Movement Science Exam
Bank
Course Introduction
Movement Science is the interdisciplinary study of human motion, integrating principles from biomechanics, physiology, neuroscience, and psychology to understand how and why people move. This course explores the mechanical, anatomical, and neural foundations of movement, examining topics such as muscle physiology, motor control and learning, movement analysis, injury prevention, and performance enhancement. Through both theoretical and practical approaches, students gain an in-depth understanding of bodily movement and its implications for health, rehabilitation, and athletic performance.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 7th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
26 Chapters
512 Verified Questions
512 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2395
Page 2
Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47566
Sample Questions
Q1) Patient satisfaction is an important area for outcome assessment in physical therapy when following the patient management model described in the Guide to Physical Therapist Practice.There are several determinants of patient satisfaction that, if included in the gathering and analysis of data, may help clinics to improve the quality of care being provided.Each of these has been shown in the literature to be determinant of patient satisfaction except:
A)Professionalism, empathy, and helpfulness of the therapist.
B)Patient participation in goal setting in the plan of care.
C)The chronicity of the patient's condition (higher satisfaction with patients having chronic conditions).
D)Convenience of access and flexibility for scheduling appointments.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following components of the ICF model is defined by the individual's life-style, education, and social and environmental backgrounds?
A)Risk factors for health conditions
B)Impairments in body function
C)Participation restrictions
D)Contextual factors
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: Prevention, Health, and Wellness
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47567
Sample Questions
Q1) The Perceived Wellness Survey (PWS) and the Model of Healthy Living Assessment Wheel were developed from models of wellness and various initiatives to improve the health and wellness of society as advocated by the Healthy People 2020 program.Which of the following best describes these tools?
A)They are complex and require special training to administer and interpret.
B)They have no clinical relevance to the role of physical therapy and are intended to be anecdotal for the public.
C)If used as part of the examination and history taking during the initial visit, they could provide a baseline to establish goals and report outcomes when incorporating wellness into physical therapy practice.
D)They were program assessments that were used to evaluate the success of the Healthy People 2010 program and to improve the subsequent initiative, Healthy People 2020.
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Range of Motion
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47568
Sample Questions
Q1) The most effective results of continuous passive motion (CPM) can be expected:
A)If the device is applied for at least 5 hours per day but its use is delayed for at least 5 days postoperatively.
B)If the device is applied as early as possible after surgery for at least 4 to 8 hours per day.
C)If the device is applied immediately after surgery for 1 hour, then on alternate days for 1 hour each time.
D)If the rate of motion is at least 5 cycles per minute, no matter how many hours per day the device is used.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following PROM exercises provides the most flexion of the lumbar spine?
A)Single knee to chest
B)Posterior pelvic tilt with the patient lying supine with hips/knees at 45°/90°
C)Posterior pelvic tilt with patient lying supine
D)Double knees to chest
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 4: Stretching for Improved Mobility
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47569
Sample Questions
Q1) To achieve maximum elongation of the long head of the biceps brachii during passive stretching:
A)Extend the elbow with the forearm in pronation and then extend the shoulder.
B)Flex the shoulder overhead after extending the elbow with the forearm in supination.
C)Extend the elbow with the forearm in supination and then extend the shoulder.
D)Flex the shoulder overhead after extending the elbow with the forearm in pronation.
Q2) Which of the following is an incorrect statement about hypomobility?
A)It may be associated with loss of passive or dynamic flexibility.
B)It may be caused by muscle imbalance or weakness.
C)It is usually associated with joint instability.
D)It may occur with or without tissue trauma.
Q3) Each of the following is a contraindication to stretching adaptively shortened tissues except:
A)Sharp, acute pain during ROM.
B)When ROM is limited because scar tissue has reduced soft tissue extensibility.
C)A bony block.
