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Natural Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the fundamental principles governing the natural world. This course provides an overview of the key concepts, methods, and discoveries in the core scientific disciplines of physics, chemistry, biology, and earth sciences. Students will develop a scientific understanding of the natural phenomena shaping our planet, learn about the processes and methodologies scientists use to investigate reality, and examine the societal impact of scientific advancements. Through laboratory experiments, discussions, and critical analysis, the course fosters scientific literacy, analytical thinking, and an appreciation for the role of science in addressing contemporary global challenges.
Recommended Textbook
The Physical Universe 15th Edition by Konrad Krauskopf
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Q1) A meter is not equal to A)100 cm.
B)10<sup>3</sup> mm.
C)0.01 km.
D)10<sup>-3</sup> km.
Answer: C
Q2) The stars in a constellation
A)are about the same age.
B)are about the same distance from the earth.
C)form a pattern in the sky as seen from the earth.
D)are members of the solar system.
Answer: C
Q3) The object in the sky that lies very nearly on an extension of the earth's axis is A)the sun.
B)the moon.
C)Mercury.
D)Polaris.
Answer: D
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Q1) A force that gives a 2-kg object an acceleration of 1.6 m/s<sup>2</sup> would give an 8-kg object an acceleration of
A)0.2 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
B)0.4 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
C)1.6 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
D)6.4 m/s<sup>2</sup>.
Answer: B
Q2) On a rainy day the maximum frictional force between a car's tires and a certain level road surface is reduced to half its usual value.The maximum safe speed for rounding a curve is
A)unchanged.
B)reduced to 25% of its usual value.
C)reduced to 50% of its usual value.
D)reduced to 71% of its usual value.
Answer: D
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Q1) A 2-kg book is held 1 m above the floor for 50 s.The work done is A)0.
B)10.2 J.
C)100 J.
D)980 J.
Answer: A
Q2) A horizontal force is applied to a 2-kg ball on a smooth table.The ball's speed is 8 m/s when it has gone 4 m.The magnitude of the force is
A)1.6 N.
B)2 N.
C)8 N.
D)16 N.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is (are) not a unit of power?
A)Joule-second.
B)Watt.
C)Newton-meter/second.
D)Horsepower.
Answer: A
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Q1) In the United States, the lowest cost per unit of electrical output in the immediate future would come from using which of these energy sources?
A)coal
B)nuclear
C)natural gas
D)hydro
Q2) In the United States, bioethanol from corn is added to gasoline for vehicle fuel because
A)it is cheap to produce.
B)its production uses little energy.
C)its production releases little carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
D)government action favors its production and use.
Q3) International agreements thus far
A)include binding limits on carbon dioxide emissions.
B)include a halt in the construction of new coal-burning power plants.
C)will keep average global temperatures from rising more than 2<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C by 2100.
D)call for future emission promises.
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Q1) The physics of a heat engine cannot be used to understand the operation of a A)nuclear reactor.
B)heat pump.
C)refrigerator.
D)diesel engine.
Q2) When 90 kJ is removed from a 2-kg copper bar, its temperature drops from 200<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C to 85<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.The specific heat of copper is
A)0.16 kJ/kg<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
B)0.19 kJ/kg<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
C)0.23 kJ/kg<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
D)0.39 kJ/kg<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C.
Q3) Which of the following formulas relating temperatures on the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales is correct?
A)T<sub>c</sub> = (5/9)(T<sub>F</sub> - 32<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>)
B)T<sub>c</sub> = (5/9)(T<sub>F</sub> + 32<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>)
C)T<sub>c</sub> = (9/5)(T<sub>F</sub> - 32<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>)
D)T<sub>c</sub> = (9/5)(T<sub>F</sub> + 32<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>)
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true?
A)Protons are positively charged.
B)The proton mass is greater than the electron mass.
C)The proton mass is almost the same as the neutron mass.
D)A proton in an atom circulates around its nucleus.
