Neonatal and Pediatric Pathophysiology
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the physiological and pathological processes specific to neonates and children, highlighting the unique characteristics that differentiate them from adults. Topics include normal growth and development, adaptation to extrauterine life, and common congenital and acquired disorders affecting major organ systems such as the cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and nervous systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding disease mechanisms, clinical manifestations, diagnostic approaches, and the implications for treatment in the neonatal and pediatric populations. The course equips students with a comprehensive understanding of how pathophysiological processes influence health outcomes in infants and children, serving as a foundation for clinical practice or further study in pediatric healthcare fields.
Recommended Textbook
Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care 4th Edition by Brian K. Walsh
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36 Chapters
733 Verified Questions
733 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Fetal Lung Development
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following phases of human lung development is characterized by the formation of a capillary network around airway passages?
A)Pseudoglandular
B)Saccular
C)Alveolar
D)Canalicular
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following tests of the amniotic fluid have been shown to be sensitive indicators of lung maturity?
A)Levels of prednisone
B)Levels of epidermal growth factor
C)Levels of prostaglandins
D)Levels of phosphatidylglycerol and phosphatidylcholine
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following embryonic germ layers gives formation to the respiratory system?
A)Endoderm
B)Mesoderm
C)Ectoderm
D)Periderm
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following anatomic structures is a (are)fetal shunt(s)?
I.Foramen ovale
II.Sinus venosus
III.Ductus venosus
IV.Ductus arteriosus
A)III only
B)I,III,and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Antenatal Assessment and High Risk Delivery
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A therapist is resuscitating a term newborn.What should be the rate of ventilation?
A)20 to 30 breaths per minute
B)30 to 40 breaths per minute
C)40 to 60 breaths per minute
D)60 to 100 breaths per minute
Answer: C
Q2) How should the therapist interpret an amniotic fluid index of 5 cm?
A)Polyhydramnios
B)Multihydramnios
C)Oligohydramnios
D)Anhydramnios
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following conditions is responsible for up to 40% of the preterm births in the United States?
A)Cervical insufficiency
B)Premature rupture of the fetal membranes
C)Obstetrical intervention mandated by fetal jeopardy
D)Hormonal treatment during pregnancy
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While percussing the thorax of a child during a physical examination,the therapist hears a dull percussion note over the child's right lung.Which of the following conditions may cause this physical finding?
I.Atelectasis
II.Pneumothorax
III.Pleural effusion
IV.Consolidation
A)I and II only
B)I,III,and IV only
C)II,III,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q2) The therapist is evaluating a newborn with an abdominal defect consisting of protrusion of the membranous sac that encloses abdominal contents through an opening in the abdominal wall into the umbilical cord.Which of the following conditions is consistent with this description?
A)Enterocolitis
B)Ascites
C)Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D)Omphalocele
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside
Pulmonary Mechanics
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the clinical purpose for measuring the maximal inspiratory pressure (MIP)?
A)To assess lung function before and after bronchodilator administration
B)To help patients with asthma management at home
C)To evaluate the strength of respiratory muscles
D)To assist in performing bronchial hygiene techniques
Q2) The respiratory therapist is looking at a flow-volume curve that displays a concave shape on the expiratory tracing.What is this change most consistent with?
A)Neuromuscular disease
B)Abnormal chest wall configuration
C)Interstitial fibrosis
D)Asthma
Q3) How is airway resistance calculated?
A)By dividing the airway occlusion pressure by the expiratory flow
B)By dividing the transpulmonary pressure by the expiratory flow
C)By multiplying the expiratory flow by the pressure gradient responsible for initiating inspiration
D)By multiplying the expiratory occlusion pressure by the transpulmonary pressure gradient
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Chapter 6: Radiographic Assessment
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of X-ray view is obtained when the radiographic plate is placed behind the patient's back with the x,and the side up may better define
A)Anteroposterior view
B)Posteroanterior view
C)Lateral view
D)Frontal view
Q2) A therapist is viewing frontal chest X-ray of a 12-year-old child and notices mediastinal shift towards the right hemithorax along with elevated hemidiaphragm and vascular crowding.Which of the following conditions does this child likely have?
A)Atelectasis
B)Pneumonia
C)Pleural effusion
D)ARDS
Q3) How will well-expanded,air-filled lungs appear on a chest radiograph?
