Negotiation and Conflict Management Final
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Course Introduction
This course explores the theories, strategies, and techniques of negotiation and conflict management in both personal and professional contexts. Students will learn how to analyze conflicts, understand the interests of all parties involved, and apply practical negotiation tactics to resolve disputes effectively. Key topics include negotiation frameworks, communication skills, cultural considerations, and ethical issues. Through case studies, simulations, and role-playing exercises, students will gain hands-on experience that prepares them to manage conflict constructively and achieve mutually beneficial outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Negotiation Readings Exercises and Cases 6th Edition by Roy Lewicki
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20 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Negotiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interdependent parties' relationships are characterized by A) interlocking goals.
B) solitary decision making.
C) established procedures.
D) rigid structures.
E) Interdependent relationships are characterized by all of the above.
Answer: A
Q2) There are times when you should _________ negotiate.
Answer: not
Q3) Which of the following statements about conflict is true?
A) Conflict is the result of tangible factors.
B) Conflict can occur when two parties are working toward the same goal and generally want the same outcome.
C) Conflict only occurs when both parties want a very different settlement.
D) Conflict has a minimal effect on interdependent relationships.
E) All of the above statements about conflict are true.
Answer: B
Q4) Two of the dilemmas in mutual adjustment that all negotiators face are the dilemma of ____________ and the dilemma of ____________.
Answer: honesty, trust
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Chapter 2: Strategy and Tactics of Distributive Bargaining
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although disruptive action tactics can work, they may also produce ____________ and escalation of ____________.
Answer: anger, conflict
Q2) A commitment statement should have a
A) low degree of finality.
B) high degree of specificity.
C) an indefinite statement of consequences.
D) a high degree of emotionality.
E) None of the above should be included in a commitment statement.
Answer: B
Q3) The ____________ ____________ is the point beyond which a person will not go and would rather break off negotiations.
Answer: resistance point
Q4) When acting as if the decision to close the deal has already been made, the negotiator is using the ____________ ____________ ____________ method of closing the agreement.
Answer: assume the close
Q5) Define bargaining mix.
Answer: The package of issues for negotiation.
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Chapter 3: Strategy and Tactics of Integrative Negotiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the problem statement be constructed?
Answer: It should state the problem as succinctly as possible while assuring that the most important dimensions and elements are included
Q2) Which of the following 5-step processes has been used successfully in a collective bargaining situation?
A) commitment, explanation, validation, prioritization, negotiation
B) commitment, exploration, verification, prioritization, negotiation
C) collaboration, explanation, validation, prioritization, negotiation
D) collaboration, exploration, verification, prioritization, negotiation
E) None of the above processes have been used in collective bargaining.
Answer: A
Q3) As a problem is defined jointly, it should accurately reflect both parties' ____________ and ____________.
Answer: needs, priorities
Q4) Those who do not share a belief that they can work together in an integrative negotiation are less willing to invest the time and energy in the potential payoffs of a collaborative relationship and are more likely to assume a ____________ or ____________ approach to conflict.
Answer: contending, accommodating
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Chapter 4: Negotiation Strategy and Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the Greenhalgh seven steps of negotiation do Asian negotiators spend a great deal of time on?
Q2) In an accommodative negotiation, the relationships have:
A) a short-term focus
B) a long-term focus
C) may be either short term or long term
D) none of the above
Q3) What strategic negotiation purposes can be served by avoidance?
Q4) Effective goals must be ____________, ____________, and ____________.
Q5) Accommodative strategies emphasize:
A) Subordinating one's own goals in favor of those of others.
B) Secrecy and defensiveness
C) Abandonment of bad images and consideration of ideas based on merit
D) A key attitude of "I win; you lose"
E) All of the above
Q6) An initiation (or beginning) phase, problem-solving (or middle) phase and an ending (or resolution) phase are descriptive of ____________ negotiations.
Q7) Define Relationship building, a key step in an ideal negotiation.
Q8) What elements of the negotiation protocol might it be useful to prenegotiate?
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Chapter 5: Perception, Cognition, and Emotion
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Q1) ____________ can also occur as one party uses metaphors, analogies, or specific cases to illustrate a point.
Q2) Frames are shaped by conversations that the parties have with each other about the issues in the ____________ ____________.
Q3) ____________ ____________ occur when people generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual.
Q4) Define cognitive biases.
Q5) How are frames critical in negotiations?
