Natural Hazards Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the scientific principles, causes, and impacts of natural hazards including earthquakes, volcanoes, tsunamis, floods, hurricanes, tornadoes, and landslides. Students will examine the physical processes underlying each type of hazard, methods for assessing risks, and strategies for mitigation and preparedness. Through case studies and research, the course also addresses the social, economic, and environmental impacts of natural disasters, as well as the role of technology and policy in reducing vulnerability and enhancing community resilience.
Recommended Textbook Earth Science 1st Edition by Stephen Marshak
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Chapter 1: The Earth in Context
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Q1) Glass is different from a mineral because it
A)is not naturally occurring.
B)is not a solid.
C)does not have atoms arranged in an orderly pattern.
D)contains carbon and is therefore organic.
Answer: C
Q2) Igneous rock is formed
A)by the solidification of molten rock.
B)when existing rocks undergo changes caused by increases in pressure, temperature, or both.
C)by the cementing together of solid grains, or by the precipitation of minerals out of water solutions, at or near the Earth's surface.
D)through weathering processes at or near Earth's surface.
Answer: A
Q3) According to the Big Bang theory,
A)Earth is much older than the rest of the universe.
B)the universe is much older than Earth.
C)Earth and the universe formed at about the same time.
D)there is no way of knowing how old the universe might be.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Way the Earth Works: Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why Wegener's theory of continental drift was not originally accepted by geologists of his time.
Answer: Wegener could not provide a plausible mechanism for the movement of continents. Leading geologists of the day argued that no forces are strong enough to move continents.
Q2) Younger oceanic crust will have __________ ocean sediments, whereas older oceanic crust will have __________ oceanic sediments.
A)older; younger
B)carbonate; silicic
C)thicker; thinner
D)thinner; thicker
Answer: D
Q3) Regions of the seafloor with positive magnetic anomalies were formed during times when Earth's magnetic field
A) was exceptionally strong.
B) was exceptionally weak.
C)had normal polarity.
D)had reversed polarity.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Patterns in Nature: Minerals
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Q1) Potassium feldspar (KAlSi O ) is in which mineral class?
A)silicates
B)carbonates
C)oxides
D)sulfides
Answer: A
Q2) Calcite (CaCO ) is in which mineral class?
A)silicates
B) carbonates
C)oxides
D)sulfides
Answer: B
Q3) With regard to minerals, hardness refers to the ability to resist A)melting.
B)being scratched.
C)reactivity to acid.
D)malleability.
Answer: B
Q4) Draw and label a silicon-oxygen tetrahedron.
Answer: 11ea5217_bcc7_1363_b9bb_4fce70cfaf6f_TB4836_00
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Up From the Inferno: Magma and Igneous Rocks
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Q1) An igneous rock with a mixed texture of coarse crystals (phenocrysts) surrounded by fine crystals (groundmass) is termed __________ .
A)porphyritic
B)phaneritic
C)aphanitic
D)vitric
Q2) Magma tends to __________ .
A)move upward, away from where it formed
B)move downward, away from where it formed
C)move laterally
D)stay in one place
Q3) Despite the fact that the temperatures within Earth are hot enough to melt rock, Earth is mostly solid. Why do the rocks within Earth NOT melt?
A)The pressure is too high.
B)The pressure is too low.
C)There is not enough water.
D)They are not in contact with air.
Q4) What are the ways in which geoscientists can monitor volcanoes? Is it possible for scientists to predict eruptions?
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Chapter 5: A Surface Veneer: Sediments and Sedimentary
Rocks
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Q1) Lithification occurs
A)in the shallow subsurface.
B)at the surface of Earth.
C)deep under the ground
D)high in the mountains
Q2) The elevation of a mountain could be slowly decreased by weathering and A)lithification.
B)sedimentation.
C)erosion.
D)deposition
Q3) Which of the following does NOT reflect transport distance?
A)angularity
B)type of cement
C)rounding
D)mineral content
Q4) The breakdown of exposed rock into small fragments and dissolved ions is termed A)deposition.
B)erosion.
C)weathering.