D)When tight (shortened) soft tissues provide functional stability of a body segment affected by paralysis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47570
Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has rheumatoid arthritis and currently is exhibiting acute symptoms in the wrist.This patient will benefit from grade I or II mobilization techniques at this time because these techniques:
A)Increase the ROM by stretching restrictions.
B)Temporarily relieve pain, thereby allowing freer motion of the wrist.
C)Retard synovitis and the progression of the disease process, if only temporarily.
D)Reduce preexisting deformity.
Q2) All of the following gliding techniques match except:
A)Long axis traction of femur-distracts weight-bearing surface in acetabulum.
B)Posterior glide tibia on femur-knee flexion.
C)Plantar glide navicular on talus-supination.
D)Dorsal glide first phalanx on metatarsal head-metatarsophalangeal flexion.
Q3) Your patient has a stiff foot after a long period of immobilization in a cast.Each of the following mobilization techniques will increase supination and the arch of the foot except:
A)Stabilize the cuneiforms and plantar glide metatarsals I, II, and III.
B)Stabilize the calcaneus and plantar glide the cuboid.
C)Stabilize the talus and dorsal glide the navicular.
D)Stabilize the talus and laterally glide the calcaneus.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 7
Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47571
Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.Z is a 68-year-old man who underwent abdominal surgery 3 months ago.Since his surgery, he has had difficulty walking.You determine that during the period of bed rest and modified activity, his legs have become quite weak, contributing to his difficulty walking.The ROM of his lower extremities is within normal limits.You determine that the 10 RM for the hip extensors and quadriceps bilaterally (measured on a bilateral leg press unit) is only 20 lb.After a brief warm-up on a stationary bicycle, you have Mr.Z perform the following PRE regimen: 10 repetitions of hip and knee extension against 20 lb; 10 repetitions against 15 lb; and 10 repetitions against 10 lb with a rest between each set of 10 repetitions.This approach to PRE is known as:
A)Circuit weight training.
B)Oxford regimen.
C)DeLorme regimen.
D)DAPRE regimen.
Q2) Which of the following best defines muscle strength?
A)Ability of muscle to contract repeatedly against a load
B)Work produced by a muscle per unit of time
C)Produce or control forces imposed during functional activities
D)Force generated during a single maximum effort
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47572
Sample Questions
Q1) As part of a circuit weight training program, your patient performs 2 sets of 10 repetitions of biceps curls at 70% of a 1 repetition maximum (RM), resting briefly between sets.Which of the following energy systems is primarily being used?
A)Phosphagen system
B)Anaerobic-glycolytic system
C)Aerobic system
D)ATP-PC (adenosine triphosphate-phosphocreatine) system
Q2) Four methods of training are known to challenge the aerobic system.Which method of training is characterized by a period of exercise followed by a brief period of relief?
A)Continuous
B)Interval
C)Circuit
D)Circuit-interval
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47573
Sample Questions
Q1) The most important neural structures for the integration and processing of sensory information for balance control are:
A)Basal ganglia, primary motor area, and cerebellum.
B)Basal ganglia, thalamus, and supplementary motor area.
C)Supplementary motor area, cerebellum, and basal ganglia.
D)Supplementary motor area, cerebellum, and thalamus.
Q2) Which of the following terms is defined as "the sway boundaries in which an individual can maintain equilibrium without changing his/her base of support"?
A)Center of mass
B)Limits of stability
C)Limits of pressure
D)Center of gravity
Q3) To maintain balance in condition 3 (standing on a firm surface wearing a dome) of the Clinical Test of Sensory Integration on Balance Test, a person must rely solely on:
A)Somatosensory and vestibular information.
B)Vestibular information.
C)Visual and somatosensory information.
D)Visual and vestibular information.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47574
Sample Questions
Q1) After a musculoskeletal injury of the lower extremity, you develop an aquatic exercise program for your patient.An aquatic exercise program is the least effective for:
A)Transfer of training to land-based functional activities.
B)Reducing risk of re-injury during the early stage of rehabilitation.
