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Natural Resources Management Review Questions - 564 Verified Questions

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Natural Resources Management Review

Questions

Course Introduction

Natural Resources Management explores the principles and practices involved in the sustainable use and conservation of earths natural resources, including soil, water, air, minerals, forests, fisheries, and wildlife. The course examines the biological, ecological, socio-economic, and policy dimensions influencing resource availability and use, emphasizing approaches to balance human needs with environmental stewardship. Students will analyze management strategies, tools, and regulatory frameworks designed to address challenges such as resource depletion, environmental degradation, population growth, and climate change, preparing for roles in environmental planning, policy-making, and resource-based industries.

Recommended Textbook

Principles of Environmental Science 8th Edition by William P Cunningham Prof

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16 Chapters

564 Verified Questions

564 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Understanding Our Environment

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37 Verified Questions

37 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The statement, "Since every insect I have examined so far has six legs, I conclude that all insects must have six legs." is an example of

A) inductive reasoning.

B) deductive reasoning.

C) hypothesis testing.

D) reductive reasoning.

E) parsimony.

Answer: A

Q2) Of the following statements and questions, which is the best example of deductive reasoning?

A) If all insects have six legs, then butterflies have six legs.

B) In repeated tosses of a coin, there is a 50/50 chance of each toss resulting in a "head."

C) How many times will the toss of coins turn "heads-up" if 100 people each toss a coin?

D) Since every insect I have examined so far has six legs, I conclude that all insects must have six legs.

E) All of these are examples of deductive reasoning.

Answer: A

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3

Chapter 2: Environmental Systems: Matter and Energy of Life

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43 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first law of thermodynamics and the law of conservation of matter are similar in that

A) under normal circumstances neither energy nor matter is created nor destroyed.

B) both energy and matter are recycled through biological systems.

C) both energy and matter flow in a one-way path through biological systems.

D) under normal circumstances energy and matter are destroyed as they pass through biological systems.

E) The first law of thermodynamics and the law of conservation of matter are not similar.

Answer: A

Q2) Photosynthesis is the process of converting __________ into __________ energy.

A) chemical bond energy; kinetic

B) solar energy; chemical bond

C) solar energy; kinetic

D) solar electrical energy; heat

E) chemical bond energy; potential

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Evolution, Species Interactions, and Biological Communities

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34 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Evolution occurs as a result of

A) the discovery of a desirable characteristic in a population.

B) an individual's physiological modification.

C) environmental change that forces modification in a resident species.

D) Better survival or reproduction rates by individuals with a particular characteristic.

E) a population's physiological modification.

Answer: D

Q2) As ecological development proceeds, a biological community

A) gradually stagnates.

B) becomes more diverse.

C) goes through repeated secondary succession stages.

D) goes through repeated primary succession stages.

E) becomes less complex.

Answer: B

Q3) The most common reason that introduced species cause trouble is because they are larger than native species.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 4: Human Populations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The concept that describes the amount of land required to produce the goods and services that are required for an individual to live his or her particular lifestyle is the A) IPAT concept.

B) demographic transition concept.

C) ecological footprint concept.

D) social justice concept.

Q2) The world human population reached 1 billion in about A) 1400.

B) 1500.

C) 1600.

D) 1700.

E) 1800.

Q3) The most industrialized country listed is A) Country "A."

B) Country "B."

C) Country "C."

D) None of the countries listed are likely to be industrialized.

E) It is impossible to use the data in the table to identify an industrialized country.

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Chapter 5: Biomes and Biodiversity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The main reason that there are relatively few invertebrates categorized as endangered species is because

A) we consider other groups, such as mammals, to be more interesting and desirable.

B) worldwide there are relatively few invertebrates when compared to plants.

C) it is extremely difficult to identify and count invertebrates.

D) Since there are 532 invertebrates considered endangered, none of these are True.

E) invertebrates are more numerous and the relative percentages are similar.

Q2) The location of specific biomes can be predicted based on A) the Coriolis Effect.

B) the Second Law of Thermodynamics.