Q2) The electrons in an atom
A)are bound to it permanently.
B)are some distance away from the nucleus.
C)have more mass than the nucleus.
D)may be positively or negatively charged.
Q3) If undisturbed, an electric current in a superconducting wire loop
A)will decrease to a stop in a few seconds.
B)will decrease to a stop in a day or two.
C)will continue indefinitely.
D)will gradually increase.
Q4) The current in a 20-ohm electric heater operated at 240 V is
A) 0.083 A.
B) 12 A.
C) 2880 A.
D) 4800 A.

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Q1) When a sound wave goes from air into water, the quantity that remains unchanged is its A)speed. B)amplitude.
C)frequency. D)wavelength.
Q2) Relative to its object, a real image formed by a lens is always A)erect.
B)inverted.
C)smaller.
D)larger.
Q3) You are looking at the bottom of a lake 1.2 m deep from a boat.To you the lake seems to be
A)less than 1.2 m deep.
B)1.2 m deep.
C)more than 1.2 m deep.
D)Any of these choices could be correct, depending on the height of the sun.
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Q1) Protons and neutrons are held together to form nuclei by the A)gravitational interaction.
B)strong interaction.
C)weak interaction.
D)electromagnetic interaction.
Q2) An atomic nucleus has a mass that is A)less than the total mass of its constituent nucleons. B)the same as the total mass of its constituent nucleons. C)more than the total mass of its constituent nucleons.
D)Any of theses choices could be correct, depending on the nucleus.
Q3) A nucleus with too few neutrons for stability may decay radioactively with the emission of
A)a neutron.
B)a proton.
C)an electron.
D)a positron.
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Q1) The quantum number n of the lowest energy state of a hydrogen atom
A)is 0.
B)is 1.
C)depends on the orbit size.
D)depends on the electron speed.
Q2) A neon sign does not produce
A)a line spectrum.
B)an emission spectrum.
C)an absorption spectrum.
D)photons.
Q3) The photoelectric effect occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum
A)frequency.
B)wavelength.
C)speed.
D)charge.
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Q1) Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?
A)blood
B)air
C)water
D)sugar
Q2) The inert gases
A)have the same atomic number.
B)are in the same period of the periodic table.
C)are in the same group of the periodic table.
D)join in pairs to form diatomic molecules.
Q3) A family of elements whose atoms react by picking up electrons is the A)alkali metals.
B)halogens.
C)transition metals.
D)inert gases.
Q4) The number of compounds that carbon and oxygen can form is A)1.
B)2.
C)3.
D)4.

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Q1) Glass is
A)amorphous.
B)crystalline.
C)covalent.
D)polar.
Q2) A solution of ammonia, NH<sub>3</sub>, in water is
A)acidic.
B)basic.
C)neutral.
D)Any of these choices could be correct, depending on the concentration.
Q3) The chloride ion Cl<sup>-</sup> is
A)less reactive than the chlorine molecule Cl<sub>2</sub>.
B)more reactive than the chlorine molecule Cl<sub>2</sub>.
C)equal in reactivity to the chlorine molecule Cl<sub>2</sub>.
D)Any of these choices could be correct, depending on the temperature.
Q4) Ionic crystals dissolve only in liquids that are A)polar.
B)nonpolar.
C)saturated.
D)supersaturated.
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Q1) If a certain reaction is endothermic, the reverse reaction
A)cannot occur.
B)may occur spontaneously.
C)cannot occur spontaneously.
D)absorbs energy.
Q2) Of the following battery types, the one with the highest energy density is A)lead-acid.
B)lithium-ion.
C)nickel-cadmium.
D)nickel-metal-hydride.
Q3) The number of moles of H<sub>2</sub>O formed when 1 mole of O<sub>2</sub> reacts with C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub> in the reaction C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub> + 8O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\)5CO<sub>2</sub> + 6H<sub>2</sub>O is
A)3/4.
B)4/3.
C)6.
D)8.
