Musculoskeletal Rehabilitation Exam
Materials
Course Introduction
Musculoskeletal Rehabilitation is a comprehensive course that explores the principles, assessment techniques, and evidence-based interventions used in the management of musculoskeletal disorders. The course covers anatomy and physiology of the musculoskeletal system, common injuries and pathologies, and the processes of tissue healing and recovery. Students will learn to design individualized rehabilitation programs using therapeutic exercises, manual therapy, modalities, and patient education to restore function, decrease pain, and prevent recurrence. Emphasis is placed on clinical reasoning, outcome measurement, and interdisciplinary collaboration to optimize patient care in diverse clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 7th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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26 Chapters
512 Verified Questions
512 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a step in the process of evidence-based practice except:
A)Convert the patient problem to an answerable clinical question.
B)Spend many hours gathering any and all information that might be used to answer the question.
C)Integrate relevant evidence with clinical experience and expertise to make decisions about the management and care of a patient.
D)Assess the outcomes of interventions based on evidence.
Answer: B
Q2) Consistent with the taxonomy of motor tasks, which of the following activities is the best example of body stability in an open environment with intertrial variability without manipulation?
A)Maintaining sitting balance while riding a bus from school to home
B)Maintaining standing balance while on an escalator
C)Maintaining balance on a sidewalk or on the grass
D)Maintaining sitting balance in chairs of different heights in your family room when you are home alone
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Prevention, Health, and Wellness
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a prescreening question that should be addressed before participation in a health promotion program, except:
A)Have you ever been diagnosed with a heart condition?
B)What are your blood pressure and heart rate normally?
C)Do you experience chest pain when you engage in physical activity?
D)Do you ever lose your balance or lose consciousness?
Answer: B
Q2) All of the following risk factors are common to both coronary artery disease (CAD) and osteoporosis except:
A)Prolonged use of corticosteroids
B)Smoking
C)Sedentary life-style
D)Family history
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.J underwent a repair of a torn biceps brachii 2 days ago.During PROM exercises, which combination of motions should you avoid at end range to protect (not disrupt) the healing tissue?
A)Elbow extension, shoulder extension, forearm supination
B)Elbow extension, shoulder flexion, forearm pronation
C)Elbow extension, shoulder flexion, forearm supination
D)Elbow extension, shoulder extension, forearm pronation
Answer: D
Q2) The most effective results of continuous passive motion (CPM) can be expected:
A)If the device is applied for at least 5 hours per day but its use is delayed for at least 5 days postoperatively.
B)If the device is applied as early as possible after surgery for at least 4 to 8 hours per day.
C)If the device is applied immediately after surgery for 1 hour, then on alternate days for 1 hour each time.
D)If the rate of motion is at least 5 cycles per minute, no matter how many hours per day the device is used.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Stretching for Improved Mobility
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Connective tissue fatigue occurs:
A)When the heart rate is maintained at 80% of the age-adjusted maximum during active exercise.
B)When there is a buildup of metabolites in connective tissue as the result of active stretching procedures.
C)When a muscle is not allowed adequate time to recover from exhaustion after exercise.
D)When a submaximal stress load is applied repeatedly and causes tissue failure as in a stress fracture or overuse syndrome.
Q2) Each of the following is a contraindication to stretching adaptively shortened tissues except:
A)Sharp, acute pain during ROM.
B)When ROM is limited because scar tissue has reduced soft tissue extensibility. C)A bony block.
D)When tight (shortened) soft tissues provide functional stability of a body segment affected by paralysis.
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Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient had a cast removed last week following a distal tibiofibular fracture.He now has limited motion of the ankle and foot.Which of the following joint-mobilization techniques would you use to increase ankle dorsiflexion?
A)Dorsal glide of calcaneus on talus
B)Plantar glide of navicular on talus
C)Anterior glide of talus on tibia
D)Posterior glide of talus on tibia
Q2) Which of the following joint mobilization procedures at the elbow matches the desired goal?
A)Volar glide of the head of the radius on the proximal ulna-increase forearm pronation
B)Dorsal glide of the head of the radius on the proximal ulna-increase forearm supination
C)Dorsal glide of the head of the radius on the humerus-increase elbow extension
D)Volar glide of the head of the radius on the humerus-increase elbow extension
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7
Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a true statement about isokinetic exercise except:
A)Current technology provides resistance only to concentric muscle contractions.
