Molecular Genetics
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Molecular Genetics explores the structure and function of genes at a molecular level, emphasizing the mechanisms of DNA replication, transcription, translation, and gene regulation. The course delves into molecular genetic techniques, the organization and expression of genetic material in prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms, genetic mutations, and the implications for heredity and disease. Students gain an understanding of how molecular processes control cellular function and inheritability, as well as the application of recombinant DNA technology in research and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics From Genes to Genomes 5th Edition by Leland H. Hartwell
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Chapter 1: Genetics: The Study of Biological Information
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Q1) What is the difference between the structure of DNA and proteins?
A)DNA is composed of amino acids and proteins are composed of nucleotides.
B)DNA is composed of the 4 nucleotides A, G, C and T while proteins are composed of the 4 nucleotides A, G, C and U
C)DNA is composed of nucleotides and proteins are composed of amino acids
D)DNA is composed of 10 different amino acids while proteins are composed of 20 different amino acids
Answer: C
Q2) Changes in protein expression can alter gene function since
A)changes in expression can alter regulatory networks.
B)low levels of protein mean that the protein can sustain mutations more readily without any harm to the cell.
C)high levels of protein mean that the protein can sustain mutations more readily without any harm to the cell.
D)the cell responds only to high levels of protein.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Mendels Principles of Heredity
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Q1) What type of cross is performed to determine the genotype of an individual?
A)testcross
B)dihybrid
C)monohybrid
D)backcross
E)controlled
Answer: A
Q2) Sickle cell anemia is a recessive trait in humans.In a cross between a father who has sickle cell anemia and a mother who is heterozygous for the gene, what is the probability that their first three children will have the normal phenotype?
A)1/4
B)1/2
C)none
D)1/8
E)1/16 will be albino
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Extensions to Mendels Laws
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Q1) Which ratio would indicate that a phenotype is controlled by multiple genes?
A)3:1
B)2:1
C)1:2:1
D)9:3:3:1.
Answer: D
Q2) If a gene is monomorphic in a population the most likely phenotypic ratio for the trait that would be obtained from a cross between two random individuals in the population would be
A)2:1
B)Cannot be predicted
C)1
D)3:1
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Chromosome Theory of Inheritance
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Q1) A variable feature of some chromosomes in corn is the presence or absence of knobs at particular sites.Suppose that one member of each of two pairs of chromosomes in a corn plant has a knob.If this plant is crossed with a knobless plant, what percentage of the offspring is expected to be knobless?
A)100%
B)75%
C)50%
D)25%
E)0%
Q2) Crossing over between homologous chromosomes occurs at which of the following stages of meiosis?
A)S phase
B)prophase I
C)metaphase I
D)anaphase I
E)prophase II
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Chapter 5: Linkage, Recombination, and the Mapping of
Genes on Chromosomes
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Q1) ws<sup>+</sup>; ws<sup>+</sup>; ws<sup>+</sup>; ws<sup>+</sup>; ws; ws; ws; ws
A)First-division segregation pattern
B)Second-division segregation pattern
Q2) A linkage group can be defined as genes that may be so far apart on a chromosome that they cannot be shown to be linked directly but they can be shown to be on the same chromosome due to their linkage with other genes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In tetrad analysis, second-division segregations result from
A)single crossovers between linked genes.
B)double crossovers between linked genes.
C)single crossovers between a gene and a centromere.
D)independent assortment of unlinked genes.
E)nondisjunction of homologs.
Q4) his4/TRP1; his4/trp1; HIS4/trp1; HIS4/TRP1
A)PD
B)NPD
C)T
D)Cannot be determined
Page 7
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Chapter 6: DNA Structure, Replication, and Recombination
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Q1) Which protein relaxes supercoils by nicking the DNA?
A)Topoisomerase
B)Helicase
C)Primase
D)Ligase
E)Telomerase
Q2) Any deviation from the expected 2:2 segregation of parental alleles that results from recombination is known as
A)allelic exchange.
B)gene conversion.
C)crossing over.
D)recombination.
E)DNA replication.
