Movement Analysis
Exam Review
Course Introduction
Movement Analysis explores the systematic study of human motion, examining the biomechanics, anatomy, physiology, and neurological control that underpin both functional and dysfunctional movement patterns. The course equips students with theoretical knowledge and practical skills to assess, interpret, and analyze movement using qualitative observation and quantitative measurement tools. Emphasis is placed on identifying movement inefficiencies, developing intervention strategies, and applying movement analysis techniques in clinical, sports, and daily life contexts. By integrating principles from kinesiology, motor control, and movement sciences, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how to evaluate and enhance human movement performance.
Recommended Textbook
Kinesiology Scientific Basis of Human Motion 12th Edition by Nancy Hamilton
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Study of Kinesiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) During impeachment, which federal body conducts the trial of the president?
A) House of Representatives
B) Senate
C) Supreme Court
D) National Security Council
E) White House Office
Answer: B
Q2) What is the mechanical purpose of pitching in baseball?
A) projecting an object for maximum speed
B) projecting an object for maximum accuracy
C) exerting maximum effort
D) projecting an object for optimum speed and accuracy
Answer: D
Q3) A motion in which all moving segments act at the same time is a ____ motion.
A) sequential
B) simultaneous
C) combination
D) concurrent
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Musculoskeletal System: The Skeletal
Framework and Its Movements
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Q1) What is action in which the sole of the foot moves away from anterior surface of the lower leg?
A) inversion
B) eversion
C) plantar flexion
D) dorsiflexion
Answer: C
Q2) An example of a hinge joint would be the ___.
A) wrist
B) elbow
C) hips
D) acromioclavicular
Answer: B
Q3) The epiphyseal plate is:
A) the growth area of the long bones
B) the flat bone of the skull
C) the articular surface of a bone
D) the growth area of a flat bone
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: The Musculoskeletal System: The Musculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rectus femoris is an example of a ____ muscle.
A) fusiform
B) fan shaped
C) bipenniform
D) quadrate
Answer: C
Q2) When the hip is fully flexed the rectus femoris is ____ likely to work during knee extension.
A) more
B) less
C) equally as
Short Answer Questions
Answer: B
Q3) Why is it easier to open someone else's clenched fist by pushing on the back of the hand rather than pulling on the fingers?
Answer: increases tension in multi-articular muscles
Q4) Why is there a greater range of motion in hip flexion with the knees bent than with them straight?
Answer: (decreased tension in biarticular muscles)
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Chapter 4: The Neuromuscular Basis of Human Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following illustrates the use of the tonic stretch reflex to facilitate a motor act?
A) continuous movement of arm back and then forward in bowling
B) long, fast backswing in a golf drive
C) rapid backswing preceding a hard overhand throw
D) short, relatively slow backswing in a golf putt
Q2) What reflexes might interfere with teaching a beginner to do a standing front dive? Explain both the reflexes and the effect.
Q3) Which of the following head and neck positions would facilitate the desired movement or position?
A) extension of head during landing in a volleyball spike
B) flexion of head just prior to take off in a long jump
C) hyperextension of head in a head stand
D) flexion of head in a back dive
Q4) Why might an elderly person press their hands against their thighs when attempting to rise from a seated position?
Q5) Disregarding arm motion, why is it easier to jump higher if one flexes the lower extremity and then immediately extends, with no hesitation between motions?
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Upper Extremity: The Shoulder Region
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the prime movers in shoulder flexion against gravity?
1) upper pectoralis major
2) latissimus dorsi
3) anterior deltoid
4) posterior deltoid
5) lower pectoralis major
A) upper pectoralis major, anterior deltoid
B) upper pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, anterior deltoid, posterior deltoid
C) latissimus dorsi, posterior deltoid
D) posterior deltoid, lower pectoralis major
Q2) What is the primary reason why there is greater range of motion possible in the upper extremities than in the lower?
A) larger articular surface
B) fewer restraining ligaments
C) more freely moveable girdle
D) more bony articulations
Q3) What are the prime movers at the shoulder joint in the propulsive phase of an overhand throw?
Q4) Starting and ending in a prone position, analyze the shoulder action in the pushup exercise.
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Chapter 6: The Upper Extremity: The Elbow, Forearm, Wrist, and Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following actions will the biceps brachii be most active?