B)It accommodates for a painful arc.
C)It provides maximal resistance throughout the available ROM.
D)It accommodates for muscle fatigue.
Q2) You have a patient assume a prone-lying position and prop symmetrically on his forearms.You apply manual resistance in several directions at the shoulder girdles as you ask the patient to hold (maintain) the symmetrical position.This technique is known as:
A)Agonist-contraction.
B)Rhythmic stabilization.
C)Recurrent facilitation.
D)Repeated contractions.
Q3) If the strength of a muscle is "good" (grade 4/5) and active ROM cannot be done, repetitive muscle setting exercises will accomplish each of the following except:
A)Maintain mobility between muscle fibers.
B)Develop or maintain an awareness of the sensation of a muscle contraction.
C)Increase the strength in the muscle.
D)Enhance circulation within the muscle.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has poor upper quarter posture, and you are training the scapular depressors in order to improve thoracic and scapular position for postural control.Against low resistance, the scapular depressors are muscle setting for 60 seconds.What muscle fibers primarily are recruited during this activity?
A)Type I
B)Type IB
C)Type IIA
D)Type IIB
Q2) A carefully planned exercise program includes three components: the warm-up, aerobic period, and the cool-down.Which of the following is a true statement about an exercise program that is carefully planned?
A)It can slow the decrease in functional capacity of the elderly individual.
B)The cool-down period is intended to encourage rapid return of blood to the extremities.
C)A program of continuous training is the most effective way to improve aerobic conditioning.
D)Venous return is reduced during the warm-up period as blood flow is shifted centrally from the periphery.
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Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an examination of a patient who has a history of episodic falls, you observe the patient performing functional tasks to determine how she loses her balance.You note that the patient becomes unsteady whenever she picks up objects from the floor or reaches for objects in a kitchen cupboard.These findings most likely indicate a control deficit in:
A)Anticipatory balance.
B)Reactive balance.
C)Static balance.
D)Sensory organization.
Q2) To maintain balance in condition 3 (standing on a firm surface wearing a dome) of the Clinical Test of Sensory Integration on Balance Test, a person must rely solely on:
A)Somatosensory and vestibular information.
B)Vestibular information.
C)Visual and somatosensory information.
D)Visual and vestibular information.
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Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the temperature range of water (26°C-35°C) recommended for aquatic exercise?
A)Patients should perform cardiovascular exercise at the low end of this range.
B)Patients with multiple sclerosis should exercise in temperatures at the high end of this range.
C)Patients should perform intense aerobic exercise at the high end of this range.
D)If a patient has an acute, painful injury, perform exercise at the low end of this range.
Q2) Increasing the amount of resistance to limb movement in water can be achieved by:
A)Increasing agitation, moving the limb closer to the surface of the water, moving the limb quickly.
B)Moving the limb further from the surface of the water, moving the limb quickly, and using a device to increase the effective limb volume.
C)Decreasing water temperature, moving the limb further from the surface of the water, slowing limb movement.
D)Moving the limb quickly, increasing water temperature, agitating the water.
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11
Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury, Repair, and Management
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following stages of soft tissue healing is characterized by remodeling and maturation of collagen in the scar?
A)Chronic stage
B)Early subacute stage
C)Late subacute stage
D)Acute stage
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to the degeneration of a tendon due to repetitive microtrauma?
A)Tendinitis
B)Tenosynovitis
C)Tenovaginitis
D)Tendinosis
Q3) Your patient reports having had a sudden onset of severe pain in the left posterior thigh yesterday while sprinting.Today he is unable to fully extend his left knee while walking because of pain.Which of the following interventions is most appropriate today?
A)Passive knee flexion/extension with the hip flexed to 90°
B)Passive knee flexion/extension with the hip positioned in 0° extension
C)Active knee flexion but no passive or active extension
D)Submaximal resisted knee flexion in the prone-lying position
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Joint, Connective Tissue, and Bone Disorders and Management
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 43-year-old patient with a diagnosis of FM has been referred to you for an exercise program.As you take her history, she tells you that she rarely exercises.Which of the following types of exercise has been shown to be most appropriate at the beginning of an exercise program for patients with FM?
