only
B)III and IV only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q2) When using normal saline for bronchoalveolar lavage,what is the maximum amount of normal saline per kg that should be used?
A)1 mL/kg per aliquot
B)1 mL/kg total
C)2 ml/kg per lung
D)2 mL/kg total
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9
Chapter 8: Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) A respiratory therapist has been ordered to obtain a blood gas sample from a nonintubated premature baby.After selecting the best site to obtain the sample,what should the RT suggest to ameliorate the pain associated with the procedure?
A)Administer a small dose of fentanyl
B)Inject lidocaine at the injection site
C)Give a pacifier dipped in 24% sucrose
D)Administer a lidocaine drip
Q2) A patient has a systolic blood pressure of 100 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure of 75 mm Hg.What is this patient's mean arterial pressure?
A)25 mm Hg
B)58 mm Hg
C)83 mm Hg
D)175 mm Hg
Q3) Which of the following conditions can cause methemoglobinemia?
A)Anemia
B)Inhalation of nitric oxide (NO)
C)Use of dobutamine
D)High fraction of inspired oxygen
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Chapter 9: Noninvasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do transcutaneous oxygen tension (PO )and carbon dioxide tension (PCO )values differ from PaO and PaCO measurements?
A)Because of the lag time between the cardiac output and the time the blood reaches the transcutaneous electrode site
B)Because the skin is much more permeable to oxygen than carbon dioxide
C)Because oxygen is consumed and carbon dioxide is produced in transit from the left ventricle to the electrode site
D)Because metabolism in the tissue consumes oxygen and produces carbon dioxide at the site of the electrode
Q2) What clinical parameter is critically important to monitor when mechanical ventilation is administered?
A)Blood pressure
B)Heart rate
C)Temperature
D)Respiratory rate
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11
Chapter 10: Oxygen Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child with an exacerbation of asthma is a candidate for the administration of heliox.Which of the following gas delivery devices is most suitable for its administration?
A)Nasal catheter
B)Simple mask
C)Partial rebreathing mask
D)Nonrebreathing mask
Q2) In order to decrease the risk of nasal irritation in newborns,what is the maximum flow rate recommended?
A)0.5 L/minute
B)1 L/minute
C)2 L/minute
D)3 L/minute
Q3) Which of the following disorders can develop in neonates as a result of receiving concentrations of oxygen that produce a high PaO ?
A)Atelectasis
B)Hyperoxia
C)Retinopathy of prematurity
D)Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
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12
Chapter 11: Aerosols and Administration of Medication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following considerations is most important when using a large-volume nebulizer to provide oxygen and humidification to an infant in an incubator?
A)Meeting the inspiratory flow demands of the infant
B)Supplying the infant with adequate humidification
C)Delivering sufficient oxygen to meet the infant's needs
D)Preventing a high noise level from developing
Q2) The respiratory therapist is administering a nebulizer with a mask to a 2-year-old child.The mask is being held away from the child's face ("blow-by")due to excessive crying.What should the RT consider doing to improve aerosol lung deposition?
A)Comfortably hold the mask close to the face to minimize the leak.
B)Change the aerosol to a pMDI.
C)Change the aerosol mask to a mouthpiece.
D)Ask the mother of the child to hold the mask and continue "blow-by" therapy.
Q3) By what percentage can breath holding increase particle deposition in the lungs?
A)5%
B)10%
C)15%
D)20%
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13
Chapter 12: Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung
Volume Expansion
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the main components of the traditional airway clearance techniques?
I.Palpation of the chest wall
II.Postural drainage
III.Percussion
IV.Coughing
A)II only
B)I and III only
C)II,III,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q2) Which of the following maneuvers is characterized by having a patient forcibly exhale,from a middle to low lung volume,through an open glottis?
A)Autogenic drainage
B)Directed cough
C)Positive expiratory pressure
D)Active cycle of breathing
Q3) What is the most important variable used to assess the efficacy of CPT?
A)Quality of the chest radiograph
B)Degree and persistence of coughing
C)Changes in the color and consistency of mucus
D)Amount of mucus obtained during and after treatment
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Chapter 13: Airway Management
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What conditions should be met before considering decannulation?
