Neonatal and Pediatric Pathophysiology
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers an in-depth exploration of the physiological and pathological processes affecting neonates and children, emphasizing the unique aspects of disease development in early life. Students will study congenital and acquired disorders, the impact of genetic and environmental factors on growth and development, as well as the clinical manifestations and management of common and critical illnesses in infancy and childhood. Through case studies and applied learning, the course prepares students to recognize and understand the distinctive pathophysiological mechanisms in pediatric populations, laying a foundation for effective clinical practice and further study in pediatric health care.
Recommended Textbook
Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care 4th Edition by Brian K. Walsh
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36 Chapters
733 Verified Questions
733 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Fetal Lung Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mechanisms is (are)responsible for the possible association between oligohydramnios and lung hypoplasia?
I.Abnormal carbohydrate metabolism
II.Mechanical restriction of the chest wall
III.Interference with fetal breathing
IV.Failure to produce fetal lung liquid
A)I and III only
B)II and III only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following phases of human lung development is characterized by the formation of a capillary network around airway passages?
A)Pseudoglandular
B)Saccular
C)Alveolar
D)Canalicular
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman is coming for an early prenatal evaluation and wants to know if she can listen to the baby's heartbeat.How early can the fetal heartbeat be detected?
A)Day 8
B)Day 22
C)Day 45
D)Day 60
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following events causes cessation of right-to-left shunt through the foramen ovale?
A)Increased levels of Po in the blood of the neonate
B)Decreased levels of Pco in the blood of the newborn
C)Increased systemic vascular resistance
D)Removal of the placenta,causing lowered blood volume returning to the right side of the fetal heart
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Antenatal Assessment and High Risk Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman 41-weeks pregnant is at high risk for complication in the postpartum period.Which of the following agents will be more appropriate to induce labor?
A)Magnesium sulfate
B)Aspirin
C)Terbutaline
D)Oxytocin
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following conditions is responsible for up to 40% of the preterm births in the United States?
A)Cervical insufficiency
B)Premature rupture of the fetal membranes
C)Obstetrical intervention mandated by fetal jeopardy
D)Hormonal treatment during pregnancy
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pulmonary diseases are not chest wall deformities but are characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter?
A)Pectus excavatum
B)Interstitial pulmonary disease
C)Pneumonia
D)Cystic fibrosis
Q2) Why are chest retractions more prominent among neonates than among older children and adults?
A)Because neonates generate a greater subatmospheric intrapleural pressure
B)Because newborns have relatively thin and weak musculature and a less rigid thorax
C)Because neonates have a much higher respiratory rate
D)Because airway resistance through the smaller caliber airways is higher
Q3) An infant arrives in the newborn nursery with an axillary body temperature of 95.6°
F.Which of the following events may be responsible for this infant's temperature?
A)The neonate was in an infant warmer in the delivery room.
B)The infant was swaddled in numerous blankets.
C)The delivery room temperature was low.
D)The newborn has protracted diarrhea.
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside
Pulmonary Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is looking at a flow-volume curve that displays a concave shape on the expiratory tracing.What is this change most consistent with?
A)Neuromuscular disease
B)Abnormal chest wall configuration
C)Interstitial fibrosis
D)Asthma
Q2) Why must caution be exercised when using a face mask while performing pulmonary function testing on neonates?
A)To prevent trigeminal nerve stimulation
B)To avoid necrosis of the facial skin
C)To prevent vagal reflexes
D)To prevent gastric insufflations
Q3) A child has been diagnosed with vocal cord dysfunction.Which of the following flow-volume loops demonstrates this condition?
A)Figure 5-9C
B)Figure 5-9A
C)Figure 5-9B
D)Figure 5-8B
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Chapter 6: Radiographic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother has just given birth to a 42-week infant who is small for his gestational age.A chest radiograph of this neonate reveals coarse,patchy opacities secondary to atelectasis from bronchial obstruction alternating with areas of hyperinflation.Which of the following clinical disorders does this infant likely have?
A)Acute respiratory distress syndrome
B)Pulmonary interstitial emphysema
C)Meconium aspiration syndrome
D)Transient tachypnea of the newborn
Q2) A therapist is viewing a frontal chest radiograph of a neonate who has just been endotracheally intubated.The tip of the endotracheal tube is located between the inferior clavicular border and the carina.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)Perform routine respiratory assessment in the morning and care for an intubated patient at this time.
