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This course explores the scientific principles, causes, and effects of natural disasters, including earthquakes, hurricanes, floods, volcanic eruptions, tsunamis, and wildfires. Students will examine the geological, meteorological, and environmental processes leading to these hazards, as well as their human and ecological impacts. The course also addresses risk assessment, disaster prediction, emergency preparedness, response strategies, and the role of climate change in altering the frequency and severity of disasters. Through case studies, students gain insight into how communities can mitigate risks and adapt to an ever-changing global environment.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Environmental Geology 5th Edition by KELLER
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19 Chapters
792 Verified Questions
792 Flashcards
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39 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17410
Sample Questions
Q1) Large-scale ________ of Earth materials will be required to meet future resource demands.
Answer: recycling
Q2) Humans evolved during the ________ Epoch of geologic time.
Answer: Pleistocene
Q3) An open system exchanges energy and materials with its surroundings.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) What is the Gaia hypothesis?
A)a hypothesis that states the Earth is alive
B)the concept of environmental unity
C)the hypothesis lying at the root of uniformitarianism
D)a set of hypotheses that likens the Earth to a superorganism with interrelated, mutually adjusting systems
Answer: D
Q5) A closed system is not amenable to scientific scrutiny.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) What driving force of plate movement is likely dominant?
A)ridge push
B)slab pull
C)mountain rise
D)valley fall
Answer: B
Q2) S-waves accelerate as they enter the outer core.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The asthenosphere is stronger than the lithosphere.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Yellowstone National Park lies atop a(n) ________.
Answer: continental hot spot
Q5) New oceanic lithosphere is generated at mid-ocean ridges.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

Page 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonfoliated metamorphic rocks are less likely to cause a landslide than are foliated metamorphic rocks.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The law of ________ states that a sedimentary rocks accumulate in an untilted geometry.
Answer: original horizontality
Q3) In an ionic bond
A)chains or sheets of atoms are held together by weak forces
B)atoms are joined by electrical charges
C)electrons are shared between all atoms in a solid mass
D)electrons are shared between a limited number of atoms
Answer: B
Q4) Rock folds typically form under the influence of compressive stress.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) A(n) ________ is an unconformity between parallel layers of sediment.
Answer: disconformity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ of a sea urchin in a kelp forest is eating kelp.
Q2) An indigenous ecosystem is one that
A)is heavily impacted by humans
B)is not substantially impacted by humans
C)is reconstructed by humans
D)includes native human beings
Q3) A(n) ________ of coastal marshes is the prevention of coastal erosion.
Q4) One result of wolf reintroduction in Yellowstone National Park is
A)increase in fine sediment in streams
B)increased species diversity in prey species
C)decreased species diversity in prey species
D)regrowth of streamside vegetation
Q5) Landslides in Southern California mountains can benefit steelhead trout.
A)True
B)False
Q6) How a species "makes its living" is called its
A)habitat
B)niche
C)biota
D)ecology

Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) Natural hazards are always damaging and never beneficial.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The risk of a particular event is the product of the event's occurrence multiplied by the ________.
Q3) To what does the concept of acceptable risk refer?
A)the fact that natural hazards always have risks
B)the risk that a prediction of an event is likely to be inaccurate
C)the risk that is inherent in predicting natural hazards
D)the risk that society or individuals are willing to endure
Q4) A prediction of a hazardous event has greater uncertainty than does a forecast.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hurricane Katrina flooded New Orleans when a(n) ________ broke.
Q6) Volcanic eruptions are one of the few natural hazards that have no benefit to humans.
A)True
B)False
Q7) A(n) ________ response has to do with the impact of and recovery from hazards.
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Q8) Benefits of ________ include enrichment of soils and the creation of new land.

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Sample Questions
Q1) Why have 20th century earthquakes in Turkey suggested that some earthquakes beget subsequent earthquakes?
A)Two of the earthquakes were particularly strong.
B)Shoddy building construction in the most recent led to many deaths.
C)Prior to the Izmit earthquake in 1999, there had been no major quakes in more than 200 years.
D)Earthquakes have occurred in a pattern from east to west.
Q2) The ________ magnitude is determined from the amplitude of waves recorded on seismograms.
Q3) The epicenter of an earthquake is the point of rupture along the fault.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most large earthquakes in the United States are interplate earthquakes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) ________ fault is a type of reverse fault with a gentle angle of dip.
Q6) A(n) ________ fault has not experienced movement in the last 2 million years.
Q7) The process of ________ releases elastic strain during and after an earthquake.
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Q8) ________ is the transformation of saturated sediments from the solid to the liquid form.