I.Original indication for tracheostomy has resolved
II.Tolerance of a Passey-Muir valve most of the day
III.No need for suctioning
IV.Absence of fever
A)I,II,and III only
B)I and III only
C)III and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q2) Which of the following statements describe the laryngeal mask airway (LMA)?
A)The LMA should be used only with conscious patients.
B)The potential for aspiration is lower than with translaryngeal intubation.
C)The LMA is a good alternative as an emergency airway when positive-pressure ventilation is needed.
D)The LMA is placed into the larynx immediately above the epiglottis.
Q3) Where is the tracheostomy tube usually placed in children?
A)Between the second and fourth tracheal rings
B)Between the fourth and fifth tracheal rings
C)Between the cricoid and the thyroid cartilage
D)Between the first and second tracheal rings
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Chapter 14: Surfactant Replacement
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Sample Questions
Q1) A full-term infant received surfactant as rescue therapy for RDS.Despite redosing,the infant has not been able to be extubated during the first 2 weeks of life.What should this neonate be evaluated for?
A)a1-antitrypsin deficiency
B)Vitamin B deficiency
C)SP-A deficiency
D)SP-D deficiency
Q2) Which of the following clinical conditions should be suspected in a neonate unresponsive to surfactant due to its inactivation?
A)Pulmonary hypertension
B)Pulmonary hemorrhage
C)Pneumonia
D)Methemoglobinemia
Q3) According to Laplace's law the pressure required to open an alveoli in the lung is:
A)Directly proportional to the radius
B)Inversely proportional to the length of the airway
C)Directly proportional to the surface tension
D)Indirectly proportional to the viscosity of the gas in the airway
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Chapter 15: Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and
Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A preterm infant in respiratory distress is a candidate for CPAP.To minimize the work of breathing,which device should be used?
A)B-CPAP
B)IF-CPAP
C)Single probe CPAP
D)V-CPAP
Q2) After increasing the level of CPAP delivered to an infant,the therapist notices that the neonate's PaCO rises and the PaO falls.What may have caused this situation?
A)The Fio was not increased sufficiently.
B)The CPAP level was not raised enough.
C)The CPAP level was raised too high.
D)A problem with the interface has likely developed.
Q3) After initiating IF-CPAP in an infant at 8 cm H O,the therapist notices a low-pressure alarm.What should be done to correct this situation?
A)Correct the leak by placing a chin trap.
B)Change to a smaller cannula.
C)Increase the flow through the CPAP system.
D)Change the flow generator.
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Chapter 16: Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child
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Sample Questions
Q1) What level of IPAP is typically sufficient to achieve the goals of NPPV in pediatric patients?
A)20 to 25 cm H O
B)15 to 20 cm H O
C)8 to 12 cm H O
D)5 to 10 cm H O
Q2) Which of the following bilevel ventilator settings influences upper airway stability?
A)IPAP
B)Mode
C)Respiratory rate
D)EPAP
Q3) What is the clinical significance of the IPAP-EPAP gradient in bilevel NPPV?
A)It represents the mean airway pressure to which the patient's lungs are exposed.
B)It determines the patient's tidal volume.
C)The IPAP-EPAP gradient determines the inspiratory time.
D)This gradient determines the level of pressure support the patient will receive.
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Chapter 17: Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonate and
Pediatric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) During high-frequency ventilation,as the diameter of the ETT increases,what happens to the delivered tidal volume under the same pressure settings?
A)It does not change.
B)It increases.
C)It increases only if compliance changes.
D)It decreases.
Q2) During HFOV manipulation of which of the following components establishes the continuous distending pressure?
A)Gas flow through the pneumotachometer during expiration
B)Peak inspiratory pressure-trough pressure gradient
C)Inspiratory valve aperture
D)Bias flow
Q3) Which of the following are indications for HFV?
A)Diffuse,heterogeneous lung disease
B)Existing pulmonary air leak syndrome
C)Severe bronchiolitis
D)PaO /Fio ratio of 300
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Administration of Gas Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist has initiated nitric oxide for an infant with severe refractory hypoxemia.The initial dose was 20 ppm and titrated up to 30 ppm for the last 4 hours due to lack of response.However,there still is no response.What should the therapist do?
A)Increase iNO to 40 ppm
B)Increase iNO to 60 ppm
C)Increase iNO to 80 ppm
D)Discontinue iNO and consider a different therapeutic intervention
Q2) What is the product of the reaction between oxygen and nitric oxide?