A)Light colored
B)Gray
C)Black
D)White
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Bronchoscopy
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a bronchoscopy procedure on a pediatric patient,the therapist notices that a patient's SpO (oxygen saturation as determined by pulse oximetry)is 90%.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)Continue monitoring the patient as the procedure progresses.
B)Provide supplemental oxygen to the patient until the SPo is 95%.
C)If the patient's SPo falls to 88%,administer oxygen to achieve an SPo of 90%.
D)Stop the bronchoscopy procedure until the patient's SPo returns to its preprocedure level.
Q2) Which of the following complications of flexible bronchoscopy are considered most common?
I.Transient cough
II.Hypoxemia
III.Respiratory depression
IV.Bronchospasm
A)I and II only
B)III and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
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Chapter 8: Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-kg neonate has lost 30% of his circulating blood volume.Approximately how much fluid should be infused to compensate for this loss?
A)30 mL
B)60 mL
C)90 mL
D)120 mL
Q2) Which of the following factors influence the central venous pressure (CVP)measurement?
I.Bicuspid valve function
II.Right ventricular pressure
III.Intravascular volume
IV.Systemic venous return
A)I and III only
B)II and III only
C)II and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
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Chapter 9: Noninvasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following features or characteristics apply to mainstream capnography?
I.The mainstream capnograph contains narrow tubing that can become occluded with mucus.
II.Mainstream capnography generally employs infrared spectrometers.
III.The mainstream capnograph does not add much weight to the breathing circuit.
IV.The mainstream capnograph is placed at the proximal end of the endotracheal tube.
A)I and II only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)I,III,and IV only
Q2) What is the purpose of indirect calorimetry?
A)To measure heat produced and lost from the body
B)To calculate energy expenditure by measuring VO and VCO
C)To calculate resting energy expenditure
D)To measure gas exchange
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11
Chapter 10: Oxygen Administration
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following disorders can develop in neonates as a result of receiving concentrations of oxygen that produce a high PaO ?
A)Atelectasis
B)Hyperoxia
C)Retinopathy of prematurity
D)Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Q2) Which of the following oxygen-delivery devices would be most suitable for an infant being treated for choanal atresia?
A)Nasal cannula
B)Nasal catheter
C)Oxygen hood
D)Oxygen mask
Q3) In order to decrease the risk of nasal irritation in newborns,what is the maximum flow rate recommended?
A)0.5 L/minute
B)1 L/minute
C)2 L/minute
D)3 L/minute
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Chapter 11: Aerosols and Administration of Medication
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pneumatic nebulizers operate according to which of the following physical tenets?
A)Venturi principle
B)Bernoulli principle
C)Law of continuity
D)Law of conservation of energy
Q2) When a conventional jet nebulizer is operated at a flow of 10 L/min versus 5 L/min,what should the respiratory therapist expect?
A)The particle size gets larger.
B)The treatment time shortens.
C)The particle size remains stable.
D)The nebulizer will nebulize the full dose more slowly.
Q3) In order to guarantee the same performance of the nebulizer after repeated use,what should be suggested to the user?
A)Rinse with vinegar and air dry.
B)Rinse with sterile water and dry with a clean paper towel.
C)Rinse with a mixture of vinegar and sterile water and air dry.
D)Rinse with sterile water and air dry.
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13
Chapter 12: Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung
Volume Expansion
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important variable used to assess the efficacy of CPT?
A)Quality of the chest radiograph
B)Degree and persistence of coughing
C)Changes in the color and consistency of mucus
D)Amount of mucus obtained during and after treatment
Q2) What do postural drainage,positive expiratory pressure therapy,autogenic drainage,forced expiration techniques,and high-frequency chest compressions have in common?
A)They dislodge mucus from the bronchial walls of patients.
B)They attempt to prevent dynamic airway collapse.
C)They work toward increasing the functional residual capacity of patients.
D)They are intended to promote the ability of patients to generate effective coughs.
Q3) The respiratory therapist has been asked to evaluate the effectiveness of incentive spirometry in some patients during their postoperative stage.What will the RT find to be most influential on the outcome associated with IS?
A)Frequency of therapy
B)Level of inspiratory capacity achieved by the patient
C)Level of supervision and instruction of therapy
D)Patient's age
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Airway Management
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged exposure to increased tracheostomy cuff pressure may cause which of the following disorders?