B)Withdraw the endotracheal tube a few millimeters.
C)Advance the endotracheal tube a few millimeters.
D)Remove the endotracheal tube and reinsert it because it is in the esophagus.
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Chapter 7: Bronchoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following complications of flexible bronchoscopy are considered most common?
I.Transient cough
II.Hypoxemia
III.Respiratory depression
IV.Bronchospasm
A)I and II only
B)III and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q2) The therapist selects a 3.0-mm-diameter insertion tube to be used for flexible bronchoscopy on a neonate who requires surfactant therapy.What should the therapist do with this insertion tube at this time?
A)Prepare the insertion tube for attachment to the flexible bronchoscope.
B)Replace the 3.0-mm insertion tube with one that is 4.0 mm in diameter.
C)Substitute the 3.0-mm-diameter insertion tube with a 2.0-mm-diameter insertion tube.
D)Recommend that the physician perform rigid bronchoscopy.
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Chapter 8: Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions can cause methemoglobinemia?
A)Anemia
B)Inhalation of nitric oxide (NO)
C)Use of dobutamine
D)High fraction of inspired oxygen
Q2) A respiratory therapist has been ordered to obtain a blood gas sample from a nonintubated premature baby.After selecting the best site to obtain the sample,what should the RT suggest to ameliorate the pain associated with the procedure?
A)Administer a small dose of fentanyl
B)Inject lidocaine at the injection site
C)Give a pacifier dipped in 24% sucrose
D)Administer a lidocaine drip
Q3) In addition to the dorsalis pedis,which of the following arteries is involved when the modified Allen's test is performed using a foot as the potential arterial puncture site?
A)Axillary artery
B)Femoral artery
C)Posterior tibial artery
D)Dorsalis pedis
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Chapter 9: Noninvasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care
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18 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapist has applied a bandage-type pulse oximetry probe too tightly to an infant's finger.What problem can be expected to occur in this situation?
A)The SPo will read erroneously low.
B)The SPo will read erroneously high.
C)The monitor will display a message indicating inadequate pulse.
D)The monitor will display fluctuating SPo values between being erroneously low and high.
Q2) Which of the following is the main physiologic factor responsible for deriving accurate transcutaneous data?
A)Heart rate
B)Minute ventilation
C)Peripheral perfusion
D)Ventilation-perfusion ratios
Q3) The therapist has been asked to measure preductal oxygen saturation.Where could the therapist place the pulse oximeter probe?
A)Right thumb
B)Left thumb
C)Forehead
D)Left earlobe
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Chapter 10: Oxygen Administration
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following disorders can develop in neonates as a result of receiving concentrations of oxygen that produce a high PaO ?
A)Atelectasis
B)Hyperoxia
C)Retinopathy of prematurity
D)Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Q2) Which of the following oxygen-delivery devices would be most suitable for an infant being treated for choanal atresia?
A)Nasal cannula
B)Nasal catheter
C)Oxygen hood
D)Oxygen mask
Q3) What is the minimum level of oxygen tension in a child that requires oxygen administration?
A)PaO of 80 mm Hg
B)PaO of 60 mm Hg
C)SPo of 92%
D)SPo of 95%
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Chapter 11: Aerosols and Administration of Medication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician in the emergency department is attending to a 12-year-old child who has an exacerbation of asthma.The physician asks the therapist to recommend a medication that has a synergistic effect with beta-2 agonists during asthma exacerbations.Which of the following medications should the therapist recommend?
A)Montelukast
B)Ipratropium bromide
C)Fluticasone
D)Triamcinolone
Q2) How can a patient avoid the problem of terminating inhalation when a plume from a pressurized metered-dose inhaler (pMDI)impacts the oropharynx?
A)Hold the pMDI closer the mouth.
B)Use a valved holding chamber.
C)Depress the nozzle only half the full distance.
D)Instruct the patient to inspire a short,rapid breath.
Q3) By what percentage can breath holding increase particle deposition in the lungs?
A)5%
B)10%
C)15%
D)20%
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung
Volume Expansion
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A respiratory therapist has been assigned to administer ACT to a number of patients on the ward.In which of the following conditions may ACT be contraindicated?
