Musculoskeletal Physical Therapy Test Bank
Course Introduction
Musculoskeletal Physical Therapy is a specialized branch of physical therapy focusing on the assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of disorders affecting the muscles, bones, joints, and related soft tissues. This course provides students with the theoretical knowledge and practical skills necessary for evaluating and managing a wide range of musculoskeletal conditions, including acute injuries, chronic pain, post-surgical rehabilitation, and degenerative diseases. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based clinical reasoning, manual therapy techniques, therapeutic exercise prescription, and patient-centered care to optimize function and improve quality of life. Through interactive lectures, hands-on laboratory sessions, and case-based learning, students develop a comprehensive understanding of the biomechanical and physiological principles underlying musculoskeletal dysfunction and rehabilitation.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 6th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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25 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3856 Page 2
Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/76899
Sample Questions
Q1) Ms.C is an 18-year-old who is 3 days post-ACL reconstruction.She must wear a knee immobilizer during ambulation with axillary crutches and must remain partial weight bearing on the involved side.She has limited passive and active motion of the operated knee.According to the ICF model of functioning and disability,her limited knee ROM is classified as a:
A) Secondary impairment of body structure.
B) Primary impairment of body function.
C) secondary impairment of body structure.
D) Secondary impairment of body function.
Answer: B
Q2) In which of the following stages of motor learning does augmented/extrinsic feedback have the most positive impact on acquisition of a motor skill?
A) Cognitive stage
B) Associative stage
C) Autonomous stage
D) External feedback is equally effective in any stage of motor learning.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Prevention, health, and Wellness
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of performing pre-participation screenings and risk assessments when developing health,wellness,and fitness programs includes all of the following except:
A) To provide the therapist with baseline information for monitoring the individuals' response to program progression
B) To determine the motivational readiness of the individual to make lifestyle changes
C) To assist the therapist in developing an appropriate level of exercise for the individuals
D) To identify if an individual should be referred to a physician prior to participation in the program
Answer: B
Q2) All of the following risk factors are common to both coronary artery disease (CAD)and osteoporosis except:
A) Prolonged use of corticosteroids
B) Smoking
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Family history
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-feeding requires functional ROM of any of the following motions except:
A) Shoulder flexion.
B) Shoulder abduction.
C) Elbow flexion.
D) Forearm pronation.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following positions offers the greatest protection of control of the upper extremity when performing self-assisted shoulder flexion AAROM using a dowel rod?
A) Side-lying
B) Supine
C) Sitting
D) Standing
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is not a benefit of using CPM?
A) Increased synovial fluid lubrication of the joint
B) Prevents development of adhesions
C) Long-term functional gains
D) Enhancing incisional healing
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Stretching for Impaired Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who has been on extended bed rest has a hip contracture that places the hip in a position of external rotation.You note in your documentation that your patient has a:
A) Hip flexion contracture.
B) Hip adduction contracture.
C) Hip internal rotation contracture.
D) Hip external rotation contracture.
Q2) The type of stretching technique that utilizes a high-speed,high-intensity,and short-duration stretch force is called a:
A) Ballistic stretch.
B) Static stretch.
C) Cyclic stretch.
D) Mechanical stretch.
Q3) Your patient develops a contracture as the result of hypertonicity after a traumatic brain injury.This type of hip contracture is called a(n):
A) Arthrogenic contracture.
B) Pseudomyostatic contracture.
C) Fibrotic contracture.
D) Myostatic contracture.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an indication for joint mobilization?
A) Pain
B) Joint effusion
C) Muscle contracture
D) Joint hypermobility
Q2) Each of the following is true about joint mobilization/manipulation techniques except:
A) Techniques can be applied using gliding or oscillation techniques that involve low or high amplitudes and velocities.
B) Techniques involve the application of accessory joint movements but not physiological movements.
C) They are appropriate to use if a joint is painful or inflamed to decrease or inhibit the perception of pain.
D) Techniques can be applied to restore or maintain joint play.
Q3) Which of the following joint-mobilization procedures matches the desired goal?