C)Enabling early weight bearing.
D)Increasing range of motion.
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding aquatic therapy equipment?
A)Buoyancy equipment placed anteriorly will facilitate posterior movements of the trunk in the vertical position.
B)Buoyancy equipment used for supine positioning is ideal to assist with stabilization needed for eccentric manual resistance exercises.
C)Nonbuoyant equipment used underwater provides resistance opposite the direction of movement.
D)Using equipment to increase the surface area of an extremity underwater decreases resistance.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury, Repair, and Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47575
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best method for determining the progression of exercise during the subacute stage of healing?
A)Increase range of motion 10° each treatment session
B)Increase strength training by 1 lb each treatment session
C)Increase endurance exercises by 3 repetitions each treatment session
D)Let patient response guide the progression of exercise
Q2) Which of the following types of active exercises are the most appropriate to use first during the acute phase of healing after a muscle injury?
A)Submaximal isokinetic concentric exercise at slow velocities
B)Active ROM exercises
C)Multiple-angle isometrics against manual resistance
D)Low-intensity muscle setting
Q3) Transient or intermittent pain that occurs during the chronic stage of soft tissue healing is best relieved by:
A)Stretching and strengthening the healing tissues.
B)Applying cold.
C)Applying heat and massage.
D)Resting.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Joint, Connective Tissue, and Bone Disorders and Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47576
Sample Questions
Q1) At what point in the healing process after reduction of a fracture is immobilization usually discontinued and exercise of related areas permissible so long as stress is not placed across or distal to the fracture site?
A)When callus formation begins to develop
B)When the site is radiographically healed
C)When delayed union has been achieved
D)At the stage of clinical union
Q2) A person can usually resume normal activity with no limitations when a fracture shows:
A)Radiographic union.
B)Clinical union.
C)Delayed union.
D)Callus formation.
Q3) Each of the following is characteristic of fibromyalgia (FM) except:
A)Chronic muscle pain experienced in referred patterns.
B)Decreased ROM.
C)Chronic fatigue and decreased exercise tolerance.
D)Eleven of eighteen tender points at specific sites throughout the body.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47577
Sample Questions
Q1) Synovectomy, when used, typically is indicated for:
A)Long-standing osteoarthritis.
B)Tear of a joint capsule as the result of trauma.
C)Rheumatoid arthritis.
D)Postimmobilization arthritis.
Q2) Which of the following soft tissue repairs are most commonly immobilized in a relative position of tension (elongation) postsurgically?
A)Tendon Z lengthening and ligament tears
B)Muscle fasciotomy and tendon realignments
C)All repairs of muscles and tendons
D)Muscle and ligament complete ruptures
Q3) All of the following are signs and symptoms your patient may exhibit that would alert you to a possible pulmonary embolism except:
A)Sudden onset of dyspnea.
B)Chest pain alleviated with deep breathing and rib compression.
C)Rapid, shallow breathing.
D)Diaphoresis with minimal activity.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 14
Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47578
Sample Questions
Q1) To effectively treat CRPS, a physical therapist:
A)Performs a sympathetic block prior to any manual or exercise interventions.
B)Utilizes an approach that manages the physical symptoms of pain, edema, stiffness, and muscle changes.
C)Bombards the autonomic nervous system with stimuli using desensitization techniques.
D)Avoids the "no pain, no gain" philosophy and encourages the patient to minimize activity if it causes discomfort.
Q2) Nonoperative management of carpal tunnel syndrome emphasizes:
A)Vigorous stretching to gain mobility of the structures in the carpal tunnel.
B)Activity modification and joint, nerve, and tendon mobilization.
C)Strengthening exercises, especially to the muscles of the thenar eminence.
D)Immobilization.
Q3) The pain associated with CRPS characteristically is:
A)Entirely psychogenic and responsive to antidepressants.
B)Intermittent and related to body and head position.
C)Out of proportion to the report of history of injury or precipitating event.
