Molecular Pathology Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Molecular Pathology is a course that explores the molecular and genetic basis of human diseases, emphasizing the mechanisms by which alterations at the DNA, RNA, and protein levels contribute to the development and progression of pathological conditions. The course covers the principles and applications of advanced molecular techniques such as PCR, sequencing, and microarrays in the diagnosis, classification, and monitoring of diseases, particularly cancers and inherited disorders. Students will learn how molecular findings integrate with traditional pathology to improve patient care, as well as ethical and clinical implications of molecular diagnostics.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pathology 9th Edition by Vinay Kumar
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23 Chapters
265 Verified Questions
265 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1129 Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Injury, Cell Death, and Adaptations
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22166
Sample Questions
Q1) Ubiquitin-proteasome degradation of plasma proteins is opposed by A) insulin
B) interleukin-1
C) tumor necrosis factor
D) glucocorticoids
E) thyroid hormones
Answer: A
Q2) A 60-year-old obese man was admitted to the hospital for treatment of alcoholism. He has diabetes mellitus. A liver biopsy was performed, and the specimen showed that the liver cells contain increased amounts of A) hemosiderin
B) bile
C) triglycerides
D) bilirubin
E) insulin
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) C-reactive protein binds to the surface of microbes in tissues acting as A) a caspase
B) a peroxidase
C) an opsonin
D) an anaphylatoxin
E) a membrane attack protein
Answer: C
Q2) A 20-year-old woman suffered extensive burns and developed large irregular scars over her hands. These scars limited the movement of her fingers, and she was unable to fully extend them. What are these lesions called?
A) Contractures
B) Desmoids
C) Aggressive fibromatoses
D) Keloids
E) Wound dehiscences
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolism, and Shock
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22168
Sample Questions
Q1) A 30-year-old woman fractured her leg, and a few days later developed a diffuse petechial rash in the nondependent areas of the body. She was short of breath and had minor neurologic symptoms. Laboratory studies showed thrombocytopenia. These findings are most consistent with A) air embolism
B) bone marrow embolism
C) fat embolism
D) talc embolism
E) cholesterol crystal embolism
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is the most common site for arteriolar thromboembolization?
A) Brain
B) Heart
C) Kidneys
D) Lower extremities
E) Eyes
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Diseases of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40-year-old man presents with hemoptysis and renal failure. A kidney biopsy specimen revealed linear deposits of IgG in glomerular basement membranes and crescents between the glomerular capillary loops and the Bowman capsule. The antibodies causing these pathologic changes react with
A) laminin
B) fibronectin
C) collagen type I
D) collagen type IV
E) podocytes of glomerular epithelial cells
Q2) Antigen-antibody reaction in polyarteritis nodosa is characterized by which form of necrosis of the arterial wall?
A) Coagulative necrosis
B) Fibrinoid necrosis
C) Liquefactive necrosis
D) Fat necrosis
E) Caseous necrosis
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6
Chapter 5: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tumors occurs most often in the ovary?
A) Chondroma
B) Hemangioma
C) Leiomyoma
D) Transitional cell papilloma
E) Cystadenoma
Q2) In which cell function is BRCA1, a gene mutated in women with familial breast carcinoma, involved?
A) Cell adhesion
B) Growth inhibition
C) Signal transduction
D) Cell surface channel
E) Transcriptional regulation and DNA repair
Q3) Pseudomyxoma peritonei is a complication of which tumor?
A) Serous cystadenoma of the ovary
B) Mucinous cystadenoma of the ovary
C) Ovarian fibroma
D) Myxoma of the heart
E) Myxosarcoma of the lower extremity
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Genetic and Pediatric Diseases
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old child complained of frequent muscle cramps during play. A muscle biopsy revealed accumulation of glycogen in the skeletal muscle cells and a lack of muscle phosphorylase. Which form of glycogenosis is this?
A) Type I (von Gierke disease)
B) Type II (Pompe disease)
C) Type III (Cori-Forbes' disease)
D) Type IV (Andersen disease)
E) Type V (McArdle disease)
Q2) The soft core of an aortic atheroma consists primarily of
A) triglycerides
B) cholesterol
C) free fatty acids
D) fibrin
E) pus
Q3) Which hormone can suppress surfactant production in fetal lungs?
A) Cortisol
B) Estrogen
C) Insulin
D) Glucagon
E) Androgens
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Chapter 7: Environmental and Nutritional Diseases
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Xerophthalmia and night blindness typically result from deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
Q2) Frontal bossing of the cranium that imparts a square appearance to the head, pigeon breast deformity, and bow legs are features of a deficiency of which vitamin?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
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Chapter 8: General Pathology of Infectious Diseases
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis phagocytosed by macrophages in granulomas can be killed by endogenous nitric oxide (NO) after these macrophages become activated by T-helper cells. Which biologically active substance stimulates the formation of NO in macrophages?