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Sample Questions
Q1) The explosion of the volcano ________ in 1883 generated a giant tsunami that killed tens of thousands of people.
Q2) A tsunami warning system includes seismometers, buoys with ________, and communication systems.
Q3) The San Andreas Fault is highly likely to generate tsunamis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tsunami ready status means that a community has planning and systems in place to respond to a tsunami warning.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The tsunami warning system in the region of the 2004 tsunami A)failed
B)did not exist
C)saved many lives
D)gave inaccurate information
Q6) A(n) ________ is issued when a tsunami has been detected and is moving toward an area.
Q7) The 1998 tsunami in Papua New Guinea was generated by a submarine ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why were the citizens of Heimaey, Iceland, successful in stopping the lava flow that threatened their harbor?
A)They had a ready supply of water with which to chill the lava.
B)The Icelandic air force bombed the lava flows.
C)A giant sea wall was constructed to stop the lava flows.
D)The lava was rhyolitic in composition.
Q2) Composite volcanoes are typically associated with subduction zones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The shape of shield volcanoes is a function of A)lava viscosity
B)proportion of pyroclastic debris included in the edifice
C)local variations in the tilt of the land surface
D)the explosive nature of the eruptions that produce the shield
Q4) The citizens of Heimaey, Iceland, succeeded in stopping a lava flow from blocking their harbor.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Shield volcanoes typically consist of the rock type ________.
Q6) ________ activity beneath a volcano is an indication of moving magma.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Downstream floods typically cover larger areas than do upstream floods.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Structural flood controls often increase overall flood hazard.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For the same amount of discharge, a narrow, shallow channel will have a higher water velocity than will a wide, deep channel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Urbanization generally increases the lag time between the peak of rainfall and the peak of the resulting flood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The bed load is the dominant portion of the total load for most rivers.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Braided channels are typically characterized by fine-grained bed load. A)True
B)False