D)Always responsive to modalities, primarily cold and electrical stimulation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, Function, and Posture
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47579
Sample Questions
Q1) A sustained faulty posture that stresses the ligamentous or joint structures usually results in:
A)Diffuse pain that is relieved when the mechanical stress is stopped.
B)Diffuse pain that is relieved with pain medication, modalities, and massage
C)Sharp pain that cannot be relieved until the tissue heals.
D)Sharp pain that changes in intensity as the posture changes.
Q2) All of the following are generally true of the nucleus pulposus except:
A)It is the axis of motion for the functional units of the spine.
B)It takes on and/or releases water in response to compressive loads.
C)It is centrally aligned within the annulus fibrosis at all levels of the spine to provide uniform shock absorption.
D)It is covered superiorly and inferiorly by a cartilaginous end-plate.
Q3) Your patient describes increased pain in the back in the morning before getting out of bed.The patient should be:
A)Advised never to sleep prone.
B)Evaluated for sleeping posture and advised in mechanically safe adaptations.
C)Advised to sleep in a recliner or with a pillow under her knees to accentuate hip flexion.
D)Advised to place a board under a soft mattress.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
16
Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47580
Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient complains of facial pain, especially when under tension and when eating.All of the following are appropriate except:
A)Jaw relaxation by clicking the tongue and resting the tongue on the hard palate behind the front teeth.
B)Stretching and strengthening the muscles of mastication so they can withstand the stress.
C)Teaching the patient extra-oral massage in the region of the masseter and/or temporalis muscle.
D)Relaxation techniques and controlled breathing.
Q2) All of these are reasons to assess the thoracic spine during evaluation of patients who present with cervical spine dysfunction except:
A)The thoracic spine becomes unstable with pain and soft tissue dysfunction in the cervical spine.
B)The thoracic spine is prone to hypomobility.
C)There are common muscle attachments between the cervical and thoracic areas.
D)Joint manipulation performed along with high-velocity thrust of the thoracic spine often improves outcomes in patients with cervical complaints.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47581
Sample Questions
Q1) To effectively stretch the scalene muscles on the left, the patient:
A)Axially extends the neck, side bends to the right, and rotates to the left.
B)Places the left hand behind the head, rotates head to the left, and looks down.
C)Rotates head to the right, looks down, and places left hand behind the head.
D)Tucks in chin and nods the head through 15° of motion.
Q2) Modified bridging, partial lunges, partial squatting, and upper extremity pushing and pulling exercise are used in spinal exercise programs for the purpose of:
A)Using weight-bearing exercises rather than exercising in supine- or prone-lying positions.
B)Adding variety to what could be a monotonous program.
C)Strengthening the trunk-stabilizing musculature.
D)Developing extremity strength in conjunction with trunk stabilization to prepare for functional activities.
Q3) Anterior-posterior pelvic tilt exercises are used:
A)To strengthen the abdominal muscles.
B)To strengthen the back extensor muscles.
C)To train the transversus abdominis.
D)To perform range of motion (ROM) of the lumbar spine.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47582
Sample Questions
Q1) You are developing an exercise program for a patient who has adhesive capsulitis of the right shoulder.You have determined that the signs and symptoms identified during your examination are consistent with stage 2, the "freezing" stage, of this disorder.In addition to maintaining mobility of joints distal to the shoulder, which of the following interventions for the shoulder is most appropriate at this time?
A)Low-intensity progressive resistance exercise, mobilization with movement techniques, and manual stretching of the shoulder and scapular stabilization exercises with progressive weight bearing through the upper extremity
B)Grade III joint-mobilization techniques, self-stretching, and strengthening exercises
C)Gentle weight bearing on the involved upper extremity to develop scapular control and active ROM of the shoulder (e.g., wand and wall-climbing exercises)
D)Grades I and II joint distraction and gliding techniques, pendulum exercises, passive or active-assistive ROM within pain-free ranges, and muscle setting exercises for shoulder musculature
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
19
Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47583
Sample Questions
Q1) Using a handheld weight as the source of resistance, which of the following positions to strengthen the elbow extensors begins with the long head of the triceps brachii fully lengthened?