A) Posterior glide of the tibia on femur-increase knee extension
B) Lateral glide of the calcaneus on talus-increase subtalar inversion
C) Dorsal glide of the navicular on talus-increase foot supination
D) Caudal glide patella-increase knee extension
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the research evidence regarding the effective treatment of delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)once it occurs?
A) Modalities consisting of ES and cold are the only treatments that are consistently effective at reducing muscle soreness experienced with DOMS.
B) Postexercise massage reduces both the signs and symptoms of DOMS in the elite athlete but not in the casual athlete.
C) Use of compression sleeves on the affected muscles improves the strength deficits that occur as a result of DOMS.
D) Continuation of the training program that has induced DOMS does not worsen the muscle damage or slow the process of recovery.
Q2) Which of the following best defines muscle strength?
A) Ability of muscle to contract repeatedly against a load
B) Work produced by a muscle per unit of time
C) Produce or control forces imposed during functional activities
D) Force generated during a single maximum effort
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8
Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding aerobic exercise training (aerobic conditioning)?
A) Dependent on sufficient intensity,time,and frequency of exercise
B) Measured by muscular endurance
C) Produces significant crossover effects for various physical activities
D) Requires 6 weeks for evidence of improvement
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about an exercise program that is carefully planned?
A) It can slow the decrease in functional capacity of the elderly individual.
B) The cooldown period is intended to encourage rapid return of blood to the extremities.
C) A program of continuous training is the most effective way to improve aerobic conditioning.
D) Venous return is reduced during the warm-up period as blood flow is shifted centrally from the periphery.
Q3) Fitness level is based on which of the following?
A) Ability of a muscle to work repeatedly
B) Distance that body weight is moved in 1 minute
C) Energy expenditure during a bout of physical work
D) Number of large muscles used during exercise
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To maintain balance in condition 3 (standing on a firm surface wearing a dome)of the Clinical Test of Sensory Integration on Balance,a person must rely solely on:
A) Somatosensory and vestibular information.
B) Vestibular information.
C) Visual and somatosensory information.
D) Visual and vestibular information.
Q2) During an examination of a patient who has a history of episodic falls,you observe the patient performing functional tasks to determine how she loses her balance.You note that the patient becomes unsteady whenever she picks up objects from the floor or reaches for objects in a kitchen cupboard.These findings most likely indicate a control deficit in:
A) Anticipatory balance.
B) Reactive balance.
C) Static balance.
D) Sensory organization.
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10
Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the temperature range of water (26S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0-33S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C)recommended for aquatic exercise?
A) Perform cardiovascular exercise at the low end of this range.
B) Patients with multiple sclerosis should exercise in temperatures at the high end of this range.
C) Perform intense aerobic exercise at the high end of this range.
D) If a patient has an acute,painful injury,perform exercise at the low end of this range.
Q2) The difficulty of exercises can be controlled with the depth of immersion and the body's physiological response to hydrostatic pressure.According to Barbosa and colleagues,which of the following best describes a proper progression of a patient's exercise program in order to increase physiological demands?
A) Land exercises to aquatic chest depth to hip depth
B) Aquatic hip depth to neck depth to land exercises
C) Alternate land exercises with aquatic chest depth exercises
D) Aquatic chest depth to hip depth to land exercises
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Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury,repair,and Management
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient reports having had a sudden onset of severe pain in the left posterior thigh yesterday while sprinting.Today he is unable to fully extend his left knee while walking because of pain.Which of the following interventions are most appropriate today?
A) Passive knee flexion/extension with the hip flexed to 90°
B) Passive knee flexion/extension with the hip positioned in 0°<sup> </sup>extension
C) Active knee flexion but no passive or active extension
D) Submaximal resisted knee flexion in the prone-lying position
Q2) Progressing resistance and stretching exercises vigorously during the early subacute stage of soft tissue healing:
A) Decreases recovery time.
B) Prolongs the inflammation and adhesion formation.
C) Increases the strength of the healing tissues.
D) Helps scar tissue resolve more quickly.
Q3) Overuse syndromes occur:
A) As the result of repetitive,submaximal stress of a muscle or tendon.
B) As the result of a severe blow to a muscle.