A) a pull-up with the forearm pronated
B) a pushup
C) a pull-up with the forearms supinated
D) a bench press
Q2) What are the possible negative consequences of repeated ulnar or radial deviation motions?
Q3) The radioulnar joint is a ____ joint.
A) pivot
B) hinge
C) gliding
D) condyloid
Q4) Which of the following is the prime mover in elbow extension during the up phase of the pushup?
A) biceps brachii
B) pectoralis major
C) triceps brachii
D) brachialis
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Q5) List the prime movers at the wrist in the extension action necessary when "cocking" the wrist in badminton.
Chapter 7: The Lower Extremity: The Hip Region
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is pelvic girdle rotation necessary in both walking and running gaits?
Q2) Which are the three bones of the pelvis?
A) iliopsoas, ischium, pubis
B) cervical, lumbar, thoracic
C) ilium, ischium, coccyx
D) ilium, ischium, pubis
Q3) Which of the following movements of the pelvic girdle would act to facilitate abduction of the right femur?
A) forward tilt
B) backward tilt
C) rotation right
D) left lateral tilt
Q4) Analyze the muscular involvement in the motion of the hip joint in the jumping jack exercise. Be sure to include both the "apart" phase and the "together" phase (non-support part only).
Q5) Which are the prime movers at the hip in performing a deep squat?
A) rectus femoris, biceps femoris, vastus lateralis
B) biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus
C) rectus femoris, vastus medialis, semimembranosus
D) rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, semitendinosus
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Lower Extremity: The Knee, Ankle, and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following muscles contracts in pronation to counteract the supination action of the tibialis anterior and the extensor hallicus longus?
A) tibialis posterior
B) flexor hallicus longus
C) extensor digitorum longus
D) flexor digitorum longus
Short Answer Questions
Q2) Which type of joint is the tibiofemoral joint?
A) gliding
B) condyloid
C) hinge
D) pivot
Q3) Which muscles are most responsible for lifting the body weight through ankle plantar flexion?
A) gastrocnemius, soleus
B) gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris
C) gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris, peroneus
D) gastrocnemius, soleus, peroneus
Q4) Why are deep knee bends considered to be a potentially dangerous exercise?
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Chapter 9: The Spinal Column and Thorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which movement of the pelvis accompanies flexion of the vertebral column?
A) backward tilt
B) forward tilt
C) lateral tilt
D) rotation
Q2) Which of the following is not a primary muscle of respiration?
A) diaphragm
B) abdominals
C) intercostales
D) levatores costorum
Short Answer Questions
Q3) Which is the "prime mover" in head/neck flexion in an erect position?
A) sub occipitals
B) gravity
C) levator scapulae
D) scalenes
Q4) Describe the changes which occur in the vertebral column from birth through maturity.
Q5) Injuries to the cervical spine are among the most serious in sport. Discuss the anatomical reasons that these injuries are so serious.
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Chapter 10: Terminology and Measurement in Biomechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A muscle pulls on a bone with a rotary (vertical) force of 25 N. The muscle angle of pull is 15<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>. What is the stabilizing (horizontal) component of this pull?
What is the total resultant muscle force exerted?
Q2) A runner pushes off of the ground with a force of 500 N at an angle of 30<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>. How much of this force is directed vertically? How much is horizontal?
Q3) Which of the following is not a part of kinematics?
A) displacement
B) velocity
C) acceleration
D) force producing motion
Q4) What is the resultant displacement if a hiker walks 250 m north, turns and walks 300 m east?
A) 390.5 m at 40<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
B) 390.5 m at 50<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
C) 550 m at 40<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
D) 550 m at 50<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Description of Human Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term describes a projectile moving vertically in the second half of a parabola?
A) accelerating
B) decelerating
C) not changing velocity
D) not changing displacement
Q2) Why is it important to strive for height when executing the long jump?
Q3) If a sprinter starting a race covers 13 meters in the first 1.5 seconds of the race, what will the velocity be at the end of this 1 second? What will the acceleration from the start be?
Q4) Which is an example of linear motion in sport?
A) leg movements of a sprinter
B) movement of center of gravity of a diver
C) arm movements of a shot putter
D) movement of the center of gravity of a putted golf ball
Q5) What is the acceleration when the velocity of an object is constant?