A)Tracheomegaly
B)Tracheomalacia
C)Tracheal granulomatosis
D)Tracheal bleeding
Q2) A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department in severe respiratory distress with a diagnosis of epiglottitis.What measures must be performed to secure the child's airway?
A)The child should be immediately intubated orally in the emergency department.
B)A tracheotomy needs to be performed in the emergency department.
C)The child is in urgent need of transport to the operating room to be intubated.
D)Nebulized 2.2% racemic epinephrine needs to be given via face mask every 10 minutes.
Q3) Where is the tracheostomy tube usually placed in children?
A)Between the second and fourth tracheal rings
B)Between the fourth and fifth tracheal rings
C)Between the cricoid and the thyroid cartilage
D)Between the first and second tracheal rings
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Chapter 14: Surfactant Replacement
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical conditions should be suspected in a neonate unresponsive to surfactant due to its inactivation?
A)Pulmonary hypertension
B)Pulmonary hemorrhage
C)Pneumonia
D)Methemoglobinemia
Q2) The respiratory therapist administering surfactant to a premature newborn notices a significant deterioration in vital signs.What should be done at this time?
A)Pause the procedure and administer PPV until vital signs are stable.
B)Rapidly infuse the rest of the dose and reconnect the patient to the mechanical ventilator.
C)Extubate the patient and administer nasal CPAP until stable.
D)Continue administration of the surfactant while administering PPV.
Q3) According to Laplace's law the pressure required to open an alveoli in the lung is:
A)Directly proportional to the radius
B)Inversely proportional to the length of the airway
C)Directly proportional to the surface tension
D)Indirectly proportional to the viscosity of the gas in the airway
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Chapter 15: Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and
Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After initiating IF-CPAP in an infant at 8 cm H O,the therapist notices a low-pressure alarm.What should be done to correct this situation?
A)Correct the leak by placing a chin trap.
B)Change to a smaller cannula.
C)Increase the flow through the CPAP system.
D)Change the flow generator.
Q2) After initiating B-CPAP in an infant at 6 cm H O,the therapist notices that,although "bubbling" is present,the pressure in the manometer fluctuates between 2 and 5 cm H O.What may have caused this situation?
A)The Fio was not increased sufficiently.
B)The CPAP level was not raised enough.
C)The flow through the CPAP system is too low.
D)A problem with the interface has likely developed.
Q3) Which of the following anatomic structures should be closely evaluated when using nasal masks in the administration of IF-CPAP?
A)Tragus
B)Philtrum
C)Sphenoid axis
D)Lower lip
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a bilevel ventilator is used in the spontaneous/timed mode,at what point does the ventilator employ the timed feature?
A)During exhalation
B)To terminate inspiration
C)Throughout the ventilatory cycle
D)Only in the event of prolonged apnea
Q2) What level of IPAP is typically sufficient to achieve the goals of NPPV in pediatric patients?
A)20 to 25 cm H O
B)15 to 20 cm H O
C)8 to 12 cm H O
D)5 to 10 cm H O
Q3) What is the most effective way for the therapist to promote effective triggering and prevent asynchrony with NPPV?
A)Optimize inspiratory flow.
B)Titrate inspiratory pressure to achieve a tidal volume of 5 mL/kg.
C)Set the device on spontaneous-timed mode.
D)Minimize leaks around the interface.
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18
Chapter 17: Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonate and Pediatric Patient
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During high-frequency ventilation,as the diameter of the ETT increases,what happens to the delivered tidal volume under the same pressure settings?
A)It does not change.
B)It increases.
C)It increases only if compliance changes.
D)It decreases.
Q2) Which of the following actions should a therapist consider in a patient suspected of having an airway obstruction while receiving HFV?
A)Observe the patient's chest wall for movement.
B)Increase conventional ventilation.
C)Increase mean airway pressure on the HFV.
D)Reduce the oscillatory amplitude.
Q3) What is a frequent requirement when employing the low-volume strategy while ventilating a neonatal patient with pulmonary interstitial emphysema by HFV?
A)High inspiratory flow
B)Positive end-expiratory pressure
C)High inspired fraction of oxygen (Fio?)
D)Longer inspiratory time
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Chapter 18: Administration of Gas Mixtures
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapist is evaluating a small tachypneic infant receiving heliox mixture 70:30 through an infant hood.Although the SpO has improved,the child shows signs of worsening work of breathing.What is the most probable mechanism to explain this situation?