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Q1) An atomic orbital that is a mixture of s and p orbitals is called A)an unsaturated orbital.
B)a saturated orbital.
C)a hybrid orbital.
D)an isomeric orbital.
Q2) Fermentation can convert sugar to carbon dioxide and A)ethanol.
B)methanol.
C)acetic acid.
D)starch.
Q3) Carbohydrates are manufactured in green plants by A)polymerization.
B)fermentation.
C)photosynthesis.
D)respiration.
Q4) The presence of a COOH group is characteristic of an A)alkane.
B)organic acid.
C)aldehyde. D)ester.
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Q1) A temperature inversion that acts to trap smog in localities such as Los Angeles consists of
A)cold air above a layer of warm air.
B)warm air above a layer of cold air.
C)dry air above a layer of moist air.
D)moist air above a layer of dry air.
Q2) The winds in a northern hemisphere cyclone spiral
A)clockwise toward its center.
B)counterclockwise toward its center.
C)clockwise away from its center.
D)counterclockwise away from its center.
Q3) An anticyclone is a weather system centered about a
A)region of low pressure.
B)region of high pressure.
C)cold front.
D)warm front.
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Q1) Which of the following minerals is most resistant to weather?
A)mica
B)quartz
C)feldspar
D)calcite
Q2) Earthquakes are least likely to occur
A)in California.
B)along the west coast of South America.
C)in Japan.
D)in Russia.
Q3) Of the following rocks, the one that does not originate in sediments laid down by water, wind, or ice is A)shale.
B)conglomerate.
C)marble.
D)sandstone.
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Q1) The earth's crust in midocean
A)is always solid and thin relative to the continents.
B)is always solid and thick relative to the continents.
C)may have rifts through which molten rock rises and spreads out.
D)may have rifts through which the ocean floors sink downward.
Q2) It is believed that India
A)was always part of the Asian landmass.
B)rose from the Tethys Sea.
C)was once separated from Asia and later migrated to its present position.
D)is moving away from the Asian landmass.
Q3) Land animals first appeared in the
A)Cenozoic Era.
B)Mesozoic Era.
C)Paleozoic Era.
D)late Precambrian.
Q4) Climates in the Cenozoic era
A)were always cooler than today.
B)were always warmer than today.
C)were sometimes cooler and sometimes warmer than today.
D)were always about the same as today.
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Q1) If the moon were smaller than it is, total eclipses of the sun would A)never occur.
B)occur less often than now.
C)occur as often as now.
D)occur more often than now.
Q2) The planet with the longest day is A)Mercury.
B)Venus.
C)Earth.
D)Mars.
Q3) Venus
A)rotates counterclockwise (looking downward on its north pole), as the other planets do.
B)shows signs of volcanic activity in the past.
C)has a crust that consists of huge shifting plates, as the earth does.
D)has a thin atmosphere mainly of oxygen.
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Q1) There is a surprisingly small variation among stellar A)temperatures.
B)diameters.
C)densities.
D)masses.
Q2) Because the spectra of most stars consist of dark lines on a bright background, these stars must
A)have cool interiors surrounded by hot atmospheres.
B)have hot interiors surrounded by cool atmospheres.
C)have hot interiors surrounded by hot atmospheres.
D)have cool interiors surrounded by cool atmospheres.
Q3) White dwarf stars are not
A)comparable in size with the earth.
B)comparable in mass with the sun.
C)extremely hot.
D)extremely bright.
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Q1) As they came into being, the planets were primarily heated by A)gravitational compression.
B)solar radiation.
C)cosmic rays.
D)cosmic background radiation.
Q2) Dark matter
A)apparently occurs only in our galaxy.
B)apparently occurs in all galaxies.
C)consists of antimatter.
D)consists of cosmic rays.
Q3) Emissions of various kinds from near the center of the Milky Way galaxy suggests the presence of a A)quasar.
B)globular cluster.
C)black hole.
D)galactic nebula.
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