Page 11
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ratio of resisting to driving forces is called the ________.
Q2) Land subsidence in the Central Valley, California, results mostly from oil extraction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What strategy has been suggested to stabilize the La Conchita, California, landslide?
A)retaining wall construction
B)water drainage
C)planting of vegetation
D)slope grading
Q4) How do slumps and translational slides differ?
A)translational slides are more damaging
B)slumps are more damaging
C)slumps are rotational, while translational slides are planar
D)slumps create debris flows, while translational slides do not
Q5) Erosion of the base of a slope may increase landslide hazards.
A)True
B)False
Q6) All slope movements fall under the term ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) How might global warming exacerbate coastal hazards?
A)Global warming will likely be accompanied by sea level rise.
B)Warmer water is more highly erosive on coastlines.
C)Ocean currents will be stronger in a warmer world.
D)Under warmer conditions, waves are likely to be substantially larger.
Q2) Why does ocean swell tend to consist of waves of similar sizes?
A)Swell is controlled by water depth.
B)Swell is controlled by wind speed, and all of the waves that comprise swell arise from the same wind cell.
C)Wavelength is similar for all ocean waves.
D)Waves far from their storm source tend to be sorted into groups of similar waves.
Q3) Why does seacliff erosion occur at high rates in some areas?
A)Because wave action is particularly strong on coastlines with seacliffs.
B)Seacliffs tend to be made of very weak Earth materials.
C)Littoral transport removes Earth materials from the seacliffs.
D)The seacliff may be exposed to both wave action and terrestrial mass wasting processes.
Q4) The balance of sediment input and output along a stretch of coastline is called the ________.
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Q1) A(n) ________ is a bowl-shaped depression caused by a meteorite striking the Earth's surface.
Q2) A meteoroid that enters the Earth's atmosphere is called a(n) ________.
Q3) A meteorite is
A)a small comet
B)a large meteoroid
C)a meteoroid that has entered the Earth's atmosphere
D)a meteoroid, asteroid, or comet that strikes the Earth's surface
Q4) In 1908, the Tunguska River Valley in Siberia experienced
A)a nuclear explosion
B)an aerial burst of a meteor
C)a major earthquake
D)a volcanic eruption
Q5) Because of a thinner ________, there are more impact craters on the Moon than on Earth.
Q6) An aerial burst occurred in the Tunguska River valley of ________ in 1908.
Q7) A(n) ________ event is characterized by the sudden loss of large numbers of plants and animals relative to the number of new species being added.
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Q1) ________ are areas that are either inundated by water or in which the ground is saturated to shallow depths at least a few days in most years.
Q2) Wetlands contribute to poor water quality and harm flood control.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is karst topography a concern for groundwater quality?
A)Waste disposed in karst areas can easily infiltrate into the ground.
B)Sinkholes form from collapsed caverns.
C)The limestone of karst systems dissolves into the water.
D)Caves tend to have high levels of carbon monoxide, which dissolves in the water.
Q4) A cone of depression forms when water is pumped from an unconfined aquifer, but not when water is pumped from a confined aquifer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) ________ stream gains water from an aquifer.
Q6) Drainage basins are separated by the ________.
Q7) The water management philosophy put forth by ________ focuses on natural variability in water resources.
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Q1) Waterborne disease has been completely eliminated from the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The level of decaying organic matter in water is indicated by what measure?
A)fecal coliform
B)eutrophication index
C)biochemical oxygen demand
D)nitrogen and phosphorus
Q3) Wetlands are especially efficient at reducing ________ levels in wastewater.
Q4) ________ and ________ are the two drinking water contaminants thought to pose an immediate health threat.
Q5) All coliform bacteria are harmless.
A)True
B)False
Q6) After ________ treatment of wastewater, 95% of pollutants have been removed.
Q7) Thermal pollution is harmful to some organisms, but actually helps others survive.
A)True
B)False
Q8) ________ sources of pollution are diffuse and intermittent.
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Q1) Air and water pollution are only of concern while a mine is operating.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most water pollution associated with mining operations has to do with A)water passing through mine wastes
B)hazardous chemical spills
C)improper disposal of incinerator ash
D)failure of waste ponds
Q3) Why is cyanide heap leaching used to extract gold from some deposits?
A)The gold concentration is too low to be extracted using traditional methods.
B)It is safer than other methods.
C)Gold can only be extracted from finely disseminated deposits.
D)It produces fewer mine tailings than other methods.
Q4) Because it is isolated from the land surface, groundwater is rarely contaminated by mining.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Agricultural chemicals are typically extracted from sedimentary deposits.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The accident at the Chernobyl nuclear power plant caused similar levels of environmental degradation as did the Three Mile Island accident.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Between the mid-1970s and the mid-1990s, energy consumption in the United States
A)increased at a higher rate than previously
B)increased, but at a slower rate
C)decreased
D)remained the same
Q3) ________ is the time when petroleum production begins to fall short of demand.
Q4) Nuclear ________ involves the joining of lighter elements to produce heavier ones.
Q5) Nuclear fission is the process of
A)bringing light atoms together to make heavier atoms
B)splitting of heavy atoms to make light atoms
C)using solar energy to excite atomic nuclei
D)producing nuclear fuel
Q6) ________ coal has the highest heat content.
Q7) All renewable energy sources ultimately capture energy from the ________.
Q8) Fuel cells rely on the element ________ for their energy source.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what ways are soil surveys useful for land-use planning?
A)They provide the basis for rating limitations for specific land uses.
B)They provide maps showing the shrink-swell potential of soils.
C)They provide the basis for determining land valuation.
D)They show where existing soils have been covered by urbanization.
Q2) A soil ________ is a series of soils arranged by age according to their relative profile development.
Q3) Off-road vehicle use contributes to soil problems by
A)loosening soil and changing the hydrology of a site
B)polluting soil with vehicle emissions
C)changing the local rainfall characteristics
D)changing the classification of a soil
Q4) Soil erosion is primarily a major problem only at the site where it occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ is the physical and chemical breakdown of rocks.
Q6) The unified soil classification system, which is based on soil texture, is particularly useful for agricultural purposes.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) What effect does a large volcanic eruptions typically have on the atmosphere?
A)warming for several years
B)cooling for one or two years
C)cooling for several decades
D)increases in CFCs
Q2) How does glacial ice form?
A)Frigid conditions cause direct freezing of atmospheric water vapor onto land surfaces.
B)Melting snow accumulates in a basin and is refrozen as the climate cools.
C)Sea ice becomes attached to land surfaces and develops into glacial ice.
D)Snow is retained for many years and compacted into ice by overlying snow.
Q3) The glacial history of an area can strongly impact its environmental geology today.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ________ of construction on permafrost focuses on a maintenance of frozen conditions in the ground.
Q5) ________ is windblown silt that covers much of the upper Midwest, as well as other areas.
Q6) The dominant form of anthropogenic climate forcing is the emission of ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Site selection" in environmental planning is often overlooked.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The source of radon gas in the home is typically
A)decay of airborne uranium
B)uranium-bearing rocks and soil underlying the house
C)waste from uranium mining operations in the region
D)radioactive components of electronics equipment
Q3) "Superfund" sites are those that
A)have clear ownership and responsibility for contamination
B)have been abandoned by previous owners
C)have been cleaned up efficiently
D)contain contamination with organic wastes
Q4) Why are particulates considered such a significant health hazard?
A)They can cause respiratory problems.
B)Small amounts can be acutely toxic to humans and livestock.
C)They are emitted largely by natural sources.
D)They are concentrated in rural areas.
Q5) A(n) ________ is an air pollutant known to cause cancer or other serious health problems.
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