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Musculoskeletal Anatomy provides an in-depth exploration of the human body's structural framework, focusing on bones, joints, muscles, tendons, and ligaments. The course covers the identification, function, and interplay of musculoskeletal components, integrating anatomical terminology and movement analysis. Through lectures, laboratory work, and applied activities, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how the musculoskeletal system supports movement, stability, and overall function, laying a crucial foundation for careers in health, rehabilitation, sports science, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Joint Structure and Function 5th Edition by Pamela K. Levangie
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Q1) An eccentric muscle contraction is an example of a second-class lever system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) When the centers of mass (CoM)of two adjacent segments are combined,the combined CoM will be located somewhere along a line connecting the two individual CoMs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following statements describes the relationship between joint reaction forces and the translational/rotatory component forces?
A) The contact force and translation component force run parallel to each other.
B) The contact force and rotatory component force run parallel to each other.
C) The shear force and translation component force run parallel to each other.
Answer: A
Q4) Is naming the plane of motion considered part of kinetics or kinematics? Why?
Answer: Kinematics.It is purely a description of motion without regard to the forces causing it.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning fibroblasts?
A) They synthesize the extracellular matrix of connective tissue.
B) They are not normally present in healthy connective tissue.
C) They are undifferentiated precursor cells.
D) They are circulating cells.
Answer: A
Q2) Define modulus of elasticity,stiffness,brittleness,and ductility.
Answer: The modulus of elasticity is the ratio of stress to strain at any point in the stress-strain curve.A large applied load that results in only a small deformation will have a high modulus of elasticity.The steeper the stress-strain curve,the higher is the modulus of elasticity.Because the material does not readily respond to an applied load,it is considered stiff (therefore,stiffness is equivalent to the modulus of elasticity).A tissue is brittle when the plastic region is very small or absent-that is,the material undergoes very little deformation prior to ultimate failure.A ductile material,in contrast,can undergo considerable deformation prior to failure.
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Q1) Which of the following would result in increased active muscle tension if the task required the muscle to produce greater torque/tension?
A) Increased firing rate of the activated motor units
B) Decreased number of motor units activated
C) Increased amount of perimysium and endomysium
D) Decreased number of cross-bridges formed
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding cross-bridges?
A) A cross-bridge is the basic unit of active muscle tension.
B) A cross-bridge is formed when head groups on the actin myofilament bind with tropomyosin on the myosin filament.
C) Cross-bridges do not occur in lengthening contractions.
D) A release of sodium is necessary to reveal the binding site on the actin.
Answer: A
Q3) What is tenodesis? Give an example.
Answer: Tenodesis,or tendon action,occurs when a passive muscle is pulled upon and passively creates a joint motion.The classical example is when the wrist is flexed,with the relaxed fingers open because of the passive tension created in the stretched finger extensors.
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Q1) Which of the following describes biochemical changes that occur in the intervertebral disc with aging?
A) Increased proteoglycan concentration in the nucleus pulposus
B) Increased water-binding capacity
C) Increased collagen content in nucleus pulposus
D) Increased elastin content in the anulus fibrosis
Q2) What is the difference between the lamina and the pedicle of the vertebrae?
Q3) The orientation of the facet joints in the thoracic spine causes the facets to function best in which of the following functions?
A) Limiting lateral flexion
B) Limiting rotation
C) Limiting extension
D) Limiting lateral translation
Q4) Describe how maintaining the head in normal vertical alignment (head/optical righting)causes the pelvis,spine,and joints of the lower extremities to behave as part of a closed kinematic chain.
Q5) Identify the ligaments that are unique to each of the areas,including the motions each ligament checks.
Q6) Identify and describe the three articulations of the atlantoaxial joint.
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes how chronic obstructive pulmonary disease affects the mechanics of the chest wall?
A) The elastic recoil properties of the chest wall decrease.
B) The resting position of the chest wall remains unchanged.
C) The chest wall becomes concave.
D) There is an increased zone of apposition.
Q2) Describe the ligamentous support system for the costotransverse (CT)joint.
Q3) Which of the following statements correctly describes the articulation of the head of the fifth rib with the thoracic spine?
A) The superior facet of the fifth rib articulates with the vertebral body of its own level (T5); the inferior facet articulates with the vertebral body below (T6).
B) The fifth rib has a single facet and only articulates with the vertebral body of its own level (T5).
C) The superior facet articulates with the vertebral body above (T4); the inferior facet of the fifth rib articulates with the vertebral body of its own level (T5).
D) The fifth rib articulates with the vertebral body and transverse process of the vertebrae of its own level.
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Q1) Retrusion of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)is primarily limited by the:
A) Horizontal portion of the temporomandibular ligament
B) Stylomandibular ligament
C) Anterior portion of the temporomandibular joint capsule
Q2) During normal mandibular lateral deviation to the left,the left condylar head moves in this manner.
A) Gliding posteriorly and superiorly
B) Gliding anteriorly and inferiorly
C) Spinning posteriorly
D) Spinning anteriorly
Q3) Which of the following muscles may become shortened when the posterior suboccipital muscles become tight as a result of a forward head posture?