C) precipitation and temperature.

D) seasonal variations in sunspots.

E) large landforms in the area.

Q3) The temperature boundary in freshwater lakes is the A) thermocline.

B) epilimnion.

C) benthos.

D) hypolimnion.

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Chapter 6: Environmental Conservation: Forests,

Grasslands, Parks, and Nature

Preserves

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36 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The loss of forests can affect rainfall patterns.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Since tropical forests typically have only a few commercially valuable trees per acre, logging operations

A) usually do little damage to the trees that are left.

B) do extensive damage because of road building and injury to surrounding trees.

C) generally do not encourage conversion of the forest to farmland.

D) are usually not successful.

E) Tropical forests typically have many more than a few commercially valuable trees per acre.

Q3) United States national parks are managed by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Monetary inputs to local economies due to the presence of parks and reserves is A) ecotourism.

B) the Man and the Biosphere concept.

C) hotspot management.

D) a form of REDD.

E) causing the destruction of the parks and preserves through overuse.

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Chapter 7: Food and Agriculture

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Sample Questions

Q1) The three crops that humans rely on for the majority of nutrients and calories are

A) potatoes, wheat, and oats.

B) wheat, rice, and maize.

C) barley, oats, and rye.

D) maize, oats, and rice.

E) oats, beans, and barley.

Q2) A natural form of fertilizer would be

A) manure.

B) phosphorous application.

C) nitrogen.

D) corn plantings.

E) genetically modified crop plantings.

Q3) Goiter is a common disease resulting from a shortage of dietary A) protein.

B) iodine.

C) iron.

D) Vitamin A

E) folic acid.

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Chapter 8: Environmental Health and Toxicology

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Sample Questions

Q1) The cutting of rainforests causes a lack of normal water flow into the soil. Puddles of water can stand for long periods. Which of the following statements best explains how rainforest destruction is closely tied with human morbidity and mortality?

A) The elimination of top consumers can favor disease-carrying organisms.

B) Mosquitoes with an aquatic larval form spread many highly contagious diseases.

C) The standing water is used for drinking and disease organisms in the water cause diarrhea.

D) All of these explain the connection between rainforest destruction and human morbidity and mortality.

Q2) Policy makers should utilize a(n) ____________ approach to setting environmental risk standards.

A) zero tolerance

B) precautionary

C) case-by-case

D) restrictive

Q3) In 1918 a flu pandemic killed more than 50 million people.

A)True

B)False

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10

Chapter 9: Climate

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Sample Questions

Q1) Methane is:

A) The main anthropogenic greenhouse gas produced worldwide.

B) Produced anywhere organic matter decays without oxygen.

C) Accumulating three times as fast as CO2 in the atmosphere.

D) Declining in developing countries since many of its uses have been banned.

E) Produced from the burning of organic material and soil microbial activity.

Q2) ________________ stated that signatory nations must reduce emissions of greenhouse gases below 1990 levels by 2012.

A) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

B) ENSO

C) U.S. Military Advisory Board

D) Kyoto Protocol

E) United Nations

Q3) An increase in albedo would mean there would be

A) an increase in reflectivity.

B) an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.

C) an increase in the amount of ultraviolet light absorbed by the atmosphere.

D) an increase in heat absorption.

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Chapter 10: Air Pollution

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Sample Questions

Q1) The "ozone hole" is a depletion currently most serious

A) at the most populated latitudes.

B) over North America.

C) in tropical latitudes.

D) near the Hadley cells.

E) near the poles.

Q2) Primary pollutants are those that are

A) released directly in dangerous forms.

B) produced in the greatest quantities.

C) the most dangerous.

D) the most threatening to people.

E) classified by the EPA as the most dangerous and abundant.

Q3) The amount of CO<sub>2</sub> released by human activities per year is approximately ___________.

A) 30 million tons

B) 300 million tons

C) 3 billion tons

D) 30 billion tons

E) 300 billion tons

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Water: Resources and Pollution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Application of fertilizer to farm fields is an example of cultural eutrophication.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The water pollutant that most commonly threatens human health is

A) pathogenic organisms.