Q6) What can help prevent errors of anchoring and adjustment?
Q7) ____________ is the tendency of negotiators to believe that their ability to be correct or accurate is greater than is actually true.
Q8) Define the fundamental attribution error.
Q9) A ____________ is the subjective mechanism through which people evaluate and make sense out of situations, leading them to pursue or avoid subsequent actions.
Q10) Define perception.
Q11) How does projection occur?
Q12) Both risk-averse and risk-seeking framing is part of what theory?
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Chapter 6: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Encoding can be defined as
A) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for interpreting the decoded messages.
B) the process by which messages are put into symbolic form.
C) the process of translating messages from their symbolic form into a form that makes sense.
D) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message.
E) Decoding can be defined as all of the above.
Q2) Define the "information is weakness" effect.
Q3) Why do negotiators treat e-mail as just another vehicle for written communication?
Q4) The presence of feedback can
A) distort communication in negotiation.
B) lead negotiators to change the way that they negotiate or evaluate negotiation outcomes.
C) influence the offers that negotiators make.
D) motivate the sender to change his or her behavior, either in a positive or negative direction.
E) The presence of feedback can cause all of the above to occur.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Finding and Using Negotiation Power
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Sample Questions
Q1) Negotiators employ tactics designed to create power ____________ as a way to "level the playing field."
Q2) Legitimate power and its effectiveness of formal authority that are derived from the willingness of the followers to:
A) create a group structure that gives one person a power base, group members generate a willingness within themselves to obey that person's directives.
B) willingly give up their right to participate in every decision by vesting authority in someone who can act on their behalf.
C) acknowledge the legitimacy of the organizational structure and the system of rules and regulations that empowers its leaders.
D) simply show respect for a person's position or organization.
E) All of the above contribute to the effectiveness of legitimate power.
Q3) Define legitimate power.
Q4) Employees who want to succeed rapidly are frequently counseled to find jobs with high ____________ and ____________ in an organization so they can get the experience and visibility necessary for rapid promotion.
Q5) How can the use of threats be effective?
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Influence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The norm of reciprocity
A) suggests that when we receive something from another person we should respond in the future with a favor for them.
B) plays only a nominal role in negotiations.
C) applies only to favors of the same size.
D) is prevalent only in Western culture.
E) None of the above statements describe the norm of reciprocity.
Q2) What might managers who must support organizational policies with which they disagree do?
Q3) When negotiators are on the ____________ end of a proposal, they frequently choose not to talk about the attractive features of an offer but rather to highlight why certain features are undesirable.
Q4) The principle of ____________ suggests that when things are less available, they will have more influence.
Q5) How can a negotiator reduce the influence of false information in negotiations?
Q6) How are the conditions for use of pressure similar to those for the use of exchange and praise?
Q7) What is the central route to persuasion, as defined by Petty and Cacioppo?
Q8) What does paraphrasing accomplish?
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Chapter 9: Ethics in Negotiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering the categories of marginally ethical negotiating tactics, what is the difference between misrepresentation and misrepresentation to opponent's networks?
Q2) McCornack and Levine found that victims had stronger emotional reactions to deception when
A) they had a distant relationship with the subject.
B) the information at stake was unimportant.
C) lying was seen as an unacceptable type of behavior for that relationship.
D) the victim had used deceptive tactics as well.
E) Research found that victims did not have strong emotional reactions in any of the above cases.
Q3) Some people continue to believe that they can tell by looking into someone's face if that person is inclined to be dishonest or truthful on a regular basis. What could study participants tell by photographs of aging men and women?
Q4) Asking questions can reveal a great deal of information, some of which the negotiator may intentionally leave ____________.
Q5) Dawson's study shows that when making decisions about ____________ issues, women were significantly more ethical than men.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Relationships in Negotiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define identification-based trust.
Q2) Which of the following parameters shapes our understanding of relationship negotiation strategy and tactics?
A) Negotiating within relationships takes place at a single point in time.
B) Negotiation in relationships is only about the issue.
C) Negotiating within relationships may never end.
D) Parties never make concessions on substantive issues.
E) All of the above parameters shape our understanding of relationship negotiation strategy and tactics.
Q3) Because relationship negotiations are never over,
A) parties generally tackle negotiations over tough issues first in order to "get off on the right foot."
B) it is often impossible to anticipate the future and negotiate everything "up front."
C) issues on which parties truly disagree will go away with the conclusion of the negotiation.