A) zero
B) increasing
C) decreasing
D) constant
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Chapter 12: The Conditions of Linear Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following makes it difficult for a runner to change either his speed or direction?
A) torque
B) acceleration
C) inertia
D) velocity
Q2) Force is defined as any influence tending to _____ motion.
A) cause
B) change
C) modify
D) a, b, c
Q3) Which of the following represents a force that opposes the forward movement of a swimmer?
A) buoyancy
B) drag
C) lift
D) magnus effect
Q4) Why will a steel ball bounce when dropped on a trampoline but not when dropped on a wooden floor?
Q5) Why does one tend to shorten one's stride when walking on the ice?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Conditions of Rotary Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) A machine that magnifies force does so at the expense of:
A) velocity and speed
B) velocity and acceleration
C) displacement and torque
D) speed and range of motion
Q2) What is the true effort arm (moment arm) of a lever in the body?
A) distance from axis to point of attachment of muscle
B) distance from midpoint of muscle's line of pull to axis
C) perpendicular distance from axis to point of application of force
D) perpendicular distance from line of pull of muscle to axis
Q3) Why would a coach recommend a "tighter" tuck to enable a gymnast to get all the way around?
A) angular velocity will decrease
B) angular displacement will decrease
C) moment of inertia will decrease
D) mass will decrease
Q4) When doing an iron cross on the still rings the ideal position is for the gymnast to support the body with the arms abducted to 90<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>. Why do many gymnasts abduct only to 70<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> on this move?
Q5) Why do sprinters lean when running the curve on a track?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Center of Gravity and Stability
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the center of gravity of an object represent?
A) exact center anatomically
B) geometric center
C) center of mass of body
D) center of the base of support
Q2) To take a step one must become ____ and then ____ so you move from one place to another.
A) stable, unstable
B) unstable, vertical
C) unstable, stable
D) stable, horizontal
Q3) Which of the following must be true in order for a state of equilibrium to exist?
A) all linear forces acting on the object must be balanced, torques may be unbalanced
B) all torques acting on the object must be balanced, linear forces may be unbalanced
C) neither torques nor linear forces acting on the object must equal zero
D) the sum of all forces and torques acting on the object must equal zero
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16
Chapter 15: Kinesiology of Fitness and Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some changes that might occur in the standing posture in elderly people?
Q2) What is the action of the gluteus medius and minimus on the side of the free leg in standing on one foot?
A) supporting the thigh in the flexed position
B) producing inward rotation for balance
C) maintaining the position of the weighted leg
D) supporting the pelvis on the free side
Q3) Why might a toddler fall over when trying to stand while an older child has no trouble?
Q4) Which of the following is true of the joints in the erect standing posture?
A) all joints are in extension
B) all joints of the lower extremity are in extension
C) all weight bearing joints except the ankle are in extension
D) none of the above
Q5) What can be said about the existence of motion during a "stationary" stance?
A) there is no motion
B) there is slight motion forward and backward
C) there is slight motion side to side
D) there is slight motion in all directions
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Chapter 16: Moving Objects: Pushing and Pulling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be the correct order for a series of exercises to strengthen the triceps and the pectorals when using the concept of progressive resistance exercises?
1) bent knee pushup
2) dips on a bar
3) full length pushups
4) full pull-ups
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 2
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is a stretching technique in which one attempts to achieve relaxation of the stretched muscle through reciprocal innervation and/or a tendon organ response?
A) active isolated stretching
B) ballistic stretching
C) proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
D) rehabilitative stretching
Q3) Why should a person not "bounce" during stretching exercises?
Q4) How do plyometric jumping exercises act to increase one's vertical jump height?
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Chapter 17: Moving Objects: Throwing, Striking, and Kicking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it advisable to use the smallest number of segments possible when using a push-pull pattern for accuracy?
Q2) What should one do to apply maximum pushing force?
1) use the largest possible number of segments
2) use the smallest segments
3) move through a large range of motion
4) move the segments in an ordered sequence, one after the other
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 4
Q3) Why is it often easier to stand from a seated position if the feet are brought as close to the chair as possible?
Q4) Why should the arm motion in the shot put be simultaneous rather than sequential in nature?