A)The FiHe is too low in a 70:30 mixture to change work of breathing in this infant.
B)The flow going through the infant hood is inadequate.
C)A greater concentration of helium is present at the top of the hood and away from the infant's nose and mouth.
D)The infant is breathing too fast;thus heliox is not reaching the airways.
Q2) What is the primary physiologic activity of inhaled nitric oxide?
A)Bronchodilation
B)Pulmonary vasodilation
C)Systemic vasodilation
D)Cerebral vasodilation
Q3) What is the product of the reaction between oxygen and nitric oxide?
A)Oxygen radicals
B)N2O
C)NO
D)The two molecules do not react with each other.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Extracorporeal Life Support
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following groups of patients has the best overall survival when treated with ECMO?
A)Neonates with respiratory support
B)Pediatric patients with cardiac support
C)Neonates with cardiac support
D)Pediatric patients with respiratory support
Q2) Which of the following statements describes venoarterial ECMO?
A)A cannula is inserted into the subclavian vein for the removal of blood.
B)Blood is removed from the venous circulation through the external jugular vein.
C)Blood returns to the heart through the subclavian artery.
D)A cannula is inserted into the right common carotid artery for arterial return.
Q3) The therapist should evaluate raceway occlusion because too much roller tension could be associated with which of the following events?
A)Inadequate flow
B)Increased bladder tension
C)Hemolysis
D)Recirculation
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Chapter 20: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications works to maintain the integrity of the mast cell?
A)Ipratropium bromide
B)Magnesium sulfate
C)Cromolyn sodium
D)Methylprednisolone
Q2) How long should a patient wait to receive the maximal benefit of inhaled corticosteroids?
A)48 hours
B)5 days
C)1 to 2 weeks
D)1 month
Q3) Which of the following medications is a recombinant humanized monoclonal anti-IgE antibody use for the treatment of severe persistent asthma?
A)rhDNase
B)RespiGam
C)Omalizumab
D)Palivizumab
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22
Chapter 21: Thoracic Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications are used as antirejection agents?
I.Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
II.Cyclosporine
III.Azathioprine
IV.Mycophenolate mofetil
A)I and III only
B)II and III only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) Which of the following cardiac problems is responsible for the vast majority of neonatal cardiac transplants?
A)Cardiomyopathy
B)Ventricular septal defect
C)Cardiac pacemaker abnormalities
D)Hypoplastic left ventricle
Q3) Which of the following is the most common indication for heart transplantation?
A)Cardiomyopathy
B)Massive myocardial infarction
C)External pacemaker placement
D)Primary pulmonary hypertension
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Chapter 22: Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neonate diagnosed with a pneumothorax was treated with a chest tube.After 36 hours,the therapist noticed that bubbling is present in the chest tube system.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)Suggest removal of the chest tube in 24 hours
B)Clamp the tube and obtain a CXR
C)Keep the chest tube until bubbling stops
D)Remove the chest tube and obtain a follow-up CXR
Q2) When neonatal pneumonia is suspected,how long does an infant generally receive broad-spectrum antibiotics?
A)24 hours
B)48 hours
C)72 hours
D)96 hours
Q3) How should the therapist interpret the lack of supernatant foam appearing during the shake test?
A)The test needs to be redone.
B)The unborn infant's lungs have matured.
C)The infant's lungs are immature.
D)The patient has a 50% chance of developing RDS.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Congenital and Surgical Disorders That Affect
Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of radiography in the determination of tracheoesophageal fistula and esophageal atresia?
A)The esophageal pouch can be observed.
B)The opening into the airway can be located.
C)The presence of left-to-right shunt can be seen.
D)The location of the nasogastric tube may confirm obstruction of the proximal esophagus caused by atresia.
Q2) Why is pulmonary development often stifled in children who have asphyxiating thoracic dystrophy?
A)Because of gas exchange problems
B)Because the chest cavity is decreased
C)Because the thorax is too compliant
D)Because of a hypoplastic right ventricle
Q3) What is the most common patient complaint associated with pectus carinatum?
A)Cough
B)Dyspnea at rest
C)Cosmetic
D)Cardiac palpitations
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Chapter 24: Congenital Cardiac Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why must supplemental oxygen be judiciously administered to patients with an atrioventricular canal defect?