A)Circuit weight training at 60% to 70% of the maximum repetition for each exercise at five or six stations
B)Stretching program of trunk and large muscles of the extremities
C)Aerobic exercise started at a low intensity that is adjusted based on the individual's response
D)Relaxation and meditation exercises
Q2) Each of the following signs or symptoms is a characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis except:
A)Inflammatory synovitis.
B)Recurring periods of active disease (flare) followed by remission.
C)Usually asymmetrical joint involvement.
D)Fatigue, general malaise, and possibly fever.
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Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following surgical procedures typically is performed arthroscopically?
A)Minimally invasive joint replacement procedures
B)Reduction and internal fixation of a displaced fracture
C)Removal of a portion of a meniscus at the knee
D)Arthrodesis of the wrist
Q2) What is the term used to describe a postoperative rehabilitation program in which a patient is progressed from one phase of rehabilitation to the next based on the attainment of predetermined levels of performance?
A)Norm-based rehabilitation
B)Time-based rehabilitation
C)Phase-specific rehabilitation
D)Criterion-based rehabilitation
Q3) Active ROM is not possible at a joint that has undergone:
A)Arthrodesis.
B)Arthroplasty.
C)Synovectomy.
D)Osteotomy.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) On examination, your patient reports that he is an avid cyclist and over the past 2 months has been experiencing numbness of the little finger and the ulnar side of his ring finger that has become painful over the past week with an inability to effectively grasp the handlebars.One area of possible nerve compression producing these signs and symptoms is:
A)Carpal tunnel.
B)Tunnel of Guyon.
C)Thoracic outlet.
D)Tarsal tunnel.
Q2) The chronic phase of recovery following nerve injury occurs when:
A)The patient has significant residual effects from lack of regeneration and must learn to compensate for lost function.
B)The nerve is regenerating, and strength and sensory recovery are emphasized in the rehabilitation program.
C)Innervation is complete and emphasis is placed on retraining and re-education.
D)The surrounding connective tissue can withstand normal tensile stresses, and the patient can return to all functional activities.
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15
Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, Function, and Posture
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sustained faulty posture that stresses the ligamentous or joint structures usually results in:
A)Diffuse pain that is relieved when the mechanical stress is stopped.
B)Diffuse pain that is relieved with pain medication, modalities, and massage
C)Sharp pain that cannot be relieved until the tissue heals.
D)Sharp pain that changes in intensity as the posture changes.
Q2) To teach a patient how to manage painful symptoms related to poor posture, which of the following is most important?
A)Awareness of the relationship between the faulty posture and pain
B)Stretching program
C)Strengthening program
D)High-repetition, low-resistance exercise program
Q3) Postural stability of the spine is provided by:
A)Elasticity of passive restraints.
B)Interaction of passive restraints and muscle control.
C)Interaction of muscle control modulated by the central nervous system and passive restraints.
D)Muscle activity maintaining balance in the neutral zone.
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16
Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) One day following onset of pain and muscle guarding in the low back region, your patient stands with lumbar flexion and a sciatic scoliosis.Repeated flexion tests increase pain into the buttock.Repeated extension done after side gliding increases the pain in the midback and decreases the pain in the buttock.You begin treatment by:
A)Positioning the patient supine and having him bring both knees to his chest.
B)Placing the patient in intermittent traction at less than half his body weight for 20 minutes.
C)Having the patient lie prone and attempting passive extension with press-ups or prone propping maneuvers after side gliding the thorax.
D)Placing the patient on complete bed rest for at least 4 days, applying modalities and massage during that time.
Q2) Extreme caution should be used when manipulating the spine of patients with rheumatoid arthritis.There is high potential for subluxation of the vertebrae and damage to the spinal cord secondary to:
A)Ligamentous necrosis.
B)Joint effusion.
C)Synovial hypertrophy.
D)Pain.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is in the chronic phase of healing with decreased ROM of C4-5 resulting in activity restrictions related to flexion and rotation of her head.You perform a spinal manipulation technique consisting of small amplitude oscillations for 1-2 minutes that go through the restrictive joint barrier with a goal to improve her joint ROM.What grade of manipulation will you document?
A)Grade II
B)Grade III
C)Grade IV
D)Grade V
Q2) The decision to utilize dynamic exercises in the later stages of a spinal rehabilitation program should be based on:
A)Strength of the muscles demonstrating antigravity function.