A)Oxygen radicals
B)N2O
C)NO
D)The two molecules do not react with each other.
Q3) What is the purpose of administering helium-oxygen gas mixtures to patients?
A)To reduce the work of breathing
B)To improve gas exchange
C)To increase the functional residual capacity
D)To improve pulmonary compliance
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Chapter 19: Extracorporeal Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because the minimum flow rate required to remove condensation in the gas compartment usually results in excessive elimination of carbon dioxide,what should the therapist do?
A)Reduce pump flow
B)Blend sweep gas with a carbogen mixture
C)Reduce the amount of oxygen blended in the sweep gas
D)Add more oxygen to the sweep gas
Q2) What is the advantage of having the centrifugal pump automatically respond to resistances against which it is pumping?
A)It avoids placing increased pressures on the heart.
B)It eliminates lowering pulmonary vascular pressures.
C)It maintains regulated flow through the system.
D)It ensures that the blood flows smoothly through the membrane oxygenator.
Q3) The therapist in charge of a patient on ECMO is monitoring ACT every 30 minutes.The last ACT was 100 seconds.What should the therapist suggest at this time?
A)Decrease the amount of platelets transfused.
B)Increase the heparin dose.
C)Add plasminogen.
D)Increase blood flow to decrease contact time.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications works to maintain the integrity of the mast cell?
A)Ipratropium bromide
B)Magnesium sulfate
C)Cromolyn sodium
D)Methylprednisolone
Q2) Which of the following medications is an effective adjunctive therapy in relieving bronchospasm in patients with acute bronchospasm when combined with albuterol?
A)Pirbuterol
B)Salmeterol
C)Metaproterenol
D)Ipratropium bromide
Q3) Which of the following medications is a recombinant humanized monoclonal anti-IgE antibody use for the treatment of severe persistent asthma?
A)rhDNase
B)RespiGam
C)Omalizumab
D)Palivizumab
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22
Chapter 21: Thoracic Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is a frequent cause of graft failure occurring within the first 90 days after lung transplantation?
A)Organ rejection
B)The potency of the antirejection drugs among this population
C)Ischemia-reperfusion
D)High pulmonary vascular pressures
Q2) Which of the following is the most common indication for heart transplantation?
A)Cardiomyopathy
B)Massive myocardial infarction
C)External pacemaker placement
D)Primary pulmonary hypertension
Q3) When could kidneys,liver,and lungs be procured for transplantation from a patient with anticipated cardiac arrest?
A)If arrest is anticipated within the next 24 hours
B)If arrest is anticipated within the next 12 hours
C)If arrest is anticipated within the next 6 hours
D)If arrest is anticipated within the next 1 hour
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Chapter 22: Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to Group B Streptococcus,which of the following microorganisms are responsible for nosocomial pneumonia acquired after delivery?
A)RSV
B)Escherichia coli
C)Pseudomona spp.
D)Haemophilus influenza
Q2) What is the significance of an infant with RDS demonstrating a grunt during each exhalation?
A)Resolution of the RDS
B)An effort to maintain its functional residual capacity (FRC)
C)An attempt to overcome increased airway resistance
D)Impending death
Q3) Which of the following medications should the therapist recommend for an infant with apnea of prematurity experiencing episodes of apnea?
A)Caffeine
B)Benzodiazepines
C)Antibiotics
D)Doxapram
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Chapter 23: Congenital and Surgical Disorders That Affect
Respiratory Care
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is consistent with the presence of a scaphoid abdomen in a newborn with tachypnea?
A)Neonatal pneumonia
B)Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
C)Tracheoesophageal fistula
D)Esophageal atresia
Q2) Which of the following conditions is consistent with micrognathia,glossoptosis,and cleft palate in a newborn?
A)Pierre Robin syndrome
B)Choanal atresia
C)Treacher Collins syndrome
D)Esophageal atresia
Q3) What is the most common patient complaint associated with pectus carinatum?
A)Cough
B)Dyspnea at rest
C)Cosmetic
D)Cardiac palpitations
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Congenital Cardiac Defects
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Q1) Why must supplemental oxygen be judiciously administered to patients with an atrioventricular canal defect?