C) As a result of prolonged immobilization.
D) Only if there is impaired circulation to soft tissue.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Joint,connective Tissue,and Bone Disorders and Management
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has osteoarthritis of the left hip and states he experiences hip and thigh pain after walking for more than 20 to 30 minutes.As a therapist,which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for you to recommend?
A) A period of complete rest or immobility
B) Application of heat and massage after periods of walking
C) Measures to decrease the mechanical stresses on the hip joint,such as use of a cane when walking over an extended period of time
D) Use of anti-inflammatory medication
Q2) At what point in the healing process after reduction of a fracture is immobilization usually discontinued and exercise permissible so long as stress is not placed across the fracture site?
A) When callus formation begins to develop
B) At the stage of radiographic union
C) When delayed union has been achieved
D) At the stage of clinical union
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13
Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about the use of autografts and allografts for repair of tissue lesions?
A) An autograft can be used to repair soft tissues,such as a torn ligament,but cannot be used for repair of articular cartilage lesions.
B) A risk associated with an autograft is potential weakening of a patient's otherwise healthy tissue at the donor site.
C) There is a greater risk of disease transmission with use of an autograft than an allograft.
D) There is a greater risk of graft failure with use of an autograft than an allograft.
Q2) Which of the following postoperative complications is least likely to be prevented by adherence to a carefully progressed postoperative exercise program?
A) Formation of adhesions
B) Local infection at the wound site
C) Subluxation or dislocation of a joint
D) Rupture of repaired soft tissue
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient describes total numbness in the tips of the index and middle fingers that has been there for 2 months.Four months ago,he sustained a Colles' fracture.While immobilized in a cast,he had experienced periods of intermittent numbness and pain.You observe atrophy in the thenar eminence and ape hand deformity.This patient most likely sustained:
A) Mild compression of the median nerve and has excellent prognosis for full recovery.
B) Laceration of the median nerve with complete interruption;there is no chance of neurological recovery.
C) Chronic compression of the median nerve;there is a guarded prognosis;may require surgical intervention.
D) A stretch injury to the median nerve with adhesions preventing normal mobility;gentle nerve mobilization should alleviate the symptoms.
Q2) Nonoperative management of carpal tunnel syndrome emphasizes:
A) Vigorous stretching to gain mobility of the structures in the carpal tunnel.
B) Activity modification and joint,nerve,and tendon mobilization.
C) Strengthening exercises,especially to the muscles of the thenar eminence.
D) Immobilization.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, function, and Posture
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between a lordotic posture and a slouched posture is:
A) Only the lordotic posture has lumbar lordosis.
B) Flexion in the upper lumbar and lower thoracic spine with the slouched posture.
C) Extension of the pelvis on the femurs with the lordotic posture.
D) There is no difference;both affect the pelvis and lumbar spine the same way.
Q2) Your patient describes increased pain in the back in the morning before getting out of bed.The patient should be:
A) Advised to never sleep prone.
B) Evaluated as to the sleeping posture and advised in mechanically safe adaptations.
C) Advised to sleep with a pillow under her knees if she tends to sleep supine.
D) Advised to place a board under a soft mattresses.
Q3) Characteristics of the global muscles in the spine include all of the following except:
A) Provide dynamic stability to each segment in the spine.
B) Prime movers of the spine.
C) Multisegmental guy wires.
D) Control spinal orientation in response to external loads.
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Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are techniques to increase temporomandibular joint motion except:
A) Placing tongue blades between the front teeth and progressively adding more as tolerated.
B) Placing your thumb and index finger against the patient's incisors and pressing the mandible caudally.
C) Placing dental rolls between the patient's molars and asking him to attempt to close the front teeth.
D) For home exercises,having the patient chew gum for at least 10 minutes,three times a day.
Q2) Following recovery of a posterolateral disk protrusion,your patient will be returning to a job that requires prolonged forward bending and stooping.Your instructions to the patient must include:
A) Interruption of the flexed postures at frequent intervals by standing upright and bending backward.
B) Advice to quit that job.
C) No advice-forward bending helps maintain mobility in the spine.