A)To prevent the development of retinopathy of prematurity
B)To avoid oxygen-induced hypoventilation
C)To minimize pulmonary vascular dilation
D)To reduce oxidative stress
Q2) A therapist monitoring an infant after a Blalock-Tausig shunt placement notices a significant drop in the end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO )despite no changes in the infant's respiratory rate.How should the therapist interpret this change?
A)The infant has dramatically improved ventilation by breathing deeply.
B)The ETCO monitor is not accurate.
C)Loss of pulmonary blood flow through the shunt
D)Tricuspid regurgitation
Q3) Which of the following clinical features characterize a critical aortic stenosis in a neonate?
A)Chest radiography reveals pleural effusion and pulmonary engorgement.
B)The neonate often has metabolic alkalosis.
C)The neonate presents in cardiogenic shock with hypotension.
D)These infants are rarely symptomatic during the first month of life.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Sleep
Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the condition sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
A)More than 70% of victims are found in the late evening hours after the afternoon naps.
B)Infants are most likely to experience SIDS in the first 12 to 24 months of life.
C)SIDS is uncommon after infants are 6 months old.
D)SIDS occurs exclusively when the infant is presumed to have been asleep during the night.
Q2) Which of the following conditions is the major cause of OSA in children without any predisposing factor?
A)Choanal atresia
B)Macroglossia
C)Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
D)Pierre Robin Syndrome
Q3) What is the age group with the highest prevalence of OSA?
A)First 6 months
B)6 months to 1 year
C)1 to 2 years
D)2 years to 8 years
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Chapter 26: Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents has been shown to significantly reduce bronchiolitis scores?
A)Prednisone
B)Nebulized 3% hypertonic saline
C)Dexamethasone
D)Theophylline
Q2) A 30-month-old child is brought to the emergency room (ER)by the parents.The child appears to have a sore throat along with dysphagia,fever,and voice changes.The child exhibits "hot potato voice." Visualization of the posterior pharynx reveals a displaced retropharynx.What condition does this child likely have?
A)Peritonsillar abscess
B)Retropharyngeal abscess
C)Tonsillar enlargement
D)Pierre Robin syndrome
Q3) Relative to an adult's larynx,where is an infant's larynx situated?
A)C1-2
B)C2-3
C)C3-4
D)C4-5
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is indicated for a 15-year-old patient with moderate asthma who is not controlled with inhaled corticosteroids and exhibits the following signs: (1)a positive skin test or positive in vitro test for aeroallergens and (2)an IgE level of 500 IU/L?
A)Zileuton
B)Salmeterol
C)Xopenex
D)Omalizumab
Q2) When endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are indicated for a pediatric patient with asthma,which of the following ventilator setting adjustments should the therapist consider making?
A)25% inspiratory pause
B)Tidal volume 10 mL/kg
C)Low to moderate positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
D)Low Fio
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Chapter 28: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percentage of patients with cystic fibrosis present with pulmonary symptoms?
A)100%
B)80%
C)50%
D)30%
Q2) Which of the following therapeutic interventions should be the focus of the treatment of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A)Airway clearance techniques
B)Bronchodilators
C)Antihistamines
D)PEP therapy
Q3) Which of the following drugs should the therapist give before administering nebulized 7% saline to a patient with CF?
A)rhDNase
B)N-Acetylcysteine
C)Albuterol
D)Amiloride
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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following interventions should the therapist implement to decrease mortality in patients with ARDS?
A)High PEEP
B)Alveolar recruitment maneuvers
C)Low tidal volume
D)High respiratory rate
Q2) What are some of the physical signs of respiratory failure among children?
I.Head bobbing
II.Nasal flaring
III.Crying
IV.Grunting
A)I and II only
B)I,II,and IV only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q3) Which of the following indirect insults can cause ARDS?
A)Pneumonia
B)Chest trauma
C)Closed head injury
D)Cor pulmonale
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Chapter 30: Shock, Sepsis and Anaphylaxis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hemodynamic assessments can be obtained from a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure measurement?
A)Central venous pressure
B)Right ventricular preload
C)Left ventricular afterload
D)Left ventricular preload
Q2) A child admitted to the emergency department with a diagnosis of shock has a cardiac index is 3.5 L/min/m².How should the therapist interpret this value?
A)This cardiac index is associated with an increased risk of mortality.
B)This cardiac index is in the high range of normal,and it is an indication to wean vasopressors and fluids.