Q3) Transformation in bacteria results from the uptake of which molecule?
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Lipid
D)Protein
E)Polysaccharide
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Anatomy and Function of a Gene: Dissection
Through Mutation
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Q1) The heritable disorder Fragile X syndrome, a major cause of mental retardation, is caused by
A)production of enzymes that break the phosphate backbone.
B)UV light.
C)X-rays.
D)presence of an extra X chromosome in the sperm or egg
E)duplication of multiple three-nucleotide repeats.
Q2) Consider the following results.When 50 million sperm were examined for a specific mutation, 100 mutations were found.Indicate the mutation rate for that gene.
A)5*10<sup>6</sup>
B)50*10<sup>6</sup>
C)2*10<sup>6</sup>
D)2*10<sup>5</sup>
E)5*10<sup>5</sup>
Q3) Choose the condition below that does not involve a defect in an enzyme pathway.
A)Alkaptonuria
B)albinism
C)sickle cell anemia
D)Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Gene Expression: The Flow of Information From
DNA to RNA to Protein
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Q1) Which of these terms is NOT used as a nickname for a stop codon?
A)emerald
B)amber
C)opal
D)ochre
Q2) A mutation that is characterized by a change in the DNA sequence, but no change in the resulting protein sequence, is called a
A)frameshift mutation.
B)missense mutation.
C)silent mutation.
D)nonsense mutation.
Q3) A mutation that changes a codon sequence, and subsequently changes the amino acid that should have been placed at that point in the polypeptide chain, is called a A)frameshift mutation.
B)missense mutation.
C)silent mutation.
D)nonsense mutation.
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Chapter 9: Digital Analysis of Genomes
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Q1) After digestion of DNA with a restriction endonuclease, which statement is true about the resulting DNA fragments?
A)They will have either a single stranded overhang or blunt ends, depending on the enzyme used.
B)They will have only blunt ends.
C)They will have only single stranded overhangs.
D)The result cannot be predicted because a single restriction enzyme can generate either single stranded overhangs or blunt ends.
Q2) The method of sequencing genomic fragments cloned directly from the genome is:
A)Cytogenetic mapping
B)Shotgun sequencing
C)Southern blotting
D)Polymerase chain reaction
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a recombinant DNA molecule?
A)a single-stranded RNA hybridized to a single-stranded DNA
B)a genomic fragment of human DNA ligated to a bacterial plasmid vector
C)a \(\lambda\) chromosome in a bacterial cell
D)a bacterial plasmid cut with a restriction enzyme
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Chapter 10: Analyzing Genomic Information
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Q1) If a mating results in 6 parental and 3 recombinant type offspring between a gene of interest and a marker locus, what is the Lod score for linkage at this locus?
A)0.22
B)1.1
C)6.3
D)11
Q2) For a gene or a locus to be considered polymorphic it must satisfy the following two conditions must be present in A)all males and females.
B)two or more sequence variations in at least 10% of the population.
C)two or more sequence variations in at least 1% of the population.
D)two or more sequence variations in at least 10% of children, since not all may reach adulthood.
E)two or more sequence variations in at least 1% of children, since not all may reach adulthood. Blooms Level 1: Remember
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Chapter 11: The Eukaryotic Chromosome
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Q1) The enzyme that some organisms use to replicate DNA at the 5' ends of chromosomes is called
A)DNA polymerase.
B)telomerase.
C)DNA ligase.
D)replicase.
Q2) In mammalian cells, replication proceeds
A)unidirectionally
B)bidirectionally.
C)unidirectionally from many origins.
D)bidirectionally from only one origin.
Q3) The first level of compaction of DNA consists of
A)DNA winding around histones to form small nucleosomes.
B)tight coiling of DNA with nucleosomes into higher order structures.
C)high level compaction into metaphase-type chromosomes.
D)histone, DNA, and nonhistone covalent bonding.
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Chapter 12: Chromosomal Rearrangements and Changes
in Chromosome Number
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Q1) The type of chromosomal rearrangement that reorganizes the DNA sequence within one chromosome is known as a(n)
A)inversion.
B)duplication.
C)deletion.