Q5) Which would be the most efficient manner in which to lift a heavy box?
A) grasp box at arms length
B) face box with elbows bent and arms close to body
C) turn side to box and lift with one arm
D) place one hand under box and one hand on top at arms length
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Locomotion: Solid Surface
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it better to contact the ball with the elbow fully extended rather than flexed in executing a hard tennis serve?
Q2) What are the prime movers in giving top spin to the ball in a tennis stroke with strong forearm pronation?
1) pronation teres
2) pronator quadratus
3) biceps brachii
4) brachialis
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
Short Answer Questions
Q3) Which of the following best describes the desired action of the segments contributing to the motion in striking activities where maximum velocity of the implement is desired?
A) reach highest velocity at the same time
B) distal segments reach higher velocity than proximal segments
C) proximal segments reach higher velocity than distal segments
D) segments should move through a large range
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Chapter 19: Locomotion: The Aquatic Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the point of rotation in rotary locomotion of the body?
A) the center of gravity
B) the center of torque
C) the part of the body in contact with the surface
D) the point of force application
Short Answer Questions
Q2) What actions are primarily responsible for the final push off in the support phase in walking?
A) flexion of the knee and plantar flexion of the ankle
B) slight plantar flexion of the ankle and flexion of the metatarsal-phalangeal joints
C) forceful extension of the hip, knee, and ankle joints
D) strong extension of the hip and knee joints
Q3) Why is it easier for a runner to move the recovery leg forward more rapidly when it is flexed than when extended?
A) mass of the leg is greater when it is flexed
B) mass of the leg is less when it is flexed
C) moment of inertia of the leg is greater when leg is flexed
D) moment of inertia of the leg is less when leg is flexed
Q4) Why must a jumper strive for height when executing a long jump?
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Chapter 20: Locomotion: When Suspended and Free of Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor contributes to form drag in swimming and objects moving through the air?
A) displacement
B) total surface area
C) size of object
D) cross sectional area
Q2) Which of the following is true in the arm motion of a front crawl stroke?
A) pressing toward the bottom moves the body up
B) pressing toward the surface moves the body up
C) a high elbow causes great resistance
D) pressing backward moves the body backward
Q3) Explain the function of the S-curve path followed by the hand in most swimming strokes.
Q4) Which portion of the front crawl stroke contributes the most to stroke velocity?
A) kick
B) arm recovery
C) arm pull
D) action of the feet
Page 22
Q5) Why is a football lineman more likely to float than a marathon runner?
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Chapter 21: Impact
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Q1) Discuss some of the problems that occur in prolonged weightlessness. Include a discussion of both neuromuscular and anatomical considerations.
Q2) What determines the terminal velocity of a body in free fall?
A) the surface area presented to the airflow
B) the speed of the fall
C) the position of the body in the air
D) the wind velocity
Q3) What will make it difficult for an astronaut to walk for exercise in a weightless environment?
Q4) How might a diver or gymnast initiate a twist about the vertical axis once airborne and rotating forward about the horizontal axis?
A) turn the head away from the rotating direction
B) tilt the body by raising the arm in the direction of the twist
C) tilt the body by raising the arm opposite the twisting side
D) the twist must be started before take off
Q5) At what point in a giant swing should a gymnast release the high bar in order to do a trick?
Justify your answer.
Q6) How can a diver slow down the speed of rotation?
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Instrumentation for Motion Analysis
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Q1) Pole vaulters used to land in a sand pit. They now land in a deep foam pad. Explain in kinesiological terms the effect this change has had on the safety of pole vaulting.
Q2) What effect does tucking and doing a shoulder roll have during a fall?
A) maintaining the horizontal velocity
B) gradually decreasing the horizontal velocity
C) helping to regain balance
D) keeping the arms free from injury
Q3) List the primary considerations in considering the effects of impact on the body.
Q4) How would you dissipate energy when catching a fast-pitched hard ball? Explain the rationale for your answer.
Q5) What should you do when landing from a jump to decrease the amount of force acting on the body?
A) decrease the time, increase the distance
B) decrease the time, decrease the distance
C) increase the time, increase the distance
D) increase the time, decrease the distance.
Q6) Why do you land harder the farther you fall?
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