D)lithification
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Chapter 6: A Process of Change: Metamorphism and the Rock Cycle
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Q1) What metamorphic facies would most commonly be associated with a subduction zone and why?
Q2) Mylonites, formed from dynamic metamorphism, typically do NOT display A)foliation roughly parallel to a fault.
B)very fine grains.
C)shear zones.
D)bands of randomly oriented mica grains.
Q3) Which list properly orders these foliated metamorphic rocks from lowest grade to highest grade?
A)gneiss, slate, schist, and phyllite
B)slate, schist, phyllite, and gneiss
C)slate, phyllite, schist, and gneiss
D)gneiss, phyllite, schist, and slate
Q4) Clay minerals within a buried body of slate are recrystallized at high temperatures and pressures to form mica, producing a rock called phyllite. This is an example of A)diagenesis.
B)erosion.
C)metamorphism
D)weathering.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Crags, Cracks, and Crumples: Crustal
Deformation and Mountain Building
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Himalayan mountain range was formed at which tectonic setting?
A)a convergent plate boundary
B)a divergent plate boundary
C)a transform plate boundary
D)hotspots
Q2) Compare and contrast domes and basins. If both are composed solely of sedimentary beds that have been eroded such that the ground surface is level, how would you identify each?
Q3) What are the three components of deformation? Briefly explain each.
Q4) How does the rate at which a body of rock is deformed affect its behavior?
A)A rock deformed quickly is likely to exhibit brittle behavior.
B)A rock deformed slowly is likely to exhibit brittle behavior.
C)The rate of deformation has no effect on a rock's behavior.
D)The rate of deformation is important only below the brittle/plastic transition.
Q5) Force-per-unit area is termed
A) stress.
B) strain.
C) power.
D) work.
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Chapter 8: A Violent Pulse: Earthquakes
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Q1) What occurs when earthquakes cause pore pressure to increase, which in turn causes grains to separate and compact?
A)liquefaction
B)aftershocks
C)normal faults
D)landslides
Q2) What is the Moho? How was it discovered?
Q3) Much of the capitol city of Port-au-Prince was destroyed during the 2010 Haiti earthquake even though similarly sized earthquakes in other cities did very little damage. What caused so much damage during the Haiti earthquake?
A) A tsunami wiped out the city.
B) Landslides covered large areas.
C)The buildings were poorly built.
D)The residents did not evacuate in time.
Q4) Long-term prediction methods include(s)
A)early warning systems.
B) behavior of animals.
C)seismic risk assessment.
D)recognition of foreshocks.
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Chapter 9: Deep Time: How Old Is Old
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Q1) It is known that Rock A is older than rock B but younger than rock C. It would then be accurate to say that rock __________ is the oldest, followed by rock __________, with rock __________ being the youngest.
A)A; C; B
B)C; B; A
C)C; A; B
D)B; A; C
Q2) Relative ages expressed on the geologic time scale primarily resulted from the study of
A)fossil content and spatial relationships among igneous rocks.
B)fossil content and spatial relationships among sedimentary rocks.
C)radiometric dating of igneous rocks.
D)radiometric dating of sedimentary rocks.
Q3) Uniformitarianism is succinctly summarized by which phrase?
A)The future is the key to the present.
B)The present is the key to the past.
C)The past is the key to the present.
D)The present is the key to the future.
Q4) Why have no rocks older than 4.12 Ga been found in Earth's crust?
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Chapter 10: A Biography of Earth
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a likely reason for global sea level change in the Proterozoic?
A)changes in the volume of water in the Earth system
B)changes in the capacity of ocean basins
C)tectonic events that cause continental land masses to rise or fall
D)the formation of large amounts of glacial ice
Q2) Banded iron formations (BIFs) show evidence of an A)oxygen-poor atmosphere because all of the oxygen was dissolved into the oceans and then precipitated as iron-oxide minerals.
B)acidic ocean that forced iron to bond with the oxygen in the water to form iron-oxide minerals.
C)oxygen-poor ocean because all the oxygen was trapped in the iron-oxide minerals that make up the formation.
D)oxygen-rich atmosphere that forced the oceans to become oxidizing and precipitate iron-oxide minerals.