A)To prevent the development of retinopathy of prematurity
B)To avoid oxygen-induced hypoventilation
C)To minimize pulmonary vascular dilation
D)To reduce oxidative stress
Q2) For which of the following congenital cardiac defects may spontaneous closure of the ductus arteriosus be catastrophic?
I.Tetralogy of Fallot with pulmonary atresia
II.Atrial septal defect
III.Severe coarctation of the aorta
IV.Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
A)I and III only
B)III and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)I,III,and IV only
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Chapter 25: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Sleep
Disorders
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Q1) What is the leading cause of death in infants?
A)Congenital malformations (e.g. ,heart defects)
B)CSA
C)SIDS
D)ALTE
Q2) According to the American Academy of Pediatrics,in addition to cessation of breathing,which of the following clinical signs is associated with central sleep apnea?
A)Tachycardia
B)Cyanosis
C)Hypertension
D)Hypertonia
Q3) Which of the following conditions is the major cause of OSA in children without any predisposing factor?
A)Choanal atresia
B)Macroglossia
C)Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
D)Pierre Robin Syndrome
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Chapter 26: Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary Infections
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Q1) Which of the following medications should be administered to a 4-year-old child who develops postextubation stridor?
A)Phenylephrine
B)Racemic epinephrine
C)Prednisolone
D)Antibiotics
Q2) While performing auscultation on a 2-month-old child,the therapist hears wheezes equal in pitch across all regions of the chest;however,they seem loudest in the vicinity of the sternum.From which of the following anatomic structures is the wheezing likely originating?
A)Trachea
B)Terminal bronchioles
C)Segmental bronchi
D)Alveoli
Q3) Relative to an adult's larynx,where is an infant's larynx situated?
A)C1-2
B)C2-3
C)C3-4
D)C4-5
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Chapter 27: Asthma
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Q1) Which of the following immunoglobulins has been identified as a key molecule in mediating allergic asthma and should be measured in serum?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgM
D)IgD
Q2) Which of the following events occurs during the first phase of airway inflammation?
A)Release of preformed mediators
B)Antigen-antibody reactions on the surface of mast cells
C)Inhalation of offending antigen
D)Bronchial mucosal edema
Q3) When endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are indicated for a pediatric patient with asthma,which of the following ventilator setting adjustments should the therapist consider making?
A)25% inspiratory pause
B)Tidal volume 10 mL/kg
C)Low to moderate positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
D)Low Fio
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Chapter 28: Cystic Fibrosis
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Q1) What are the chances of two CFTR gene carriers having a normal child?
A)100%
B)75%
C)50%
D)25%
Q2) Which of the following methods is the most commonly recommended for newborn screening?
A)Sodium in urine
B)Nasal potential difference
C)CT scan of the chest with contrast
D)Immunoreactive trypsinogen
Q3) Approximately what percentage of patients with cystic fibrosis present with pulmonary symptoms?
A)100%
B)80%
C)50%
D)30%
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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) On the basis of the Berlin definition of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS),the definition of moderate acute respiratory distress syndrome comprises which of the following components?
I.PaO /FiO £200 mm Hg
II.Onset of respiratory symptoms within 1 week of clinical insult
III.Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure greater than 18 mm Hg
IV.Chest radiograph with bilateral infiltrates not fully explained by effusions or collapse
A)I and II only
B)I and III only
C)II and IV only
D)I,II,and IV only
Q2) What pathophysiologic change accounts for the alteration of the hysteresis curve during ARDS?
A)High transpulmonary pressures
B)High transairway pressures
C)Hyperinflated lungs
D)Refractory hypoxemia
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Chapter 30: Shock, Sepsis and Anaphylaxis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following signs is one of the first to indicate decreased peripheral perfusion in children?
A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Hypotension
D)Dyspnea
Q2) A measure of the resistance or force against which the heart must pump defines which of the following terms?
A)Preload
B)Afterload
C)Inotropy
D)Chronotropy
Q3) Which of the following can be obtained from a central venous pressure measurement?
A)Stroke volume
B)Afterload
C)Preload
D)Myocardial contractility
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Chapter 31: Pediatric Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs to the victim during drowning after the victim has been immersed in water to the point of becoming hypercarbic,hypoxemic,and acidemic?
A)Laryngospasm stops,and the victim actively inspires water.