D) parties should never make concessions on substantive issues.
E) All of the above are consequences of relationship negotiations.
Q4) Define interactional justice.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Agents, Constituencies, Audiences
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Q1) Information can be privately exchanged in informal venues and could be found to increase the possibility of concession to the other negotiator by reducing visibility to constituents in which of the following approaches?
A) Establish "privacy" prior to the beginning of negotiations.
B) Screen visibility during negotiations.
C) Be aware of time pressure.
D) Establish a reputation for cooperation.
E) Communicate through superiors.
Q2) As a genuine tactic, the negotiator's constituency has actually defined limits to what the negotiator can decide on his or her own and is part of which of the following tactics?
A) Limit one's own concessions by making negotiations visible to the constituency.
B) Use the constituency to show militancy.
C) Use the constituency to limit one's own authority.
D) Use great caution in exceeding one's authority.
E) Increase the possibility of concession to the other negotiator by reducing visibility to constituencies.
Q3) When would a negotiator communicate directly to the other party's constituency?
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Chapter 12: Coalitions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why might founders have to offer an unequal or inequitable share to early prospects?
Q2) Adversaries can be described as
A) parties who will not take a stand one way or the other on the issue.
B) people with whom negotiator has conflicting goals and objectives, but who can be trusted to be principled and candid in their opposition.
C) parties who a negotiator believes are in agreement with their goals and vision, and whom they trust.
D) negotiators who are low in agreement and low in trust.
E) None of the above statements describes adversaries.
Q3) Strategic power in coalitions
A) emerges from the availability of alternative coalition partners.
B) derives from what parties consider a fair or just distribution of the outcomes and results of a coalition.
C) is dependent on which party's arguments ultimately shape the allocation rule used by the group.
D) is shaped by the compatibility of preferences between two or more parties.
E) Strategic power in coalitions is described by all of the above.
Q4) Who is the founder of the coalition?
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Chapter 13: Multiple Parties and Teams
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Sample Questions
Q1) In multiparty negotiations, research shows that parties who approached multiple issues simultaneously:
A) achieved lower quality agreements.
B) increased the likelihood of achieving agreement.
C) exchanged less information.
D) have less insight into the preferences and priorities of the other parties at the table.
E) Research shows that parties who approached multiple issues simultaneously achieved all of the above.
Q2) In multiparty negotiations, multiple parties are negotiating together to achieve a ____________ objective or group consensus.
Q3) Which of the following questions should not be asked as part of the requirements for building a relationship in the connect model?
A) Can we agree to have a constructive conversation?
B) Can our conversation be productive enough to make a difference?
C) Can we restructure the agreement to include the original issue?
D) Can we all commit to making improvements?
E) Can we understand and appreciate each other's perspective?
Q4) Additional parties may be invited to a multiparty negotiation to:
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Individual Differences I: Gender and Negotiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Empirical research would suggest that men and women conceive of ____________ in different ways, communicate differently in negotiation, and are treated differently in negotiation
A)True
B)False
Q2) There is a growing body of evidence that suggests that women are at a disadvantage in negotiations as compared to male negotiators. The nature of this disadvantage may occur in
A) being treated differently before and during negotiations than men.
B) receiving worse opening offers from the other party.
C) receiving worse outcomes in similar negotiations than males.
D) being penalized when they use the same negotiation tactic that males use successfully.
E) All of the above.
Q3) The term ____________ refers to the biological categories of male and female, and the term ____________ refers to the culture and psychological aspects associated with each category.
Q4) What did Bowles and colleagues find out after investigating reactions to males and females who negotiate with aggressive tactics in a job interview situation?
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Chapter 15: Individual Differences 2: Personality and Abilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) As identified by Thomas' research, the accommodating style is
A) high on assertiveness and low on cooperativeness.
B) low on assertiveness and high on cooperativeness.
C) high on assertiveness and high on cooperativeness.
D) low on assertiveness and low on cooperativeness.
E) None of the above describes the accommodating style.
Q2) ____________ ____________ orientations are preferences that people have regarding the kinds of outcomes they prefer in social settings where interdependence with others is present.
Q3) What is the difference between external locus of control and internal locus of control?
Q4) Neale and Northcraft found that experts were more ____________ at the beginning of the negotiations than were amateurs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between high self-monitors and low self-monitors?
Q6) What are the five major conflict management styles that Thomas' research identified?