Q3) What major change took place on Earth at the beginning of the Paleozoic? What is the Cambrian explosion?
Q4) What is an epicontinental sea? Why might an epicontinental sea form and retreat?
Q5) Describe how fossils can be used to interpret the geologic history of an area.
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Chapter 11: Riches in Rock: Energy and Mineral Resources
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Q1) Which of the following occurs when a neutron strikes a radioactive parent atom?
A)fusion
B)fission
C)enrichment
D)atomic splicing
Q2) Explain how sources of energy for society have changed over time.
Q3) Mineral resources are
A)renewable because they are naturally formed.
B)renewable because we use them at slower rates than they are formed.
C)nonrenewable because they are formed at slower rates than we use them.
D)nonrenewable because they are no longer formed.
Q4) A reservoir rock contains ____________ porosity and permeability, whereas a seal rock contains ____________ porosity and permeability.
A)higher; lower
B)lower; higher
C)no; high
D)no; low
Q5) What is a seismic reflection profile? Summarize how they can be used in oil exploration.
Page 13
Q6) What are biofuels? Identify some examples of biofuels.
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Q1) Which of the following mountains is MOST likely to experience lahars?
A)Mount Everest
B)Mount St. Helens
C)Mount Denali (Mount McKinley)
D)The Matterhorn
Q2) Pick two ways of mitigating landslide hazards and describe how they work and what issues they may have.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of a landform?
A)mountain
B)valley
C)water
D)swamp
Q4) Landforms built by an accumulation of sediment are called ______________ landforms.
A)erosional
B)depositional
C)mechanical
D)eradication
Page 14
Q5) What type(s) of energy control(s) erosion? Explain your answer.
Q6) How can water play a role in slope stability and slope failure?
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Chapter 13: Freshwater: Streams, Lakes, and Groundwater
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Q1) Why are artificial levees only useful for some flooding events?
A)Levees cannot be built larger than the surrounding floodplain.
B) Flash floods occur too quickly for officials to close the levees.
C) Levees are built in rural areas and will not help for flooding in the city.
D)Large floods can create high pressures and undermine the levee.
Q2) In uniform sediments with a relatively constant and gentle slope at the surface, a ___________ drainage network is expected.
A)dendritic
B)radial
C)rectangular
D)trellis
Q3) What does it mean if the water table of a potential spring does NOT reach above the ground surface?
A)The aquifer does not have any recharge into it and thus is dry.
B)There will never be any artesian wells or springs associated with the aquifer.
C)It will not be possible to pull water out of the aquifer from any type of well.
D)The aquifer does not have a high enough permeability to produce water.
Q4) Name and describe two methods to mitigate flood hazards.
Q5) What is a stream? How is it similar to and different from a river or a creek?
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Chapter 14: Extreme Realms: Desert and Glacial Landscapes
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Q1) Chimneys (also called hoodoos) and yardangs differ in that chimneys are __________ , whereas yardangs are __________ .
A)formed by evaporation; formed by water erosion
B)formed by water erosion; formed by evaporation
C)fossilized trunks of saguaro and other large cactus; not
D)remnants of cliff retreat; remnants of wind erosion
Q2) Wind blows finer particles long distances from glacial environments, where they settle out to form
A)firn.
B)loess.
C)outwash
D)till.
Q3) Which of the following scenarios would lead to glacial advance during a time of global warming?
A)glacier in a depression that lies in shadows most of the day
B)glacier in a valley on the leeward side of a mountain range
C)glacier that caps the highest mountain on the planet
D)continental glacier that covers an entire continent
Q4) What is the dominant erosional force in deserts, wind or water? Why?
Q5) Describe the differences between lag deposits and desert pavement.
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Chapter 15: Ocean Waters: the Blue of the Blue Marble
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Q1) Imagine a person is sailing across the Pacific Ocean and the deck of the boat is suddenly swamped by a wave twice as high as the waves have been during this entire journey. They have encountered a ____________wave.
A)tsunami
B)rogue
C)swell
D)seismic
Q2) Describe a rogue wave and explain the impact this type of wave can have on sailors, coastal infrastructure, and ocean enthusiasts.