A) Medial pterygoid
B) Lateral pterygoid
C) Temporalis
D) Posterior belly of the digastic True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
Q4) What is the significance of a "reciprocal click"?
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Q1) The ________________ligament is the primary stabilizer of the sternoclavicular joint.
A) interclavicular
B) coracoclavicular
C) costoclavicular
D) sternoclavicular
Q2) Which of the following best describes motion at the sternoclavicular (SC)joint?
A) During clavicular elevation and depression,the disc of the SC joint moves with the medial end of the clavicle on the manubrial facet.
B) During clavicular protraction and retraction,the disc of the SC joint moves with the medial end of the clavicle on the manubrial facet.
C) During clavicular elevation and depression,the lateral end and medial end of the clavicle move in the same direction.
D) During clavicular protraction and retraction,the lateral end and medial end of the clavicle move in opposite directions.
Q3) How would range and strength of abduction of the upper extremity be affected if there were paralysis of the infraspinatus,teres minor,and subscapularis muscles?
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Q1) Which of the following structures is the primary stabilizer of elbow to valgus stress between 20° and 120° flexion?
A) Quadrate ligament
B) Oblique cord
C) Annular ligament
D) Medial collateral ligament
Q2) The ________________radioulnar joint has a disc that is also known as ____________________.
A) superior,annular ligament
B) superior,triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFC)
C) inferior,annular ligament
D) inferior,triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFC)
Q3) Where would you position the elbow joint to optimize the biomechanical effects of both the brachialis and the biceps brachii?
Q4) In which position is the central band of the interosseous membrane the most taut?
A) Midway between supination and pronation
B) At full supination
C) At full pronation
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding the extensor mechanism of the fingers?
A) Lumbricales and interossei allow active metacarpophalangeal (MCP)joint flexion,and proximal interphalangeal (PIP)and distal interphalangeal (DIP)joint extension.
B) Extensor digitorum extends the PIP and DIP joints,but not the MCP joint.
C) Lumbricales and interossei work to extend the MCP joint against the force of the long finger flexors.
D) Extensor digitorum is the only muscle that can extend the DIP joint.
Q2) The midcarpal joint favors which of the following directions?
A) Flexion and radial deviation
B) Flexion and ulnar deviation
C) Extension and ulnar deviation
D) Extension and radial deviation
Q3) Compare the joint structure of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP)joints with that of the interphalangeal (IP)joints of the fingers.Identify both similarities and differences.
Q4) What metacarpophalangeal (MCP)joint position is most prone to injury and why?
Q5) What requirement does spherical grip have that differentiates it from a cylindrical grip?
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Q1) How can the two-joint hip muscles affect this rhythm?
Q2) Describe the ligaments of the hip joint.How does the capsule of the joint contribute to joint stability?
Q3) ________________is defined as an angle of torsion of the femoral neck-head on the femoral shaft that is greater than 15° to 20°.
A) Retroversion
B) Anteversion
C) Coxa valga
D) Coxa vera
Q4) A person bends forward at the hips to tie his shoes.The acetabulum on the (R)side glides ________________on the head of the femur to allow this to happen.
A) posteriorly and inferiorly
B) anteriorly and inferiorly
C) posteriorly and superiorly
D) anteriorly and superiorly
Q5) What is the close-packed position of the hip joint?
Q6) What is the role of the ligamentum teres at the hip joint?
Q7) What forces maintain A-P equilibrium of the hip joints in bilateral stance?
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Q1) Describe the patellofemoral articulation,including the number and shape of the surfaces.
Q2) Which of the following structural abnormalities will contribute to an increased Q-angle?
A) Femoral retroversion
B) Tibial medial torsion
C) Femoral anteversion
D) Tight adductor muscles
Q3) Which of the following describes the movement of the menisci during closed kinetic chain medial rotation of the tibiofemoral joint?
A) Medial meniscus moves posteriorly; lateral meniscus moves anteriorly.
B) Medial meniscus moves anteriorly; lateral meniscus moves posteriorly.
C) Medial meniscus moves superiorly; lateral meniscus moves posteriorly.
D) Medial meniscus moves anteriorly; lateral meniscus moves superiorly.
Q4) What muscle is primarily responsible for unlocking the tibia when flexing the knee?
A) Sartorius
B) Biceps femoris
C) Popliteus
D) Plantaris
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Q1) During supination at the subtalar joint,the axes of the transverse tarsal (midtarsal)joints become ____________________,resulting in greater ________________of the foot during gait.
A) parallel,mobility
B) convergent,mobility
C) parallel,stability
D) convergent,stability
Q2) What is the metatarsal break? What function does it serve and when does this function occur?
Q3) Your patient demonstrates decreased open chain pronation at the subtalar joint.Which of the following would be limited?
A) Eversion of the calcaneus on the talus
B) Adduction of the calcaneus on the talus
C) Plantarflexion of the calcaneus on the talus
D) Both A and C are correct.
Q4) Describe the superior and inferior tibiofibular joints,including classification and their composite function.
Q5) Describe the three articular surfaces of the subtalar joint,including the capsular arrangement.
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