Page 17
Q7) How do scholars feel about the overall importance of dispositions?
Q8) Neale and Northcraft define perspective-taking ability as:
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Page 18
Chapter 16: International and Cross-Cultural Negotiation
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Q1) In group-oriented cultures
A) the individual comes before the group's needs.
B) decisions are primarily made by senior executives.
C) decision making is an efficient, streamlined process.
D) negotiators may be faced with a series of discussions over the same issues and materials with many different people.
E) All of the above occur in group-oriented cultures.
Q2) Weiss observes that a negotiator may be able to choose among which culturally responsive strategies when negotiating with someone from another culture?
Q3) Which of the following is an immediate context factor in cross-cultural negotiations?
A) external stakeholders
B) instability
C) international economic factors
D) relationship between negotiators
E) All of the above are immediate context factors in cross-cultural negotiations.
Q4) What are the disadvantages to using the "induce the other party to use your approach" strategy?
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19
Chapter 17: Managing Negotiation Impasses
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Q1) What is the technique of "active listening?"
Q2) Like role reversal, ____________ is a method for gaining insight into the other party's perspective.
Q3) How can parties expand the number of issues involved in a negotiation?
Q4) What are Fisher's major approaches to fractionating conflict?
Q5) Ron Fortgang, David Lax and James Sebenius suggest that negotiators need to manage the social contract in addition to the economic issues under discussion or the negotiation may derail. What comprises a social contract?
Q6) In Osgood's synchronized de-escalation, what does GRIT stand for?
Q7) Analogical reasoning is defined as "the ____________ process by which a resemblance, similarity, or correspondence, perceived between two or more things in some respect, suggests that they will probably agree in other ways as well."
Q8) In carrot-and-stick tactics for motivating workers, how can the carrot be made more attractive rather than enlarging the stick
Q9) As conflict intensifies the size and number of the issues ____________.
Q10) Putnam and Wondolleck (2003) suggest that intractable conflicts vary along four dimensions. What are those dimensions?
Q11) How can a third party or a common enemy be used as a superordinate goal?
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Chapter 18: Managing Difficult Negotiations
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Q1) It is important negotiators consider the shadow negotiation carefully before meeting with the other party so they
A) understand where the boundaries of the current negotiations are and should be.
B) are clear in their own minds about the scope of the negotiations.
C) understand how they would ideally like to work with the other party.
D) determine what ground the negotiation is going to cover and how the negotiators are going to work together.
E) understand that all the above are important to the shadow negotiations.
Q2) Ury's "breakthrough approach" operates on the principle of acting ____________, requiring users to do the opposite of what they might naturally do in difficult situations.
Q3) How does the concept of tone play in the successful management of conversations?
Q4) How can negotiators protect themselves when dealing with an opponent with more power?
Q5) Define a shadow negotiation.
Q6) What are the three types of power moves?
Q7) How can a "pressured" party respond to distributive tactics?
Q8) What are the five steps of Ury's "breakthrough approach?"
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Chapter 19: Third-Party Approaches to Managing Difficult Negotiations
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Q1) Research studies show that the problem-solving style of mediation
A) is a more structured, active approach to resolving conflict.
B) leads to more frequent and desirable outcomes.
C) produces more positive attitudes toward mediation.
D) decreases disputant hostility and the damaging effect of difficult conflicts based on intangible issues.
E) Research shows that all of the above are results of the problem-solving style of mediation.
Q2) Define mediator flexibility.
Q3) ____________ ADR systems are those in which the third party makes a binding decision that the negotiating parties must live with.
Q4) ____________ typically involves a structured process in which disputing parties have relatively free rein to present their stories, while the arbitrators decide the outcome, often imposing a resolution on the disputants.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________ is probably the most common and well-known form of third-party dispute resolution.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Best Practices in Negotiations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Negotiators need to be reminded that certain factors influence their own behavior. What are those factors?
A) strengths
B) tangibles
C) weaknesses
D) intangibles
E) negotiables
Q2) What are the three things that negotiators can do to manage the perceptions of fairness and rationality proactively?
Q3) The goal of most negotiations is achieving which of the following?
A) A final settlement
B) A valued outcome
C) An agreement per se
D) A value claiming goal
E) A value creating goal
Q4) Why is it said that reputations are like eggs?
Q5) Why is communicating with a coalition critical?
Q6) The authors suggest that negotiators should remember that negotiation is an _____________ process.
Page 23
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