B)The victim begins to vomit.
C)Laryngospasm continues and the hypercarbia,hypoxemia,and acidemia worsen.
D)The victim stops breathing,and water flows into the lungs,causing asphyxia.
Q2) A child with a head injury displays bruising discolorations around the orbits,or "raccoon eyes." What does this indicate?
A)Direct trauma to the eyes
B)Frontal trauma
C)Basilar skull fracture
D)Brain herniation
Q3) What should be always assumed in the case of traumatic injury regardless of the mechanism?
A)Head injury
B)Pulmonary contusion
C)Cervical spine injury
D)Leg fracture
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Chapter 32: Disorders of the Pleura
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Q1) Which of the following factors determines the amount of fluid present in the pleural space?
A)Intracapillary hydrostatic pressure
B)Subatmospheric pressure in the pleural space
C)Pleural pressure
D)Intra-alveolar pressure
Q2) Fluid drained from a thoracentesis has the appearance of pus.Which of the following microorganisms should the therapist typically suspect in children with empyema?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae
D)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Q3) Which of the following mechanisms explains the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space of patients with ARDS?
A)Increased capillary permeability
B)Decreased osmotic pressure
C)Increased hydrostatic pressure
D)Obstructed lymphatic drainage
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Chapter 33: Neurologic and Neuromuscular Disorders
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Q1) The therapist is performing an airway clearance technique to a 5-month-old child with a diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia.The child has a very weak cough and,although he appears alert,he cannot move.Which of the following disorders of the motor nerve should the therapist suspect?
A)Polio
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Spinal muscular atrophy
D)Guillian-Barré
Q2) Which of the following glycogen storage diseases has the most severe respiratory symptoms?
A)Pompe disease
B)Diabetes
C)Von Gierke
D)Forbes-Cori disease
Q3) Which of the following diseases is characterized by demyelination of sheaths that coat peripheral nerves?
A)Poliomyelitis
B)Guillain-Barré syndrome
C)Chiari malformations
D)Infantile botulism
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Chapter 34: Transport of Infants and Children
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Q1) Which of the following distances is considered the effective radius for rapid transport of critically ill patients via helicopter?
A)Less than 30 miles
B)Between 30 and 150 miles
C)Between 150 and 250 miles
D)Between 250 and 300 miles
Q2) During transport,how is the decision made to provide volume- or pressure-controlled ventilation?
A)The patient always receives volume-controlled ventilation.
B)The patient always receives pressure-controlled ventilation.
C)The type of ventilation used is determined by the physician's order.
D)The type of ventilation used depends on the patient's needs.
Q3) Which of the following types of health care providers generally compose the crew for infant transport?
A)Discharge planner and nurse
B)Respiratory therapist and nurse
C)Physician and nurse
D)Discharge planner and physician
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Chapter 35: Home Care
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Q1) Before a ventilator-dependent child can be discharged home,which of the following criteria must be met?
A)The ventilator setting must be stable for at least 3 weeks.
B)Arterial blood gas measurements must be stable and within normal limits.
C)The patient's Fio must be 0.80 or less.
D)If PEEP is used,it must be no more than 10 cm H O.
Q2) What are the advantages of an oxygen concentrator?
A)It provides an unlimited supply of oxygen.
B)It does not require a power source.
C)It does not require gas analysis.
D)It is ideal for transport situations.
Q3) Which of the following infants may benefit from using an apnea monitor at home?
I.Infants who were born preterm
II.Infants who have experienced a life-threatening event
III.Infants who have been diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease
IV.Infants who have experienced an apneic episode for any reason in the hospital
A)II and III only
B)I,II,and IV only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
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Chapter 36: Quality and Safety
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Q1) Lack of skills and/or failure to follow or deviation from standard practices/procedures is known as:
A)Sentinel event
B)Six Sigma
C)Negligence
D)Health failure mode
Q2) What is a statistical method that measures standard deviations or known variance and the degree to which almost perfect production can occur?
A)Six Sigma
B)Systemic variability
C)Analysis of variance
D)Power
Q3) The wrong dose of albuterol is administered to the patient,but the patient does not have any adverse response.What is the name of this event?
A)Near miss
B)Precursor safety event
C)Serious safety event
D)Sentinel event
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