A)Have the patient assume a prone-lying position with the shoulder in 90° abduction, the upper arm supported on the table, and the elbow flexed to 90°.
B)Have the patient assume the supine position with the shoulder flexed to 90° and the elbow flexed so the handheld weight touches the opposite shoulder.
C)With the patient standing or sitting in a chair, begin with the elbow fully flexed and the arm elevated overhead and stabilized to maintain the shoulder in as much flexion as possible.
D)While the patient is in a standing position and the hips are flexed to 90°, begin with the shoulder in hyperextension.
Q2) Tennis elbow may involve all of the following structures except the:
A)Extensor carpi radialis brevis.
B)Extensor communis.
C)Pronator teres.
D)Annular ligament.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 20
Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47584
Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has an "extensor lag" of the MP joint.The exercise of choice to remediate this problem is which of the following?
A)While stabilizing the IP joints of one finger in extension, passively extend the MP joint of that finger.
B)Have the patient move actively from the straight fist position to the tabletop position of the hand.
C)Have the patient move actively from the full fist position of the hand to the tabletop position.
D)Have the patient move actively from the full fist position of the hand to the hook fist position.
Q2) Each of the following is true about flexor tendon-gliding exercises except:
A)Maintain or develop free gliding between the FDS and FDP tendons.
B)To perform these exercises, the patient actively moves the fingers into five different positions.
C)To perform these exercises, the therapist passively moves the patient's fingers into five different positions in a particular sequence.
D)Maintain or develop free gliding between the FDS and FDP tendons and adjacent bones.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: The Hip
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47585
Sample Questions
Q1) The clinical prediction rule for the diagnosis of osteoarthritis of the hip developed by Sutlive and colleagues includes consideration of all of the following variables except:
A)Self-reported squatting aggravates symptoms.
B)Walking more than one block causes groin and anterior thigh pain.
C)Passive internal rotation is less than or equal to 25°.
D)Scour test with adduction causes lateral hip or groin pain.
Q2) Your patient had a total hip replacement 3 days ago and will be discharged from the hospital tomorrow.Your home instructions should include, but are not limited to, each of the following except:
A)Avoid moving the hip past midline when moving in bed; do not cross your legs.
B)Perform ankle-pumping exercises on a regular basis throughout the day with the legs elevated.
C)Perform assisted, progressing to active, ROM exercises of the hip and knee within protected ranges.
D)Whenever possible, perform transfers toward the operated side.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
22
Chapter 21: The Knee
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47586
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about managing a tear of the medial or lateral meniscus?
A)A tear of the peripheral portion (outer zone) of a meniscus does not lend itself well to surgical repair because this portion of the meniscus is avascular and does not heal well.
B)A potential complication of a medial meniscus repair is intraoperative damage to or postoperative entrapment of the saphenous nerve.
C)After meniscus repair, initially avoid knee flexion beyond 60° to 70° during weight-bearing exercises for about 2 months because flexion beyond this range can displace the repaired meniscus in a posterior direction.
D)After meniscus repair, the knee is immobilized in approximately 45° of flexion.
Q2) Each of the following is an expected outcome of conservative management of osteoarthritis of the knees except:
A)Maintaining functional range of motion and strength.
B)Relieving pain.
C)Regenerating worn articular cartilage.
D)Preventing deformity.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47587
Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has RA and is complaining of pain in her ankles and feet when walking.You observe her gait and notice short steps and poor push-off.This is consistent with what deformity in RA?