I.Foreign body aspiration
II.Frank hemoptysis
III.Empyema
IV.Untreated pneumothorax
A)I,II,III,and IV
B)II and IV only
C)III and IV only
D)I and IV only
Q2) What is the most important variable used to assess the efficacy of CPT?
A)Quality of the chest radiograph
B)Degree and persistence of coughing
C)Changes in the color and consistency of mucus
D)Amount of mucus obtained during and after treatment
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14
Chapter 13: Airway Management
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapist is measuring the intracuff pressure of a pediatric ETT.Where should the pressure be maintained to avoid complications?
A)5 to 10 cm H O
B)10 to 20 cm H O
C)20 to 25 cm H O
D)Not greater than 30 cm H O
Q2) Where in the upper airway of an infant should the laryngoscope straight blade be placed to expose the glottis during endotracheal intubation?
A)The epiglottis is directly lifted with the tip of the laryngoscope blade.
B)The tip of the laryngoscope blade is placed in the vallecula.
C)The tip of the laryngoscope blade is placed in the uvula.
D)The laryngoscope blade is used to sweep the tongue to the left.
Q3) Ideally,how many hours after last feeding should a therapist consider before changing a tracheostomy tube to minimize the risk of vomiting and aspiration?
A)At least 2 hours
B)At least 4 hours
C)At least 6 hours
D)At least 12 hours
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Chapter 14: Surfactant Replacement
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Sample Questions
Q1) A full-term infant received surfactant as rescue therapy for RDS.Despite redosing,the infant has not been able to be extubated during the first 2 weeks of life.What should this neonate be evaluated for?
A)a1-antitrypsin deficiency
B)Vitamin B deficiency
C)SP-A deficiency
D)SP-D deficiency
Q2) What is the role of SP-D in human pulmonary surfactant?
I.Suppresses proinflammatory responses
II.Enhances phagocytosis
III.Enhances killing of microbes
IV.Functions as an opsonin for bacteria
A)II and III only
B)III and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)I,III,and IV only
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Chapter 15: Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and
Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following outcomes are advantages of CPAP over mechanical ventilation in infants?
I.Lower risk of sepsis
II.Lower incidence of lung injury
III.Fewer cases of chronic lung disease
IV.Lower incidence of renal failure
A)I and III only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) After increasing the level of CPAP delivered to an infant,the therapist notices that the neonate's PaCO rises and the PaO falls.What may have caused this situation?
A)The Fio was not increased sufficiently.
B)The CPAP level was not raised enough.
C)The CPAP level was raised too high.
D)A problem with the interface has likely developed.
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Chapter 16: Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following restrictive disorders are likely to respond to both NPPV and CPAP in children?
I.Atelectasis
II.ARDS
III.Pneumonia
IV.Morbid obesity
A)I,II,and III only
B)II and IV only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) What is the most common complication associated with NPPV among pediatric patients?
A)Ventilator-associated pneumonia
B)Gastric insufflation
C)Claustrophobia
D)Skin irritation caused by the interface
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Chapter 17: Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonate and Pediatric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a frequent requirement when employing the low-volume strategy while ventilating a neonatal patient with pulmonary interstitial emphysema by HFV?
A)High inspiratory flow
B)Positive end-expiratory pressure
C)High inspired fraction of oxygen (Fio?)
D)Longer inspiratory time
Q2) During HFOV manipulation of which of the following components establishes the continuous distending pressure?
A)Gas flow through the pneumotachometer during expiration
B)Peak inspiratory pressure-trough pressure gradient
C)Inspiratory valve aperture
D)Bias flow
Q3) Enhanced diffusion in HFV is a function of which of the following factors?
A)Inspiratory flow
B)Plateau pressure
C)Inspiratory time
D)Respiratory frequency
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Administration of Gas Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapist taking care of an infant on iNO observes that the NO levels have been increasing.In order to correct the situation he increases the inspiratory flow of the ventilator.What will be some of the limitations associated with this change?
I.It reduces time of contact between NO and O .
II.It affects the mean airway pressure because it changes the inspiratory time.
III.It may increase the delivered tidal volume.
IV.It reduces the mean airway pressure and increases the inspiratory time.