B) dissolved plant matter.

C) toxic and hazardous chemicals.

D) thermal pollution.

E) oxygen-demanding wastes.

Q3) _________ sources of water pollution are relatively easy to monitor and regulate while _____________ sources of water pollution are difficult to monitor and clean up.

A) Domestic; industrial

B) Primary; tertiary pollutant

C) Nonpoint; point

D) Tertiary pollutant; primary

E) Point; nonpoint

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Chapter 12: Environmental Geology and Earth Resources

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Sample Questions

Q1) One of the largest earthquakes ever recorded in North America occurred around New Madrid Missouri in 1812.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Starting at the Earth's surface and going towards the center of the Earth, what is the correct order of Earth's layers that make up the Mantle?

A) Lithosphere, Uppermost Mantle, Asthenosphere

B) Uppermost Mantle, Asthenosphere, Crust

C) Crust, Uppermost Mantle, Asthenosphere

D) Crust, Lithosphere, Asthenosphere

E) Crust, Uppermost Mantle, Lowermost Mantle

Q3) Smelting releases metals from ore.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which resource has the highest recycling rate?

A) Iron

B) Steel

C) Tin

D) Aluminum

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Chapter 13: Energy

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38 Verified Questions

38 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Biofuels can be produced commercially using all of the following except A) corn.

B) sugarcane.

C) algae.

D) soybeans.

E) palm oils.

Q2) Energy is the capacity to do work.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In the United States and Canada, the most common problem with using wood as a major heat source is

A) the cost.

B) wood shortages.

C) that it separates people from the utility grid.

D) the production of pollutants.

E) nothing because using wood as an alternate source is a viable way to reduce our dependence on foreign oil.

Q4) The world's largest wind power producers are the United States and Canada. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Solid and Hazardous Waste

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37 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Urban curbside recycling costs cities

A) a great deal, but citizens approve the expense anyway.

B) nothing at all because the materials pay for expenses.

C) more than any other disposal method.

D) far less than landfilling or incinerating.

E) nothing, in fact, all cities make money with recycling.

Q2) The major disadvantage of incinerating waste is

A) it costs more than landfilling.

B) it produces significant air pollution.

C) it cannot be done without first sorting the wastes.

D) both it costs more than landfilling and it produces significant air pollution are correct.

E) both it costs more than landfilling and it cannot be done without first sorting the wastes are correct.

Q3) Landfills differ from open dumps in that

A) landfills are smaller.

B) dumps are cleaner and smell less.

C) landfilled waste is compacted and covered.

D) landfills are cheaper to operate.

E) Landfills and dumps are the same thing.

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Economics and Urbanization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Suburbs are known for the presence of artistic and cultural opportunities.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is not a major criticism of this type of analysis?

A) People are willing to answer questions about how much they would spend to save the Amazon rainforest.

B) The quantification process compares the value of the lives of indigenous people's lives with the lives of people in the city who would be receiving the electricity.

C) The focus of this type of analysis would be mainly on the hydroelectric project rather than alternatives.

D) Monetary values are placed on intangible things like the river running freely.

E) These are all criticisms of this type of analysis.

Q3) Renewable resources are those that

A) will not be exhausted.

B) will always renew themselves unless we destroy them.

C) can be renewed through intensive investments of capital and labor.

D) are intangible and inexhaustible.

E) are intangible and exhaustible.

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Chapter 16: Environmental Policy and Sustainability

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35 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the environmental laws and treaties listed below is responsible for protection of endangered species?

A) Clean Water Act.

B) Marine Mammal Act.

C) CITES.

D) Pitman Robertson Act.

E) Kyoto Protocol.

Q2) The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the government to take the least environmentally harmful option in any decision.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Rather than directly suing a company for damages, it can be more effective to sue

A) the individuals who are employed by the company.

B) the government for not enforcing laws that would have prevented the damage.

C) the government for making the laws so stringent.

D) the owners of the company.

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