A)Everted calcaneus and pronated forefoot
B)Inverted calcaneus and pronated forefoot
C)Everted calcaneus and supinated forefoot
D)Inverted calcaneus and supinated forefoot
Q2) Your patient has a diagnosis of RA and is developing a capsular pattern in the foot and ankle.Which joint-mobilization technique could perpetuate or worsen the impairment/deformity typically associated with RA of the foot and ankle?
A)Stabilize the mortise and glide the talus in an anterior direction
B)Stabilize the calcaneus and glide the cuboid in a plantar direction
C)Stabilize the talus and glide the navicular in a dorsal direction
D)Stabilize the talus and glide the calcaneus in a lateral direction
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
24
Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47588
Sample Questions
Q1) For an individual to be able to execute functional activities, it is necessary to have the ability to maintain the position of the body in equilibrium within the environment.This state of equilibrium is called:
A)Power.
B)Endurance.
C)Postural stability.
D)Strength.
Q2) You have been treating a 25-year-old soccer player, who has been recovering from hip bursitis.She is pain free and performing routine activities of daily living, walking and running without symptoms.She is now progressing to a phase of advanced functional training to prepare her for the quick turns, starts and stops, and dynamic single leg stances when kicking the soccer ball.Which of the following activities would be appropriate to include in her program to specifically achieve these functional tasks?
A)Open-chain knee extension on a resistance machine after establishing her 1 Rep Max
B)Single leg stance on a stable surface, increasing the duration to 90 seconds
C)Zigzag forward hopping
D)Pushing and pulling heavy objects
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Exercise in the Older Adult
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47589
Sample Questions
Q1) Prevention through healthy life choices is important for slowing the decline of function in the older adult.Which of the following is an example of a prevention activity that a 70-year-old individual could adopt as a means to slow progression of primary aging?
A)Sit down and rest several times per day.
B)Sleep at least 10 hours per night.
C)Avoid stairs to reduce risk of falls.
D)Take an aerobics class 2-3 times per week.
Q2) Your patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and is on insulin.He arrives at 9 a.m.for a 1-hour resistance, aerobic, balance, and flexibility program under your supervision.You inquire whether he has checked his glucose level this morning and he indicates that it was 100 mg/dL.What decision do you make about his treatment today?
A)No exercises can be performed; reschedule him for tomorrow.
B)Call the emergency medical service because his condition is unstable.
C)Proceed with exercises while monitoring his tolerance and provide a carbohydrate snack and fluids to assure hydration.
D)Use this day to advance his program to the next level, challenging him with high-intensity, progressive activities
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 25: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47590
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of nerve supply (innervation) of the pelvic floor complex?
A)Damage to the nerve supply of the pelvic floor complex during labor and delivery is one of the main contributors to organ prolapse.
B)There are multiple and varied innervations from inconsistent sacral levels that innervate this area.
C)The pudendal nerve is the sole innervation for the pelvic floor.
D)The nerve supply is at risk with a 4° episiotomy, often resulting in permanent paralysis of the anal sphincter.
Q2) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to participating in an exercise program during pregnancy?
A)Diastasis recti
B)Gestational diabetes
C)Maternal type 1 diabetes
D)Obesity
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47591
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the least advisable means of preventing limitations of the glenohumeral joint and improving shoulder range of motion (ROM) after mastectomy?
A)Self-assisted ROM of the involved upper extremity
B)Wand exercises
C)Pendulum exercises
D)Wall-climbing exercises with the involved upper extremity
Q2) Intervention goals for lymphedema include all of the following except:
A)Educating the patient in techniques for self-management.
B)Reducing the risk of infection.
C)Softening of fibrotic tissue.
D)Resolving the lymphedema and returning the lymphatic system to a normal state.
Q3) As part of the patient evaluation, you perform tests and measures to document your findings in a standard and objective way.You document a positive Stemmer sign when you find which of the following?
A)There is tenderness of the lymph nodes on palpation.
B)Skin on the dorsum of the fingers could not be pinched.
C)Skin is shiny and red.
D)Viscous fluid is weeping from the skin.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.