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This course explores the interrelationship between natural resources and sustainable development, examining how resources such as water, soil, minerals, forests, and energy are managed to meet the needs of present and future generations. Students will investigate topics including resource extraction, conservation strategies, renewable and non-renewable resources, ecosystem services, policy frameworks, and the impact of human activities on the environment. Through case studies and practical examples, the course emphasizes the importance of integrating ecological, social, and economic considerations in the quest for long-term sustainability.
Recommended Textbook Geosystems An Introduction to Physical Geography 9th Edition by Robert W. Christopherson
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Q1) A standard parallel is a line of tangency.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an active remote sensing device?
A) film
B) infrared sensor
C) video camera
D) LiDAR
Answer: D
Q3) If it is 10:00 A.M. in Miami, Florida (Eastern time zone), what time is it in Los Angeles, California, located 3 time zones to the west in the Pacific Time zone?
A) 7 A.M.
B) 8 A.M.
C) 1 P.M.
D) 2 P.M.
Answer: A
Q4) List the five principal themes of modern geographic education.
Answer: location; place; region; human-Earth relationship; movement
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Q1) The Sun is directly overhead north of 23.5° north latitude twice a year.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following is not true about the Milky Way galaxy in which we live?
A) It is a spiral-shaped galaxy.
B) It is one of millions of galaxies in the universe.
C) It contains approximately 300 billion stars.
D) It is the largest galaxy in the universe.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding the point of sunrise for a location in the northern hemisphere?
A) It migrates from southeast to northeast from winter to summer.
B) It remains fixed throughout the year; only the Sun's altitude changes.
C) It moves to the south from winter to summer.
D) It is along the western horizon in summer, and the eastern horizon in winter.
Answer: A
Q4) Why is the light year a useful unit of measurement for astronomical distances?
Answer: The size of the universe is vast; the light year is therefore a useful unit of measurement for distances of such galatic scale.
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Q1) The reaction of automobile exhaust and ultraviolet light
A) produces photochemical smog.
B) produces industrial smog.
C) is affecting the stratospheric ozone concentration.
D) forms smoke and fog.
Answer: A
Q2) When the Sun is active (e.g. more sunspots and eruptions), the thermosphere increases in size.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The tropopause altitude is highest ________ because of the ________.
A) at the equator; intense heating from the surface
B) at the poles; diffuse solar radiation
C) during the summer; increased atmospheric pressure
D) during the winter; Sun's direct rays hitting the Tropic of Capricorn
Answer: A
Q4) What have been some of the significant achievements of the Clean Air Act?
Answer: Significant reductions in atmospheric pollution, direct economic benefits, has saved lives, etc.
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Q1) Which of the following is not responsible for the urban heating effect?
A) Heat generated by homes, vehicles, and factories.
B) Increase in human-made materials that conduct more energy than natural surfaces.
C) Increased albedo of urban environments relative to that of natural landscapes.
D) The concentration of people, machines and heat generating devices adds more heat to the environment.
E) Increased air pollution that absorbs and reradiates heat to surface.
Q2) If the surface of Earth were to suddenly turn white, the temperature of the planet would ________ because ________ insolation would be absorbed.
A) decrease; less
B) decrease; more
C) increase; less
D) increase; more
Q3) As water changes states from liquid to vapor, energy is absorbed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the different methods of heat transfer.
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Q1) The land-water heating difference that specifically relates to opaqueness is A) altitude.
B) specific heat.
C) transparency.
D) evaporation.
Q2) To date, the warmest summer on record in the U.S. occurred in A) 1974.
B) 1838.
C) 2012
D) 2001.
Q3) Relative to latitude and surface energy receipts, which of the following is true?
A) Insolation intensity increases with distance from the subsolar point.
B) Daylength decreases with increasing latitude in summer.
C) Insolation intensity decreases with distance from the subsolar point.
D) Seasonal effects increase toward the equator.
Q4) Compare and contrast Northern and Southern temperature ranges. Also, compare tropical and midlatitude temperature ranges.
Q5) What are the various factors that can affect the apparent temperature?
Q6) Compare, contrast, and explain maritime and continental conditions.
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Q1) In the Northern Hemisphere, ocean currents move ________ about high-pressure cells; in the Southern Hemisphere ocean currents move ________ about high-pressure cells.
A) counterclockwise; clockwise
B) parallel; perpendicular
C) clockwise; counterclockwise
D) perpendicular.; parallel
Q2) The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is associated with A) the horse latitudes.
B) the principal midlatitude circulations.
C) the equatorial low-pressure trough.
D) subtropical high-pressure development.