C)This cardiac index is within normal limits but still requires close monitoring because it is in the low range of normal.
D)This cardiac index is normal and no action is required.
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Chapter 31: Pediatric Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist has intubated a patient with a traumatic brain injury whose respiration has deteriorated.Which of the following ventilatory strategies should the therapist try to minimize the effects on intracranial pressures?
A)Minimize peak inspiratory pressure
B)Increase mean airway pressure
C)Prolong inspiratory time
D)Decrease respiratory rate
Q2) Which of the following conditions is considered a late mechanical complication of inhalation injuries?
A)Tracheomalacia
B)Atelectasis
C)Stridor
D)Infection
Q3) Which of the following procedures can cause an iatrogenic pneumothorax?
A)Oropharyngeal suctioning
B)Central venous catheter placement
C)Orogastric tube placement
D)Nasogastric tube placement
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Chapter 32: Disorders of the Pleura
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following laboratory analyses would the respiratory therapist possibly conduct,using a sample of pleural fluid?
A)Determination of the causative microorganism
B)pH determination
C)Determination that the effusion is an exudate or a transudate
D)Composition testing
Q2) What type of auscultatory and percussion findings often reveal evidence of a pleural effusion?
A)Wheezing;hyperresonance
B)Crackles;bronchovesicular
C)Crackles;dull
D)Diminished;dull
Q3) Which of the following mechanisms explains the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space of patients with ARDS?
A)Increased capillary permeability
B)Decreased osmotic pressure
C)Increased hydrostatic pressure
D)Obstructed lymphatic drainage
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Chapter 33: Neurologic and Neuromuscular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following therapeutic strategies should the therapist deem as the most important in patients with neuromuscular disease?
A)Airway clearance techniques
B)Oxygen therapy
C)Ventilatory support
D)Hydration
Q2) The therapist is performing an airway clearance technique to a 5-month-old child with a diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia.The child has a very weak cough and,although he appears alert,he cannot move.Which of the following disorders of the motor nerve should the therapist suspect?
A)Polio
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Spinal muscular atrophy
D)Guillian-Barré
Q3) Which of the following muscles is considered a primary muscle of inspiration?
A)Internal intercostal muscles
B)Transversus abdominis
C)Sternocleidomastoid muscles
D)Diaphragm
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35
Chapter 34: Transport of Infants and Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most expensive component of a pediatric transport program?
A)Personnel salaries
B)Cost associated with training personnel
C)Transport vehicles
D)Updating equipment
Q2) Why must fixed-wing aircraft have the ability to control cabin pressure during the transport of critically patients?
A)To avoid the crew "blacking out"
B)To provide the patient's oxygenation needs
C)To avoid the patient becoming hypercarbic
D)To reduce the risk of fire
Q3) What are the negative effects of an aircraft flown with a sea-level cabin altitude?
A)A higher flight altitude is necessary.
B)Air-to-ground communications become difficult.
C)Fuel consumption often increases.
D)The aircraft may encounter more altitude-related concerns.
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Chapter 35: Home Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does an extended hospital stay tend to have on the discharge planning process for a child expected to receive mechanical ventilation at home?
A)It helps the family become more familiar with providing health care at home.
B)It provides the family with the opportunity to earn more income to facilitate the discharge process.
C)It affords the family more time to recruit additional health care providers to be used in the home.
D)It often results in a negative change in the family dynamics.
Q2) What is a major advantage of using a portable ventilator?
A)It is easy to analyze the inspired fraction of oxygen (Fio ).
B)No humidification is necessary.
C)It provides a variety of ventilation modes.
D)A variety of power sources can be used.
Q3) Who is responsible for deciding the type of oxygen delivery system that will be used in the home?
A)Physician
B)Patient
C)Durable medical equipment (DME)company
D)Discharge planner
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Quality and Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a statistical method that measures standard deviations or known variance and the degree to which almost perfect production can occur?
A)Six Sigma
B)Systemic variability
C)Analysis of variance
D)Power
Q2) The wrong dose of albuterol is administered to the patient,but the patient does not have any adverse response.What is the name of this event?
A)Near miss
B)Precursor safety event
C)Serious safety event
D)Sentinel event
Q3) What is the most common complication of hospital care that the therapist should be aware of?
A)Errors in administration of medications
B)Accidental extubations
C)Pneumonia
D)Health care-associated infections
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