A)I only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) The therapist is treating a very irritable young child with upper airway obstruction.Which oxygen device will be the most appropriate to administer the greatest concentration of helium?
A)Close-fitting nonrebreathing mask
B)Close-fitting partial rebreathing mask
C)Nasal cannula
D)High flow nasal cannula
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Chapter 19: Extracorporeal Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mechanisms affect the output of VV ECMO?
I.Size of the tubing
II.The rotations per minute
III.Tension of the rollers
IV.Blood pressure
A)I.II,and III only
B)I and IV only
C)II,III,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q2) What is considered the most concerning complication of ECMO in the newborn?
A)Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
B)Pneumonia
C)Intracranial hemorrhage
D)Hemosiderosis
Q3) In the gas membrane exchanger,what is one of the limiting factors to the transfer rate of oxygen across the membrane?
A)The flow of blood
B)The concentration gradient of the gas across the membrane
C)The thickness of the blood film between the membrane layers
D)The flow of gas in relationship to the flow of blood
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Chapter 20: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is a recombinant humanized monoclonal anti-IgE antibody use for the treatment of severe persistent asthma?
A)rhDNase
B)RespiGam
C)Omalizumab
D)Palivizumab
Q2) The physician asks the therapist to recommend a long-acting b-agonist for a patient.Which of the following medications should the therapist recommend?
A)Levalbuterol
B)Formoterol
C)Metaproterenol
D)Terbutaline
Q3) Which of the following agents should be considered in the rapid-sequence intubation of patients with status asthmaticus?
A)Atropine
B)Magnesium sulfate
C)Halothane
D)Ketamine
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Chapter 21: Thoracic Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some reasons for the decline in heart-lung transplants among infants?
I.Difficulty in obtaining a donor
II.Avoidance of cardiac rejection
III.Averting premature coronary artery disease
IV.Reducing the length of time on cardiopulmonary bypass
A)I and IV only
B)II and III only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) What typically makes lungs unsuitable for donation?
A)Pulmonary edema
B)Platelike atelectasis
C)Tracheal tear
D)Tracheitis
Q3) What is the predominant problem leading to heart transplantation in children younger than 1 year of age?
A)Cardiomyopathy
B)Congenital cardiac lesions
C)Valvular problems
D)Lethal cardiac dysrhythmias
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Chapter 22: Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) While reviewing the chest X-ray of a newborn,the therapist observes the following features:
Pulmonary vascular congestion
Prominent perihilar streaking
Fluid in the interlobular fissures
Hyperexpansion
Flat diaphragm
Which of the following conditions does this patient likely have?
A)RDS
B)Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
C)Transient tachypnea of the newborn
D)Barotrauma
Q2) The therapist is reviewing the chest radiograph of a newborn,preterm infant and observes diffuse,fine,reticulogranular densities,which provide a ground-glass appearance.On the basis of these radiographic findings,which of the following conditions should the therapist suspect is present?
A)Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
B)Respiratory distress syndrome
C)Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
D)Pulmonary interstitial emphysema
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Congenital and Surgical Disorders That Affect
Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following forms of tracheoesophageal fistula and esophageal atresia is most common?
A)Blind-ending upper esophageal pouch of variable length associated with a fistula from the lower trachea or main stem bronchi leading into the distal esophagus
B)An isolated esophageal atresia with a proximal blind-ending pouch and a "long gap" of missing esophagus above a small distal esophageal pouch
C)An esophageal atresia with a proximal and distal tracheoesophageal fistula
D)An isolated tracheoesophageal fistula presenting without atresia and usually occurring in the lower cervical or upper thoracic area
Q2) Which of the following interventions is used to treat macroglossia?
A)Positioning the patient appropriately corrects most cases.
B)Most cases are corrected surgically.
C)Polysomnography to determine any effect on sleep is all that is required.
D)Treatment is based on the severity of airway obstruction and etiology.
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25
Chapter 24: Congenital Cardiac Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the therapist interpret a preductal-to-postductal PaO difference of 8 mm Hg in a neonate?
A)Unreliable data
B)Absence of ductal shunting
C)Presence of ductal shunting
D)Inconclusive data
Q2) For which of the following congenital cardiac defects may spontaneous closure of the ductus arteriosus be catastrophic?