Q3) The doldrums are associated with the subtropical pressure belt, and the horse latitudes are associated with the equatorial belt.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Thermohaline currents travel at greater speeds than wind-driven currents.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the occurrence of land and sea breezes and mountain and valley breezes.
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Q1) Less than 0.03 percent of Earth's water is stored in the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q2) List and describe the cloud classes and their associated cloud types, along with a discussion of the type of weather associated with each.
Q3) The general term that refers to the tendency of a parcel of air to either remain in place or change its initial position is
A) adiabatic.
B) stability.
C) conditional instability.
D) stasis.
Q4) Discuss how humans are affected by atmospheric water vapor and how humans can affect atmospheric water vapor.
Q5) The movement of water throughout the atmosphere, hydrosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere is known as the A) biogeochemical cycle.
B) hydroflux.
C) capillary movement.
D) hydrologic cycle.
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Q1) Which of the following is false of tropical cyclones?
A) Sea surface temperatures must exceed 26°C (79°F) for one to form.
B) They form around an intense high pressure center at the surface.
C) Storm surges often account for the greatest damage from tropical cyclones.
D) They have hit Brazil, France, and Oman.
Q2) The highest rainfall in the world occurs in an area whose rainfall is generated by
A) advectional cooling of air masses over cold ocean currents.
B) orographic uplift of warm, moist air.
C) convectional uplift of warm, moist air.
D) radiative cooling of cold, moist air.
Q3) The record precipitation received in a single year was
A) in the United States.
B) in the Amazon in Brazil.
C) in the Assam Hills in India, south of the Himalyas.
D) in Southeast Asia.
Q4) Most tornadoes in the United States occur west of the Continental Divide.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do air masses form? What are their general characteristics?
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Q1) The upper limit of the zone of saturation is known as the water table.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The California Water Project is
A) a proposed dam of the Colorado River between the Parker and Palo Verde Dam.
B) a multi-year plan designed to harvest rainwater for agricultural purposes.
C) a water conveyance system to distribute water resources throughout the state.
D) an ambition goal to build a hydroelectric power station larger than China's Three Gorges.
Q3) The ________ Ocean contains the largest volume of water.
A) Atlantic
B) Pacific
C) Arctic
D) Indian
Q4) The utilization of aquifers beyond their flow and recharge capacities is known as groundwater mining.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the two basic pathways precipitation can take once it reaches Earth's surface?
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Q1) Tropical climates are typically located
A) straddling the equator between 20° N/S.
B) all areas of the Earth influenced by a subtropical high pressure system.
C) primarily in areas associated with cold ocean currents.
D) higher latitudes influenced by continental tropical air masses.
Q2) A climograph is a mechanical instrument used for measuring climates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is true of humid subtropical winter-dry climates?
A) The wettest summers month receive approximately 2 to 3 times more precipitation than the driest winter month.
B) Few natural hazards occur throughout the humid subtropical winter-dry climates.
C) The winter dry season is related to the seasonal pulse of the monsoons.
D) The "driest" winter months still have at least 7.5 cm (3 inches) of precipitation.
Q4) Once developed, a climate classification system can be considered complete; i.e., it needs no further revision.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Over the span of the last 5 million years, climate reconstructions show a series of cooler and warmer periods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Seasonal fluctuations in CO emissions reflect
A) increased fuel use for home and building heat in winter months.
B) seasonal changes in vegetation cover in the higher latitudes of the Northern Hemisphere.
C) geothermal activity, which is highest in the fall.
D) summer melting in the tundra.
Q3) As ocean temperatures increase, the ability of oceans to dissolve CO is diminished.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not an example of methods used for short-term climate reconstructions?
A) dendrochronology
B) ocean sediment core analysis
C) carbon isotope analysis
D) speleothems analysis
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Q1) Limestone formed from the shells of marine organisms is an example of ________ sedimentary rock.
A) clastic
B) biochemical
C) organic
D) chemical
Q2) Ocean floor subducts under continents because
A) the ocean floor has a lower density and therefore sinks more easily.
B) the ocean floor is made of felsic minerals and is heavier than continental material.
C) the ocean floor is made of mafic material and is therefore more dense than continental material.
D) the weight of the continents is so great that they push the ocean floor material downward.
Q3) The uneven transition zone from the outer core to the mantle is known as the ________ discontinuity.
A) Gutenberg
B) Mohorovi i
C) Asthensosphere
D) Lithosphere
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Q1) The Hawaiian Islands are near one end of a hot-spot track that stretches to Alaska.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An earthquake that occurs in association with anthropogenic activity, such as waste water injection wells, is known as
A) tectonic seismicity.
B) induced seismicity.
