Movement Science
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Movement Science is a multidisciplinary field that explores the biological, physiological, biomechanical, and psychological principles underlying human movement. This course examines how the body generates and controls movement, the role of the nervous and musculoskeletal systems, and the impact of development, aging, injury, and disease on movement. Students will analyze how various factors influence motor skills, coordination, balance, and performance in physical activities. Practical applications include improving athletic performance, developing rehabilitation strategies, and promoting lifelong physical health and well-being through evidence-based approaches.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 6th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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22 Chapters
359 Verified Questions
359 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Basic Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fibula is on which side of the lower leg?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Proximal
D) Distal
Answer: B
Q2) Sliding your foot under your chair to prepare to stand involves knee
A) flexion.
B) extension.
C) inversion.
D) abduction.
Answer: A
Q3) When a person steps forward to release a bowling ball,what type of motion of the body is occurring?
A) Angular motion
B) Linear motion
C) Kinematic motion
D) Torque motion
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bone marking that consists of a rounded anterior projection is called a A) foramen.
B) crest.
C) head.
D) fossa.
Answer: C
Q2) The membrane that surrounds the bone and contains nerves and blood vessels is the
A) epiphysis.
B) periosteum.
C) medullary canal.
D) metaphysis.
Answer: B
Q3) A bone marking that consists of a sharp ridge or border is called a A) foramen.
B) crest.
C) head.
D) fossa.
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Articular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shoulder abduction occurs in which plane and around which axis?
A) Frontal plane through a sagittal axis
B) Frontal plane through a frontal axis
C) Transverse plane through a vertical axis
D) Sagittal plane through a frontal axis
Answer: A
Q2) Hip medial rotation occurs in which plane and around which axis?
A) Transverse plane through a vertical axis
B) Sagittal plane through a frontal axis
C) Frontal plane through a sagittal axis
D) None of the above
Answer: A
Q3) The hip is an example of which type of joint?
A) Nonaxial
B) Uniaxial
C) Biaxial
D) Triaxial
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Arthrokinematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The close-packed position of the facet joints of the spine is in which of the following spinal positions?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Lateral bend
D) Elevation
Q2) Hip abduction is an example of which type of motion?
A) Arthrokinematic
B) Osteokinematic
C) Angular
D) Torque
Q3) Motions occurring within the joint that are necessary for joint motion but are not under voluntary control are called
A) osteokinematic movement.
B) accessory movement.
C) springy block.
D) manipulation.
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Chapter 5: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of a muscle to respond to a stimulus is referred to as which of the following?
A) Irritability
B) Contractility
C) Extensibility
D) Elasticity
Q2) What is the term for a muscle contraction in which the proximal end moves toward the distal end?
A) Irritability
B) Extensibility
C) Reversal of muscle action
D) Active insufficiency
Q3) The type of muscle contraction that occurs with fixed speed,fixed resistance,and no joint motion is
A) ISOK.
B) ISOM.
C) ISOT.
D) tenodesis.
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Chapter 6: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The innermost layer of the protective membrane that contains the blood vessels to the brain is the
A) dura mater.
B) subarachnoid mater.
C) pia mater.
D) ventricular mater.
Q2) The white fatty substance present in the central nervous system (CNS)and peripheral nervous system (PNS)that serves to increase the speed of impulse conduction is called
A) myelin.
B) the node of Ranvier.
C) a neuron.
D) a tract.
Q3) A common pathology of the CNS characterized by issues with production,absorption,or flow of cerebrospinal fluid is which of the following?
A) Autonomic dysreflexia
B) Spina bifida
C) Hydrocephalus
D) Brown-Séquard's syndrome
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main branch artery that supplies blood to the knee is which of the following?
A) External iliac
B) Femoral
C) Posterior tibial
D) Popliteal
Q2) A type of cerebral hemorrhage that occurs in a vein with symptoms that occur over time is which of the following?
A) Epidural bleed
B) Ischemic bleed
C) Varicose bleed
D) Subdural bleed
Q3) The lymphatic system functions to do all of the following EXCEPT
A) collect extracellular fluid.
B) filter bacteria and waste products.
C) exchange carbon dioxide for oxygen.
D) assist to maintain adequate blood volume and pressure.
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Chapter 8: Basic Biomechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of machine that consists of a grooved wheel that turns on an axle with a rope or cable is a(n)
A) movable pulley.
B) wheel and axle.
C) fixed pulley.
D) inclined plane.