I.Tetralogy of Fallot with pulmonary atresia
II.Atrial septal defect
III.Severe coarctation of the aorta
IV.Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
A)I and III only
B)III and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)I,III,and IV only
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Chapter 25: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Sleep
Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old child was diagnosed with OSA due to tonsillar hypertrophy.Although adenotonsillectomy was performed,the child continues having daytime sleepiness and poor school performance.What should the therapist suggest at this time?
A)Consider uvulectomy.
B)Administer antireflux medications.
C)Perform allergy tests to confirm that airway obstruction is due to other clinical condition.
D)Provide continuous positive airway pressure.
Q2) Which age group is more often affected by periodic breathing?
A)Newborns
B)Infants
C)Children
D)Adults
Q3) A 28-week-gestation newborn is demonstrating periods of apnea.In addition to ventilatory support,what other treatment can the therapist suggest?
A)Placement of an oropharyngeal airway
B)Caffeine
C)Theophylline
D)Beta blockers
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Chapter 26: Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents has been shown to significantly reduce bronchiolitis scores?
A)Prednisone
B)Nebulized 3% hypertonic saline
C)Dexamethasone
D)Theophylline
Q2) A child presents to the emergency department with fever,tachypnea,nasal flaring,and shallow breathing.The physical exam of the chest reveals the presence of crackles,increased tactile fremitus,and dullness to percussion.What should the therapist suspect the diagnosis is?
A)Bronchitis
B)Bronchiectasis
C)Bronchiolitis
D)Pneumonia
Q3) Relative to an adult's larynx,where is an infant's larynx situated?
A)C1-2
B)C2-3
C)C3-4
D)C4-5
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Chapter 27: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persistent inflammation in asthma leads to a remodeling phase that is characterized by which of the following processes?
A)Bronchoconstriction
B)Mucous hyporsecretion
C)Airway smooth muscle hypertrophy
D)Ciliary paralysis
Q2) What appears to be the strongest identifiable predisposing factor for developing asthma?
A)Atopy
B)Genetics
C)Socioeconomic status
D)Race
Q3) The therapist is asked to recommend a quick-onset,long-acting beta-2 agonist to be added to the inhaled corticosteroid for a patient with asthma.Which of the following medications should the therapist recommend?
A)Formoterol
B)Salmeterol
C)Tiotropium bromide
D)Albuterol
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the primary characteristics of cystic fibrosis?
I.Chronic obstruction and inflammation of the airways
II.Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
III.Malabsorption and small bowel obstruction
IV.Decreased sweat chloride concentration
A)I and IV only
B)I,II,and III only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) Which of the following therapeutic interventions should be the focus of the treatment of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A)Airway clearance techniques
B)Bronchodilators
C)Antihistamines
D)PEP therapy
Q3) What are the chances of two CFTR gene carriers having a normal child?
A)100%
B)75%
C)50%
D)25%
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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following indirect insults can cause ARDS?
A)Pneumonia
B)Chest trauma
C)Closed head injury
D)Cor pulmonale
Q2) A therapist is evaluating the progress of a patient with ARDS.The arterial blood gas reveals a PaO? of 55 mm Hg and a PaCO? of 65 mm Hg.The PEEP is set at 12 cm H?O,and the mean airway pressure is 18 on an FiO? of 0.60.What is the OI in this patient?
A)20.7
B)13.1
C)1.31
D)200
Q3) Which of the following pathophysiologic changes seen in ARDS is responsible for the decrease in available surface area for gas exchange?
A)Hyperinflation of the lungs
B)Decreased right ventricular cardiac output
C)Pulmonary hypertension
D)Obliteration of small precapillary vessels
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Chapter 30: Shock, Sepsis and Anaphylaxis
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Q1) A respiratory therapist is gathering equipment to intubate a patient with anaphylactic shock who has severe bronchospasm.What is one of the most prominent inflammatory mediators responsible for the increase in airway resistance and fall in the PaO ?
A)Epinephrine
B)Histamine
C)Interleukin
D)IgE
Q2) During the treatment of sepsis,what intervention may be needed if hypotension persists despite the maximal application of inotropic and vasomotor support?