D) Preparing for the forward bending by posterior tilting of the pelvis before bending and stooping
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17
Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is recovering from a low back injury that occurred when picking up her 15-lb infant 4 weeks ago.The symptoms are no longer acute.She has learned the basic drawing-in maneuver and neutral spine position and can maintain her neutral spine while rolling,transitioning from supine to sit and sit to stand.Now you plan to progress her exercises in order to improve her ability to return to managing household responsibilities.How should you progress the exercises to improve the stabilizing function in the abdominals?
A) Wall slides,beginning with 10 repetitions;progress to 25,then begin squats
B) Maintain neutral spine while walking for 10 minutes two times a day;progress to 5 times a day
C) Curl-ups on a mat;progress to doing curl-ups on an unstable surface such as a gym ball
D) Supine;maintain neutral spine while alternating arms,then add alternating legs;increase repetitions until she can hold the position for 3 minutes;progress difficulty by increasing the lever arm or adding weights to arms and legs
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Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following functional activities should a patient avoid for the longest period of time after rTSA?
A) Reaching overhead
B) Hugging with both arms
C) Reaching into abduction in the plane of the scapula at a drive-through window
D) Fastening a bra behind the back
Q2) Which of the following is true about postoperative precautions and the rate of progression of rehabilitation after surgery for glenohumeral instability?
A) Progress upper extremity weight-bearing exercises more slowly/cautiously after surgery for posterior instability than for anterior instability.
B) Progress exercises more slowly/cautiously if the origin of the instability was traumatic versus atraumatic.
C) Progress exercises more slowly/cautiously after an arthroscopic capsular shift involving imbrication and suturing the capsule than after an arthroscopic thermally assisted capsular shift.
D) Progress ROM into internal rotation more slowly/cautiously after surgery for anterior instability than for posterior instability.
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Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a precaution that should be taken after total elbow arthroplasty involving a triceps-reflecting or triceps-splitting approach except:
A) Limit assisted elbow flexion to about 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 to 100S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 for the first 3 to 4 weeks postoperatively.
B) For about the first 3 to 4 weeks,perform active elbow flexion/extension only while lying in the supine position.
C) Postpone elbow extension against manual resistance or light weights for 6 weeks or longer.
D) Avoid pushing motions with the operated upper extremity during functional activities,such as pushing up from a chair,for at least 6 weeks.
Q2) Current research shows that the "survival rate" for total elbow arthroplasty (TEA)is:
A) 30% over a 10-year period.
B) Greater for patients with RA than for those with traumatic arthritis or OA.
C) Highly correlated with the type of implant (prosthesis).
D) 82% over a 5.5-year period.
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Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Place-and-hold" exercises are:
A) A form of dynamic exercises in which the patient actively moves through a series of hand positions to prevent tendon adhesions.
B) Gentle muscle-setting (isometric/static)exercises used during the early phase of rehabilitation after,for example,a tendon repair,whereby an involved finger is placed passively in a particular position (by the therapist or by the patient using the sound hand);the patient then is asked to try actively to hold the position without assistance.
C) A form of isometric exercise in which the therapist places a finger in a particular position and then asks the patient to hold the position as manual resistance is applied to the contracting muscle.
D) A form of stretching exercise in which a patient is asked to perform an isometric contraction of a muscle-tendon unit against low-intensity resistance followed by relaxation and elongation of that muscle.
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Chapter 20: The Hip
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16 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recent advances in arthroscopy of the hip now allow all of the following procedures to be performed using this less invasive technique except for:
A) Microfracture to stimulate fibrocartilage growth.
B) Acetabular labral repair.
C) Resurfacing arthroplasty.
D) Capsulorrhaphy for capsular laxity.
Q2) Which of the following exercises,designed to self-stretch the hamstrings,is the safest and utilizes the most effective stabilization?