A) Platelet-activating factor
B) Interferon-
C) Interleukin-1
D) Tumor necrosis factor
E) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Which of the following is the most common form of herpesvirus-induced eye infection?
A) Blepharitis
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Iridocyclitis
D) Keratitis
E) Retinitis
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Chapter 9: Blood Vessels
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies showing widespread cytoplasmic staining of neutrophils in an indirect immunofluorescence test (c-ANCA) are found in high titers in which disease?
A) Microscopic polyangiitis
B) Wegener granulomatosis
C) Churg-Strauss syndrome
D) Goodpasture syndrome
E) Kawasaki syndrome
Q2) Which type of vasculitis is typically associated with bronchial asthma?
A) Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Q3) Which of the following is the most common form of vasculitis in the elderly?
A) Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
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Chapter 10: Heart
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common location of atrial septal defects is in the area of the
A) fossa ovalis
B) sinus venosus
C) septum primum
D) coronary sinus
E) supravalvular endocardium
Q2) Bacillary angiomatosis is typically found in AIDS patients and is caused by
A) herpesvirus type 8
B) herpesvirus type 3
C) herpesvirus type 6
D) Bartonella henselae
E) measles virus
Q3) The most common cause of mitral stenosis in adults is A) floppy mitral valve
B) rheumatic endocarditis
C) bacterial endocarditis
D) mitral annular calcification
E) nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis
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Chapter 11: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aplastic crisis, which can be encountered in patients with hereditary spherocytosis or sickle cell anemia, is most often precipitated by
A) deficiency of erythropoietin
B) negative feedback inhibition by bilirubin
C) adverse effect of iron released from hemolyzed erythrocytes
D) autoimmune mechanisms
E) parvovirus infection
Q2) Which form of lymphoma tends to arise in the gastrointestinal tract at the site of chronic inflammation, such as chronic sialadenitis in Sjögren disease or chronic gastritis caused by Helicobacter pylori?
A) Pre-B, pre-T lymphoblastic lymphoma
B) Mantle cell lymphoma
C) Marginal cell lymphoma
D) Peripheral T-cell lymphoma
E) Burkitt lymphoma
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13
Chapter 12: Lung
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bacterium is the most common cause of lobar pneumonia in chronic alcoholics?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Legionella pneumophila
Q2) In the bronchiectases of cystic fibrosis, bronchial plugging with mucus is often accompanied by infection with which of the following pathogens?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Legionella pneumophila
Q3) Which one of the following lung tumors has the best prognosis?
A) Mesothelioma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Small cell carcinoma
D) Large cell carcinoma
E) Carcinoid tumor
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Chapter 13: Kidney and Its Collecting System
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which kidney disease characterized by nephrotic syndrome, microscopic hematuria, and glomerular deposits of C3 complement and properdin is caused by an autoantibody called C3 nephritic factor?
A) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type II
B) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C) Membranous nephropathy
D) IgA nephropathy
E) Acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis
Q2) A 5-year-old boy is taken to the pediatrician because of generalized facial edema and somnolence. He has been passing dark brown urine. Physical examination reveals hypertension. Urinalysis shows oliguria, hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Nephritic syndrome
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Rapidly progressive acute renal failure
D) Chronic uremia
E) Nephrolithiasis
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Chapter 14: Oral Cavity and Gastrointestinal Tract
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoimmune atrophic gastritis and pernicious anemia are most often associated with
A) Helicobacter pylori infection
B) peptic ulceration of the duodenum
C) Ménétrier disease
D) Hashimoto thyroiditis
E) trichobezoars
Q2) T-cell lymphoma was diagnosed in a 55-year-old man who had a lengthy history of intestinal disease. Which of the following diseases most likely preceded this malignancy?
A) Celiac disease
B) Whipple disease
C) Crohn disease
D) Abetalipoproteinemia
E) AIDS
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Chapter 15: Liver, Gallbladder, and Biliary Tract
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies to mitochondrial dihydrolipoamide acetyltransferase are typically found in 90% of patients who have
A) autoimmune hepatitis
B) lupoid hepatitis
C) primary sclerosing cholangitis
D) primary biliary cirrhosis
E) hepatocellular carcinoma
Q2) A 55-year-old man known to have drunk a half liter of gin daily for the past 15 years died due to ruptured esophageal varices and massive bleeding. At autopsy, the liver was nodular and
A) dark brown
B) green
C) red
D) yellow
E) bluish
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Chapter 16: Pancreas
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 65-year-old man complains of vague upper abdominal pain, weight loss, and loose fatty stools. Radiographs show visible calcifications within the pancreas. These findings are most consistent with a diagnosis of which of the following disorders?