B)Patient demonstrating effective deep segmental and global stabilization techniques.
C)Patient demonstrating 20 minutes of cardiopulmonary endurance activities without exacerbating symptoms.
D)Patient's ability to maintain an isometric contraction of the trunk musculature for 3 minutes.
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18
Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following functional activities should a patient avoid for the longest period of time after rTSA?
A)Reaching overhead
B)Hugging with both arms
C)Reaching into abduction in the plane of the scapula at a drive-through window
D)Fastening a bra behind the back
Q2) Your patient exhibits a forward head posture and excessive thoracic kyphosis.Considering the muscles that typically are weak with this faulty posture, which of the following muscles of the shoulder girdle are most important to strengthen?
A)Pectoralis minor and levator scapulae
B)Serratus anterior and levator scapulae
C)Upper and lower trapezius and serratus anterior
D)Upper and lower trapezius and pectoralis minor
Q3) For effective shoulder function, each of the following is necessary except:
A)Appropriate movement and stability of the scapula.
B)Greater mobility in the external rotators than the internal rotators.
C)A balance in strength of the external and internal rotators.
D)Thoracic extension and axial extension of the cervical spine.
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19
Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tennis elbow may involve all of the following structures except the:
A)Extensor carpi radialis brevis.
B)Extensor communis.
C)Pronator teres.
D)Annular ligament.
Q2) Using a handheld weight as the source of resistance, which of the following positions to strengthen the elbow extensors begins with the long head of the triceps brachii fully lengthened?
A)Have the patient assume a prone-lying position with the shoulder in 90° abduction, the upper arm supported on the table, and the elbow flexed to 90°.
B)Have the patient assume the supine position with the shoulder flexed to 90° and the elbow flexed so the handheld weight touches the opposite shoulder.
C)With the patient standing or sitting in a chair, begin with the elbow fully flexed and the arm elevated overhead and stabilized to maintain the shoulder in as much flexion as possible.
D)While the patient is in a standing position and the hips are flexed to 90°, begin with the shoulder in hyperextension.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is correct about PIP arthroplasty, associated soft tissue reconstruction, and postoperative management except:
A)Because correction of a boutonnière deformity during PIP arthroplasty involves a central slip-splitting approach, it is important to postpone resisted PIP extension exercises for at least 6 to 8 weeks.
B)When initiating ROM of the PIP joint after PIP arthroplasty, stabilize the MP and DIP joints in neutral.
C)For functional grasp after PIP arthroplasty, more flexion of the PIP joints of the index and middle fingers is necessary than flexion of the ring and little fingers.
D)After PIP arthroplasty that included correction of a swan-neck deformity, emphasize PIP flexion and DIP extension more so than PIP extension and DIP flexion.
Q2) Prerequisites for successful PIP arthroplasty include all of the following except:
A)Adequate bone stock.
B)No history of chronic synovitis.
C)Intact neurovascular system.
D)Functioning flexor/extensor mechanism.
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21
Chapter 20: The Hip
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following principles is important when designing a therapeutic exercise program to correct hip muscle length/strength imbalances except:
A)When stretching the hip musculature, the spine and pelvis must be stabilized against the force.
B)Contraction of the muscle opposite the range-limiting muscle (i.e., contracting the antagonist of the tight muscle) to assist with the stretching maneuver has the benefit of training the antagonist muscle to function in any newly gained range.
C)Because of the functional demands placed on the lower extremities, it is more important to have full hip ROM than to have "normal" strength of hip musculature.
D)Strengthening exercises should include closed-chain exercises to prepare for functional activities in weight-bearing postures.
Q2) The term hybrid total hip arthroplasty refers to a(n):
A)Hip replacement with a cemented femoral component and a noncemented acetabular component.
B)Total hip replacement that is all metal.
C)Alternate term for bipolar hemiarthroplasty of the hip.
D)Alternate term for minimally invasive arthroplasty.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Knee
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although interventions used to manage patellofemoral pain syndrome are based on an examination of each patient on an individual basis, each of the following interventions is commonly employed except:
A)Strengthening the knee and hip extensors in weight-bearing and non-weight-bearing positions.
B)Lateral gliding of the patella.