Q2) A muscle that generates most of its force directed back into the joint is producing which type of force?
A) Angular force
B) Stabilizing force
C) Dislocating force
D) Force couple
Q3) You are working with a client to regain function after shoulder surgery.Now you want to focus on exercises to increase power.You would choose which of the following exercises?
A) Concentric strengthening
B) Eccentric strengthening
C) Stretches
D) It doesn't matter; any of the above will help increase power.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who lacks the free motion of upward rotation is limited in which of the following shoulder joint motions?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Abduction
D) A and C
Q2) The bony landmark of the scapula that exists where the vertebral and axillary borders meet is the
A) superior angle.
B) inferior angle.
C) spine.
D) acromion process.
Q3) A client who needs scapular depressor strengthening would need attention to which of the following muscles?
A) Rhomboids and middle trapezius
B) Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor
C) Pectoralis minor and lower trapezius
D) Pectoralis minor and pectoralis major
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11
Chapter 10: Shoulder Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle originates on the anterior surface of the scapula and inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus?
A) Teres major
B) Teres minor
C) Subscapularis
D) Serratus anterior
Q2) The reason you have your client laterally rotate his shoulder when moving between 90 and 180 degrees of shoulder abduction is to prevent what structure from hitting the acromion process?
A) Deltoid tuberosity
B) Lesser tubercle
C) Adductor tubercle
D) Greater tubercle
Q3) Which muscle originates on the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula and inserts on the olecranon process of the ulna?
A) Long head of the triceps brachii
B) Lateral head of the triceps brachii
C) Long head of the biceps brachii
D) Short head of the biceps brachii
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Elbow Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common elbow pathology often caused by repetitive wrist extension activities is which of the following?
A) Medial epicondylitis
B) Lateral epicondylitis
C) Tendonitis of biceps tendon
D) Volkmann's ischemic contracture
Q2) Weakness of the pronator teres muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Musculocutaneous nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Ulnar nerve
D) Radial nerve
Q3) Measured from the position of the forearm in neutral or midposition,which of the following is true regarding normal ROM for pronation and supination?
A) There is more supination than pronation.
B) There is more pronation than supination.
C) There are equal amounts of available pronation and supination.
D) It depends on how much elbow extension the arm is placed in to measure the motion.
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Chapter 12: Wrist Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bony landmark located on the distal medial side of the humerus is the A) supracondylar ridge.
B) lateral condyle.
C) medial condyle.
D) styloid process of the humerus.
Q2) Which muscle originates on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus and inserts at the base of the third metacarpal?
A) Palmaris longus
B) Extensor carpi radialis longus
C) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
D) Extensor carpi ulnaris
Q3) When the extensor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi ulnaris contract simultaneously,which motions are neutralized?
A) Flexion and extension of the wrist
B) Radial and ulnar deviation
C) Wrist circumduction
D) None of the above
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14
Chapter 13: Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bony arch is formed by the heads of the metacarpals?
A) Lumbrical arch
B) Proximal carpal arch
C) Distal carpal arch
D) Longitudinal arch
Q2) Which type of grip is used to hold on to a walker handle?
A) Lumbrical grip
B) Pincer grip
C) Cylindrical grip
D) Spherical grip
Q3) The functional position of the hand includes all of the following joint positions EXCEPT A) some wrist flexion.
B) flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.
C) the thumb in slight opposition.
D) some wrist extension.
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15
Chapter 14: Temporomandibular Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bony landmark of the mandible that forms the posterior projection that articulates with the temporal bone is called the A) angle.
B) styloid process.
C) condyle.
D) ramus.
Q2) The TMJ motion named for opening of the mouth is which of the following?
A) Elevation
B) Depression
C) Lateral deviation
D) Retrusion
Q3) Which muscle originates on the lateral pterygoid plate of the sphenoid and tuberosity of the maxilla and inserts on the ramus and angle of the mandible?
A) Temporalis
B) Masseter
C) Medial pterygoid
D) Lateral pterygoid
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16
Chapter 15: Neck and Trunk
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Sample Questions
Q1) The trunk muscle whose primary function is compression of abdominal contents is the
A) rectus abdominis.
B) internal oblique.
C) external oblique.
D) transverse abdominis.
Q2) The trunk muscle that originates on the pubis and inserts on the costal cartilages of the fifth,sixth,and seventh ribs is the
A) external oblique.
B) internal oblique.
C) transverse abdominis.
D) rectus abdominis.