A) Patient stands,bends forward,keeping both knees straight,and attempts to touch the nose to the thighs
B) Patient stands on one leg,places the other leg on a table,bends forward with the back straight,and reaches toward the foot of the elevated leg
C) Patient sits on the floor in a hurdler's position,keeps the back straight and reaches toward the foot of the straight leg
D) Patient sits on the floor in a long-sitting position with the knees straight and does a bilateral toe touch
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22
Chapter 21: The Knee
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the initial assessment of a patient who complains of a recent onset of "knee pain" when descending stairs and a sense of "giving way" both on the stairs and when walking,you ask several questions about recent knee injuries.Which of the following injuries would lead you to believe the patient might have injured his ACL?
A) A forward fall onto his knee directly striking his patella
B) A blow to the inside of his knee when his dog was jumping up to greet him
C) A twisting injury when he slipped off the curb and his knee buckled inward
D) A running injury resulting in pain along the inferior border of the patella and the tibial tubercle
Q2) During closed-chain strengthening of the quadriceps,the range of knee motion (ROM)in which the greatest amount of patellofemoral compression occurs is:
A) At all portions of the ROM (i.e. ,compressive forces are equal throughout the ROM).
B) Between 30S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 of knee flexion to full extension.
C) Between 60S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 of knee flexion to 30S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 of knee flexion.
D) Between 60S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 of knee flexion to full knee flexion.
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Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient sustained a fracture of the right calcaneus as the result of a motor vehicle accident 3 months ago.After 10 weeks in a cast followed by a rocker bottom immobilization boot that prevented ankle and foot motion,the fracture shows radiological evidence of bony union.The patient has been ambulating (weight bearing as tolerated)while wearing the boot and is now supposed to discontinue wearing it slowly.Your examination reveals marked limitation of dorsi- and plantarflexion and a high,rigid arch.There is no visible swelling,and pain (2/10)occurs at the end of the day and during passive range of motion (PROM)with overpressure.Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention during the first week of therapy?
A) PROM of the ankle (dorsiflexion/plantarflexion and calcaneal inversion/eversion)
B) Gentle passive stretching of ankle musculature
C) Grade II joint mobilization at the subtalar joint
D) Grade III joint mobilization at the midtarsal joint
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Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phase of a plyometric activity during which the muscle reverses its action from deceleration to acceleration of the load is called the:
A) Stretch phase
B) Amortization phase
C) Concentric Phase
D) Eccentric Phase
Q2) Examples of plyometric activities for the upper extremities could include any of the following except:
A) Seated push-ups.
B) Clap push-ups.
C) Catching and throwing a weighted ball.
D) Dribbling a ball against the wall.
Q3) Which of the following accurately describes a method to progress the challenge of balance exercises?
A) Narrow to wide base of support
B) Standing activities to sitting activities
C) Open environment to closed environment
D) Low-magnitude to high-magnitude perturbations
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25
Chapter 24: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of nerve supply (innervation)of the pelvic floor complex?
A) Damage to the nerve supply of the pelvic floor complex during labor and delivery is one of the main contributors to organ prolapse.
B) There are multiple and varied innervations from inconsistent sacral levels that innervate this area.
C) The pudendal nerve is the sole innervation for the pelvic floor.
D) The nerve supply is at risk with a 4° episiotomy,often resulting in permanent paralysis of the anal sphincter.
Q2) During pregnancy,each of the following changes in the respiratory system occurs except:
A) Increased respiratory rate.
B) Increased O<sub>2</sub> consumption and increased work of breathing.
C) Relatively unchanged or slightly decreased total lung capacity.
D) State of hyperventilation throughout pregnancy.
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Chapter 25: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true about lymphedema except:
A) Pitting edema is classified as more severe than brawny edema.
B) Lymphedema typically is seen with disorders of the venous or lymphatic systems but not with peripheral arterial vascular disease.
C) Lymphedema typically is most apparent peripherally (e.g. ,over the dorsum of the foot)but can also manifest centrally (e.g. ,in the groin area).
D) Secondary lymphedema as the result of trauma,surgery,or a tumor is far more common than primary lymphedema.
Q2) Which of the following factors associated with breast cancer surgery and adjuvant therapy is least likely to contribute to impaired shoulder mobility?
A) Incisional pain
B) Chemotherapy
C) Fibrosis of tissues in the axillary area as the result of radiation therapy
D) Increased thoracic kyphosis related to incisional pain or age
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