C)Stretching the tensor fasciae latae (TFL) and iliotibial (IT) band.
D)Using an insert (orthotic device) in a patient's shoe to correct excessive foot pronation.
Q2) During the initial assessment of a patient who complains of a recent onset of "knee pain" when descending stairs and a sense of "giving way" both on the stairs and when walking, you ask several questions about recent knee injuries.Which of the following injuries would lead you to believe the patient might have injured his ACL?
A)A forward fall onto his knee directly striking his patella
B)A blow to the inside of his knee when his dog was jumping up to greet him
C)A twisting injury when he slipped off the curb and his knee buckled inward
D)A running injury resulting in pain along the inferior border of the patella and the tibial tubercle
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Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has a diagnosis of RA and is developing a capsular pattern in the foot and ankle.Which joint-mobilization technique could perpetuate or worsen the impairment/deformity typically associated with RA of the foot and ankle?
A)Stabilize the mortise and glide the talus in an anterior direction
B)Stabilize the calcaneus and glide the cuboid in a plantar direction
C)Stabilize the talus and glide the navicular in a dorsal direction
D)Stabilize the talus and glide the calcaneus in a lateral direction
Q2) Following a severe, third-degree (grade 3) inversion sprain, your patient complains of pain just distal and lateral to the knee joint.The pain is likely the result of:
A)Subluxation of the proximal tibiofibular joint.
B)Tear of the lateral collateral ligament.
C)Tear of the lateral head of the gastrocnemius.
D)Referred pain from gait deviations due to sore ankle joints and ligaments.
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Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the "amortization phase" of plyometric exercises?
A)The contracting muscle reverses action from deceleration to acceleration of the load.
B)The contracting muscle reverses action from acceleration to deceleration of the load.
C)The time frame of this phase is increased as the plyometric activity is progressed.
D)The stretch reflex is activated during this phase.
Q2) An exercise program that is designed to train the neuromuscular system to react quickly for activities, sports, or occupations that require quick starts and stops consists of exercises in which of the following categories?
A)Open-chain kinetic
B)Isokinetic
C)Plyometric
D)Stretch-lengthening drills
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25
Chapter 24: Exercise in the Older Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aging that occurs as a natural developmental process as a result of the passage of time is defined as:
A)Primary aging.
B)Hypokinesis.
C)Sarcopenia.
D)Secondary aging.
Q2) Which of the following accurately represents appropriate guidelines for developing a safe and effective progressive resistance training program for your patient who is age 85?
A)High-intensity progressive resistance exercise is contraindicated in patients older than age 80.
B)Each session should include warm-up, stretching, functional or sport-specific exercises, and cool-down.
C)Strength cannot be gained in patients with low muscle mass, and resistance training will be detrimental.
D)Resistance exercises beyond the seventh decade should only be performed as part of an aquatic program to reduce the stress on joints and soft tissue.
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26
Chapter 25: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Sample Questions
Q1) During pregnancy, in which direction does the center of gravity of the body move?
A)Superior and posterior
B)Superior and anterior
C)Inferior and posterior
D)Inferior and anterior
Q2) Each of the following contributes to the potential for pelvic floor muscle dysfunction following pregnancy except:
A)Planned cesarean delivery.
B)Injury to the pudendal nerve.
C)Tear/surgical laceration of the perineal body.
D)Stretch to the pelvic floor during late stage of pregnancy.
Q3) Varicose veins are aggravated during pregnancy due to all of the following except:
A)Increased venous distensibility.
B)Shift in the center of gravity superiorly and anteriorly.
C)Increased uterine weight.
D)Venous stasis in the legs.
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Chapter 26: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true about lymphedema except:
A)Pitting edema is classified as more severe than brawny edema.
B)Lymphedema typically is seen with disorders of the venous or lymphatic systems but not with peripheral arterial vascular disease.
C)Lymphedema typically is most apparent peripherally (e.g., over the dorsum of the foot) but can also manifest centrally (e.g., in the groin area).
D)Secondary lymphedema as the result of trauma, surgery, or a tumor is far more common than primary lymphedema.
Q2) There are many interventions used to manage the signs and symptoms of lymphedema.Of the following, which is considered to be the least effective based on current evidence?
A)Liposuction
B)Manual lymphatic drainage
C)Pneumatic compression pump
D)Exercise
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