Q3) The quadratus lumborum is a prime mover in which of the following trunk motions?
A) Trunk flexion
B) Compression of abdominal contents
C) Trunk extension
D) Lateral bending
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Chapter 16: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quiet inspiration requires the use of which of the following?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Gravity
D) Recoil of the diaphragm
Q2) A person with a spinal cord injury above which of the following levels would require ventilator dependency?
A) L1
B) T8
C) C6
D) C3
Q3) During inspiration,air moves into the lungs due to which of the following explanations?
A) The size of the thoracic cavity decreases,and the air pressure inside decreases.
B) The size of the thoracic cavity increases,and the air pressure inside decreases.
C) Gravity allows it to flow from the nose down into the lungs.
D) None of the above explains why this happens.
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Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pelvic force couple that combine to pull the pelvis into an anterior tilt are the
A) hip flexors and trunk flexors.
B) hip flexors and trunk extensors.
C) hip extensors and trunk flexors.
D) hip extensors and trunk extensors.
Q2) An increase in posterior tilt of the pelvis is associated with which of the following motions of the vertebral column?
A) Flexion
B) Hyperextension
C) Lateral bend to the opposite side
D) Rotation to the opposite side
Q3) A person with tight hamstrings will likely adopt which of the following compensatory postures?
A) Posterior tilt of pelvis and flattened lumbar curve
B) Anterior tilt of pelvis and lumbar curve hyperextension
C) Posterior tilt of pelvis and lumbar curve hyperextension
D) Anterior tilt of pelvis and flattened lumbar curve
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19
Chapter 18: Hip Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the hip adductors are innervated by which of the following nerves?
A) Sciatic nerve
B) Deep peroneal nerve
C) Obturator nerve
D) Femoral nerve
Q2) Which muscle originates on the ischium and pubis and inserts on the entire linea aspera and adductor tubercle?
A) Adductor brevis
B) Adductor longus
C) Adductor magnus
D) Vastus lateralis
Q3) A hip joint pathology characterized by lateral knee pain,often due to poor footwear or running on uneven surfaces,is which of the following?
A) Trochanteric bursitis
B) Hip pointer
C) Iliotibial band syndrome
D) Hamstring strain
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Knee Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following Q angle measurements would be considered an abnormal finding?
A) 10 degrees
B) 13 degrees
C) 15 degrees
D) 18 degrees
Q2) Which muscle has its origin at the linea aspera,runs lateral at the thigh,and has its insertion at the tibial tuberosity via the patellar tendon?
A) Vastus medialis
B) Adductor magnus
C) Tensor fascia latae
D) Vastus lateralis
Q3) The bony landmark of the tibia that comprises the proximal medial end is called the A) medial malleolus.
B) medial condyle.
C) medial tubercle.
D) tibial tuberosity.
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21
Chapter 20: Ankle Joint and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle originates on the posterior interosseus membrane and inserts on the navicular and most tarsals and metatarsals?
A) Anterior tibialis
B) Flexor digitorum longus
C) Posterior tibialis
D) Peroneus longus
Q2) Leaning into the wall with the left foot behind and the left knee bent is isolating a stretch to which muscle of the lower leg?
A) Soleus
B) Gastrocnemius
C) Plantaris
D) Popliteus
Q3) The majority of the intrinsic muscles of the foot are innervated by which of the following nerves?
A) Medial and lateral plantar nerves
B) Superficial peroneal nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Deep peroneal nerve
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22
Chapter 21: Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with excessive lumbar lordosis could need stretching instruction for which group of muscles?
A) Hip flexors
B) Hip extensors
C) Trunk extensors
D) A and C
Q2) In observing standing posture,you note a flattened longitudinal arch of the foot.You would document this as which of the following?
A) Pes planus
B) Pes cavus
C) Claw toe
D) Hammer toe
Q3) Pressure on the vertebral discs is greatest in which of the following positions?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Seated
D) Standing upright
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Chapter 22: Gait
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you are describing a gait abnormality that occurs when the heel leaves the ground but the ball of the foot and toes remain in contact with the ground,you are speaking of which portion of the stance phase?
A) Initial contact
B) Midstance
C) Terminal stance
D) Terminal swing
Q2) Vertical displacement of the center of gravity is at its lowest at which point in the gait cycle?
A) Midstance
B) Midswing
C) Initial contact
D) Preswing
Q3) The term used to describe walking speed is
A) cadence.
B) stride length.
C) gait cycle.
D) period of nonsupport.
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