Q3) What prevents the individual water masses from becoming one single water mass?
A)a heterogeneous makeup
B)a homogenous makeup
C)Unrelated temperatures
D)Unrelated density
Q4) Which of the following accounts for the largest amount of biomass in our oceans?
A)plankton
B)nekton
C)dinoflagellates
D)mammals
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Chapter 16: Marine Geology: the Study of Ocean Basins and Coasts
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Q1) Along beaches, groins have
A)solved the problem of beach drift.
B)increased erosion rates immediately up current from the groin.
C)increased erosion rates immediately down current from the groin.
D)increased depositional rates immediately down current from the groin.
Q2) Sea level is currently rising at 3.2 mm/yr, and scientists predict that global warming could cause a rise in sea level of 7 m if left unabated. How long will it take the sea to rise 7 m at the current rate?
A)2,121 years
B)0.0004 year
C)2.121 years
D)0.47 year
Q3) Which of the following is the BEST example of an organic coast?
A)gently sloping, well-developed beach
B)wave-cut platform
C)shoreline that has just received beach nourishment
D)shallow coral reef
Q4) Contrast emergent and submergent coasts. List at least two reasons why coasts may become emergent or submergent.
Q5) Why is it NOT a good idea to build on barrier islands?
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Chapter 17: The Air We Breathe: Introducing Earths
Atmosphere
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Q1) Water held in the atmosphere is a__________ , whereas water in the form of snow, ice, or hail is a_________.
A)liquid; solid
B)vapor; solid
C)vapor; aerosol
D)solid; gas
Q2) What type of characteristics would be best used to describe wind?
A)direction and speed
B)cloud cover and dew point
C)updraft and downdraft
D)high pressure and low pressure
Q3) Hypothesize why someone would feel hotter on a steamy, humid day in Mississippi than on a hot, bone-dry day in the Mojave Desert.
Q4) How do researchers differentiate between the heterosphere and homosphere?
A)The heterosphere is a well-mixed layer, whereas the homosphere is stratified.
B)There is no way to differentiate between the two.
C)The homosphere is a well-mixed layer, whereas the heterosphere is stratified.
D)The homosphere and the heterosphere are both homogenous atmospheric layers.
Q6) List the three laws that govern the behavior of blackbody radiation. Page 20
Q5) Explain the role and process the ionosphere plays in radio transmission.
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Chapter 18: Winds of the World: the Earths Major Weather Systems
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Q1) A hurricane cannot form on the equator because the _________ is too
.
A)Coriolis effect; small
B)ocean water; hot
C)Coriolis effect; big
D)ocean water; cold
Q2) Where can the subtropical jet stream be located?
A)At any given time, two jet streams exist in each hemisphere.
B)The subtropical jet stream lies over the polar front, an air mass boundary that extends from the Earth's surface upward to the tropopause.
C)The subtropical jet stream forms at the boundary between the high-latitude end of a Hadley cell and the cooler air of mid-latitudes.
D)The subtropical jet stream forms at the boundary of the Ferrel cell and the warmer air of the tropical latitudes.
Q3) Which hazard is most likely to be caused by a monsoon season?
A)typhoons
B)hurricanes
C)earthquakes
D)flooding
Page 22
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Chapter 19: Thunderstorms, Tornadoes, and Local Weather Systems
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Q1) Thunderstorms are most likely to occur
A)in polar regions.
B)in the tropics.
C)over the open ocean.
D)associated with dry coastal areas.
Q2) An anvil cloud is most likely to form when
A)a parcel of warm air begins to cool and loses buoyancy.
B)rising air reaches the tropopause and loses buoyancy.
C)water vapor is converted to a liquid and rain starts to fall.
D)a thunderstorm invades a package of stable air and spreads out.
Q3) A(n) __________ is the leading edge of the cool, dense air that flows down and out of a thunderstorm once rain starts to fall.
A)downdraft
B)updraft
C)gust front
D)cool pool
Q4) Contrast the windward and leeward sides of a mountain. What weather-related conditions and phenomena can one expect on each side? What is the orographic effect?