A)Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
B)High-frequency oscillatory ventilation
C)Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
D)Hyperbaric oxygenation
Q3) What is the mainstay of therapy for patients with anaphylactic shock?
A)Vasopressin
B)Dopamine
C)Epinephrine
D)IV fluids
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Chapter 31: Pediatric Trauma
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is considered a late mechanical complication of inhalation injuries?
A)Tracheomalacia
B)Atelectasis
C)Stridor
D)Infection
Q2) Patients experiencing penetrating thoracic trauma presenting with a significant pneumothorax with a continuous air leak through the chest tube should be suspected of having what type of problem?
A)Decreased pulmonary compliance
B)Aspiration of stomach contents
C)Gastric inflation
D)Major airway injuries
Q3) What is the most effective means of rewarming a near-drowning victim whose core temperature in the emergency room is 27° C?
A)Radiant warmers
B)Heated aerosol therapy
C)Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
D)Mechanical ventilation with heated humidity
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Disorders of the Pleura
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Q1) Which of the following factors determines the amount of fluid present in the pleural space?
A)Intracapillary hydrostatic pressure
B)Subatmospheric pressure in the pleural space
C)Pleural pressure
D)Intra-alveolar pressure
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms explains the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space of patients with ARDS?
A)Increased capillary permeability
B)Decreased osmotic pressure
C)Increased hydrostatic pressure
D)Obstructed lymphatic drainage
Q3) Which of the following are the most common symptoms associated with pneumothorax?
A)Cough and headache
B)Shortness of breath and chest pain
C)Hemoptysis and chest pain
D)Dry cough and dyspnea
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Chapter 33: Neurologic and Neuromuscular Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is characterized by chronic,slowly progressive muscle wasting and weakness,cataracts,heart conduction defects,and endocrine disorders?
A)Glycogen storage disease
B)Spinal muscular atrophy
C)Myotonic dystrophy
D)Becker muscular dystrophy
Q2) Which of the following therapeutic strategies should the therapist deem as the most important in patients with neuromuscular disease?
A)Airway clearance techniques
B)Oxygen therapy
C)Ventilatory support
D)Hydration
Q3) Ondine's curse,or congenital central hypoventilation syndrome,occurs during which activity?
A)Laughing
B)Sleeping
C)Eating
D)Crying
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Transport of Infants and Children
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Q1) What are the negative effects of an aircraft flown with a sea-level cabin altitude?
A)A higher flight altitude is necessary.
B)Air-to-ground communications become difficult.
C)Fuel consumption often increases.
D)The aircraft may encounter more altitude-related concerns.
Q2) Which of the following types of health care providers generally compose the crew for infant transport?
A)Discharge planner and nurse
B)Respiratory therapist and nurse
C)Physician and nurse
D)Discharge planner and physician
Q3) Which of the following communication systems is the most advantageous for fixed-wing ambulances to have to accomplish air-to-hospital communications?
A)UHF/AM transceiver
B)Walkie-talkie type phone
C)VHF radios
D)Satellite-type cell phone
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36
Chapter 35: Home Care
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Q1) What considerations need to be taken into account when applying external positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)to a home ventilator?
I.The ventilator circuit must be able to accommodate the weight of the PEEP valve.
II.The PEEP valve must be able to function at any angle.
III.Thoracostomy tubes need to be available to treat a pneumothorax.
IV.The exhalation ports must be free from obstructions.
A)II and IV only
B)I,II,and III only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) What are the goals of discharge planning?
I.To reduce the number of hospitalizations
II.To have the patient resume activities of daily living
III.To reduce the number of emergency room visits
IV.To reduce the patient's length of stay
A)I and IV only
B)I,II,and III only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
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Chapter 36: Quality and Safety
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Q1) What has been described by the IOM as a necessary component of change needed to occur to improve patient safety?
A)Increase the number of physicians
B)Increase the number of nurses and allied health professionals
C)Develop teams of caregivers for multidisciplinary communication
D)Involve the family in the health care team
Q2) What is a statistical method that measures standard deviations or known variance and the degree to which almost perfect production can occur?
A)Six Sigma
B)Systemic variability
C)Analysis of variance
D)Power
Q3) What is the most common serious error observed in the NICU?
A)Medication related
B)Patient misidentification
C)Error in the diagnosis
D)Delayed diagnosis
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