C) a tectonic earthquake.
D) an earthquake. (There is no special name for such an implausible event.)
Q3) The Earth's landscapes are generalized to 12 topographic regions, each defined based on specific, statistical criteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Geologically speaking, the continents began forming relatively recently.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Draw and label a diagram of the three types of convergent plate boundaries and their typical orogenies.
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Q1) Which portions of a slope overlap substantially?
A) waxing slope and waning slope
B) waxing slope and free face
C) free face and debris slope
D) debris slope and waning slope
Q2) Which of the following are the principal active agents involved in chemical weathering?
A) oxygen, silicon, aluminum
B) magnesium, water, limestone
C) water, oxygen, carbon dioxide
D) nitrogen, oxygen, argon
Q3) Briefly describe chemical weathering, providing examples of several physical weathering processes.
Q4) Factors influencing the weathering process include
A) the climate of an area.
B) rock composition and structure.
C) the amount of vegetation in an area.
D) rock composition and structure, climate, and vegetation.
E) only the climate of an area and rock composition.
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Q5) Discuss the dynamic equilibrium model and the concept of geomorphic threshold.
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Q1) The mouth of a river is where the river reaches a base level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A stream that downcuts at the same rate as tectonic uplift, thereby maintaining its course is called a(n)
A) meandering stream.
B) anabranching river.
C) antecedent stream.
D) rejuvenated river.
Q3) Cone-shaped deposits of sediment often found at mouth of canyons in arid and semiarid climates are called
A) deposition.
B) deltas.
C) alluvial fans.
D) clastics.
Q4) Processes that are related expressly to streams and rivers are termed
A) fluvial.
B) geomorphic.
C) lemnetic.
D) lotic.

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Q1) The artificial replacement of sand along a beach is called A) groins.
B) beach nourishment.
C) jetties.
D) breakwater.
Q2) Using outside sources, describe some of the challenges facing coastal environments in the 21st Century.
Q3) Coral atolls form around sinking volcanic islands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) On average, ocean water is A) very acidic (low pH).
B) very basic (high pH).
C) neutral.
D) mildly acid (a pH slightly less than 7).
Q5) The salinity of seawater averages 35 .
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the key features of a typical erosional coast and a typical depositional coast. Page 18
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Q1) Partially compacted snow that is an intermediate between snow and ice is called a(n)
A) firn.
B) glacier.
C) moraine.
D) snowline.
Q2) Permafrost describes those portions of the ocean that are constantly covered by floating ice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Alpine glaciers eroding parallel valleys may produce thin, sharp ridge forms known as arête.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The type of glacier that dominates Greenland and Antarctica is an
A) ice cap.
B) ice sheet.
C) ice field.
D) ice shelves.
Q5) Discuss the process of glacial erosion.
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Q1) Carbon dioxide concentrations in soil are ________ than in the atmosphere because ________.
A) lower; transpiration
B) lower; plant photosynthesis
C) higher; ongoing respiration in the ground
D) higher; decay of dead plants and animals
Q2) The horizon in which water moves fine particles downward in a process called eluviation is the ________ horizon.
A) A
B) O
C) E
D) B
E) C
Q3) Which of the following soil horizon designations is i the correct sequence from the surface to the bedrock?
A) O, E, C, B, A
B) A, B, C, O, R
C) S, O, I, L
D) O, A, E, B, C
Q4) What are the five primary soil forming factors? Describe each using examples.
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Q1) Using Figure 19.4 and Table 19.1 as your guide, describe the net primary productivity of the area in which you live. How does this net primary productivity vary across your state (or equivalent) and broader region?
Q2) Within a lake, eutrophic conditions predominate in deep, open water.
A)True B)False
Q3) An ecological niche is essentially the same thing as a habitat.
A)True B)False
Q4) The specific, unique role that a species performs within a given area is known as a(n)
A) ecotone. B) habitat. C) community. D) niche.
Q5) Addressing and mitigating climate change may become an essential component of species conservation.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Species extinctions are inevitable so expending resources on combating species loss is pointless.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anthopogenic biomes, while not replacing the concept of terrestrial biomes classification, provide insight into the role humans have played in shaping the world's ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Trees and shrubs that seasonally loose their leaves are called
A) evergreens.
B) annual herbs.
C) deciduous.
D) bryophytes.
Q4) The Earth's largest living organism in terms of biomass is the A) baobab (Adansonia digitata).
B) giant sequoia (Sequoiadendron giganteum).
C) bristlecone pine (Pinus longaeva).
D) sitka spruce (Picea sitchensis).
Q5) What is conservation biogeography? What are its primary focuses?
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