Page 23
Q5) Compare and contrast stable and unstable atmospheric conditions.
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Chapter 20: Climate and Climate Change
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Q1) Milankovitch cycles involve changes in the shape of Earth's orbit, as well as the A)location of the magnetic North Pole.
B)precession of its axis.
C)tilt of its axis, and the precession of its axis.
D)tilt of its axis, and the location of the magnetic North Pole.
Q2) Is the primary cause of recent climate change natural or anthropogenic? How do we know?
Q3) The conditions of air temperature, relative humidity, wind speed, cloudiness, and precipitation at a given location at a given time are referred to as
A)weather.
B)climate.
C)weather forecast.
D)climate change.
Q4) Which of the following is MOST true of albedo?
A)Increases in albedo cause cooling.
B)Increases in albedo cause warming.
C)Decreases in albedo typically result in polar ice formation.
D)Decreases in albedo typically result in increased vegetation.
Q5) Identify five probable outcomes of global climate change.
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Chapter 21: Our Solar System and Beyond
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Q1) Describe the positions of Earth, its moon, and the Sun during a solar eclipse.
A)A solar eclipse occurs when Earth's moon blocks the light of the Sun from reaching the surface of Earth.
B)A solar eclipse occurs when the Sun blocks the light of Earth from reaching the surface of Earth.
C)A solar eclipse occurs when Earth blocks the light of Earth from reaching the surface of the Sun.
D)A solar eclipse occurs when Earth's moon blocks the light of Venus from reaching the surface of Earth.
Q2) A geometric parallax is the apparent displacement of a foreground object relative to a background object when an observer's position changes and can be used to calculate the
A)temperature of faraway stars.
B)temperature of nearby stars.
C)distance of faraway stars.
D)distance of nearby stars.
Q3) Outline Newton's Laws of Physics.
Q4) What are the reason(s) large astronomical observatories prefer reflecting telescopes?
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Chapter 22: Our Neighborhood in Space
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Q1) What are the ice giants? How do they differ from the gas giants?
Q2) How is the condensation theory for the formation of the solar system different from the nebular theory?
Q3) Pluto is an example of a(n)
A)planet.
B)dwarf planet.
C)moon.
D)eccentric object.
Q4) What is a moon? Do all planets have moons?
Q5) Which of the following planets is an ice giant?
A)Earth
B)Saturn
C)Jupiter
D)Uranus
Q6) A meteor is
A)composed of rock and metal.
B)composed of rock and ice.
C)a light streak, also known as a shooting star.
D)a meteoroid that survives the Earth's atmosphere and strikes the ground.
Q7) Is or was there water on Mars? How do we know?
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Chapter 23: The Sun, Stars, and Deep Space
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Q1) If the Universe becomes larger and larger, its matter will become more and more dispersed and eventually, in this scenario, all that will be left are
A)the black holes.
B)the nebula.
C)neutron stars.
D)very long-lived red-dwarf stars.
Q2) The Sun's layer that produces the energy is the A)radiative zone.
B)convective zone.
C)sun spot.
D)solar core.
Q3) Is it possible for a planet to safely orbit a black hole?
A)No.
B)Beyond the event horizon, planets can orbit a black hole just as they do other celestial bodies.
C)Within the event horizon, planets can orbit a black hole just as they do other celestial bodies.
D)Only if the planet orbiting the black hole has a mass greater than a supergiant star.
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Chapter 24: Prelude: Welcome to Earth Science
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Q1) Which of the following is LEAST likely to be assessed by an Earth scientist?
A)Tracking of monthly horoscopes using star charts.
B)Mapping locations likely to be inundated by floods.
C)Predicting the weekly weather forecast.
D)Analyzing climate patterns and change.
Q2) Which of the following is a process that serves as a methodological approach to scientific inquiry?
A)the elemental method
B)the scientific method
C)hypothesis
D)theory
Q3) Earth Science is a multidisciplinary science. Why is this the case? Describe the principle disciplines that Earth Science encompasses.
Q4) What is the systematic study of natural phenomena based on observation, experimentation, and calculation?
A)philosophy
B)astrology
C)calculus
D)science
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