A) Ductal carcinoma of the pancreas
B) Acinar cell carcinoma of the pancreas
C) Islet cell carcinoma
D) Chronic pancreatitis
E) Pancreatic pseudocyst
Q2) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
A) Alcohol
B) Thiazide diuretics
C) Viruses
D) Trauma
E) Vascular thrombosis
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Chapter 17: Male Genital System and Lower Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seminomas tend to metastasize first to which of the following sites?
A) Internal iliac lymph nodes
B) External iliac lymph nodes
C) Mesenteric lymph nodes
D) Retroperitoneal para-aortic lymph nodes
E) Urinary bladder
Q2) Which of the following infectious agents causes condyloma acuminatum of the penis?
A) Human papillomavirus types 6 and 11
B) Human papillomavirus types 16 and 18
C) Herpesvirus type 1
D) Herpesvirus type 2
E) Ureaplasma urealyticum
Q3) Which of the following infectious agents is the most common cause of urinary tract infection?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Proteus vulgaris
C) Klebsiella sp
D) Streptococcus faecalis
E) Staphylococcus aureus
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Chapter 18: Female Genital System and Breast
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A high level of expression of the tumor suppressor gene PTEN will most likely be found in which of the following?
A) Normal proliferative phase endometrium
B) Uterine ligaments
C) Complex atypical endometrial hyperplasia
D) Endometrial intraepithelial neoplasia
E) Adenocarcinoma of the endometrium
Q2) Assuming that a vaccination will be discovered for the human papillomavirus in women, it is expected that the vaccination will reduce the incidence of carcinoma at which of the following sites?
A) Clitoris
B) Vagina
C) Cervix
D) Endometrium
E) Ovary
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Chapter 19: Endocrine System
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best characterized molecular abnormality in pituitary adenomas involves which of the following?
A) Cell surface receptors
B) G-proteins mediating signal transduction
C) Adenylate cyclase related cytoplasmic effectors
D) Nuclear receptors
E) DNA repair enzymes
Q2) A 50-year-old man who is showing signs of acromegaly is found to have an elevated concentration of growth hormone and another hormone in blood that was apparently derived from the liver. Which other hormone is most likely increased in this patient's blood?
A) Glucagon
B) Somatostatin
C) Insulin growth factor I
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin
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Chapter 20: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The autosomal dominant bone disorder caused by a mutation of fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) is characterized by short stature, rhizomelic shortening of limbs, frontal bossing of the skull, and midface abnormalities. Which of the following disorders is described by these characteristics?
A) Achondrogenesis
B) Achondroplasia
C) Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
D) Synpolydactyly
E) Holt-Oram syndrome
Q2) Trinucleotide CTG repeat expansion plays a role in the pathogenesis of which of the following muscle diseases?
A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B) Becker muscular dystrophy
C) Autosomal dominant limb girdle muscular dystrophy
D) Autosomal recessive limb girdle muscular dystrophy
E) Myotonic dystrophy
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nerves and Muscles
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1 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is mediated by which form of immune hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Atopic IgE-mediated reaction
B) Cytotoxic IgG antibody-mediated reaction
C) Circulating immune complex-mediated reaction
D) T cell-mediated reaction
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fetal alcohol syndrome is most often characterized by which of the following disorders?
A) Encephalocele
B) Anencephaly
C) Macrogyria
D) Microencephaly
E) Lissencephaly
Q2) Which of the following is the most common source of septic thromboemboli in the cerebral arteries?
A) Leg veins
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Heart
D) Aorta
E) Carotid arteries
Q3) Posttraumatic hydrocephalus is most often caused by which of the following?
A) Hypersecretion of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Obstruction of the aqueduct
C) Obstruction of the foramen of Luschka
D) Obstruction of the foramen of Magendie
E) Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid absorption
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Chapter 23: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Basal cell carcinoma of the skin often contains mutations of the p53 gene and the gene called PTCH (mutated in congenital nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome). These mutations are most likely the result of action of which of the following?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) G-protein signal transduction system
C) Chemical carcinogens from the environment
D) Ultraviolet light
E) Cosmic radiation
Q2) Which of the following skin lesions will most likely progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Actinic keratosis
B) Seborrheic keratosis
C) Seborrheic dermatitis
D) Epidermal inclusion cyst
E) Steatocystoma multiplex
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