D)translocation.
Q2) The genus Triticale is a new genus of the various allopolyploid hybrids between wheat and rye.Some of the members of this genus show agricultural promise because A)wheat has a high yield.
B)rye adapts well to unfavorable environments.
C)wheat has a high level of protein.
D)rye has a high level of lysine.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following does not happen when an intragenic inversion occurs?
A)One part of the gene is relocated to a distant region of the chromosome.
B)One part of the gene stays at its original site.
C)Homozygotes for the inversion do not survive.
D)The gene's function is not disrupted.
Q4) Any DNA segment that moves about in the genome
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Bacterial Genetics
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Q1) If an Hfr cell is used for mating what is the last gene that could possibly be transfered from the host chromosome?
A)A gene that is at the site of integration and on the same side as where transfer starts..
B)A gene that is at 45 minutes from the site of integration.
C)A gene that is at the site of integration of the episome but on the opposite side from where transfer starts
D)A gene that is at 30 minutes from the site of integration
Q2) A bacterium is found that is resistant to the antibiotic gentamicin.The bacterium was isolated in a hospital where patients were routinely given gentamicin for a variety of infections.What was the pressure that selected for this resistant population?
A)Presence of gentamicin in the environment.
B)High mutation rate for the bacterium.
C)Growth situation for the bacterium.
D)Patients not receiving antibiotic provided source of bacteria.
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Chapter 14: Organellar Inheritance
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Q1) cpDNA-encoded proteins include
A)RNA polymerase.
B)RNA polymerase and translation factors.
C)RNA polymerase, translation factors, and ribosomal proteins.
D)NADH dehydrogenase
Q2) Which type of DNA sequences might be studied to help reunite displaced children with their families?
A)mtDNA sequences
B)cpDNA sequences
C)Y-chromosome sequences
D)highly conserved nuclear sequences
Q3) What reaction occurs in the inner matrix of mitochondria?
A)Kreb's cycle
B)Electrons are pumped into the inner matrix to create an electrochemical gradient.
C)NADH is reduced to produce pyruvate.
D)FADH<sub>2 </sub>is reduced to produce pyruvate.
Q4) Maternal-chloroplast inherited
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Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Prokaryotes
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Q1) Fifteen strains of bacteria that are auxotrophic for maltose do not complement each other.The mutations in these bacteria map to the same DNA region using transformatin of random fragments of genomic DNA.There are only two unique enzymes in the maltose biosynthetic pathway and all of the mutants have a mutation in the reading frame for one or the other .What does this data suggest?
A)There are lots of enzymes in maltose metabolism.
B)All the genes for maltose metabolism are in a cluster and could be one operon.
C)There are genes scattered all over, we've simply found one set of mutants.
D)Maltose transport is very complex, these are transport mutants.
Q2) Why is the analysis of transcriptomes useful for genetics research?
A)It reveals many aspects of gene regulation.
B)It is easy to do.
C)It can help discover non-transcribed DNA regions.
D)It directly identifies transcription factor binding sites.
Q3) The scientists who proposed the operon theory are
A)Monod and Jacob.
B)Watson and Crick.
C)Hardy and Weinberg.
D)Darwin and Mendel.
E)Hershey and Chase.
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes
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Q1) A variation that does not involve a change in DNA sequence but can be passed from one generation to another is a(n)
A)enhancer trap.
B)replication origin.
C)Mendelian enhancer.
D)mutant chromosome.
E)epigenetic phenomenon.
Q2) What is the name for the basal transcription factors that associate with TBP to assist in initiating transcription from eukaryotic class II genes?
A)TATAs
B)DNA- BPs
C)TAFs
D)Jun and Fos
E)Sxl and string
Q3) Zinc-finger peptide motifs are responsible for what aspect of protein function?
A)Kinase activity
B)DNA binding
C)mRNA splicing
D)DNA replication
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Chapter 17: Manipulating the Genomes of Eukaryotes
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Q1) What is one problem associated with using retroviruses as human gene therapy vectors?
A)Their random integration into the host chromosome may result in detrimental mutations.
B)They need to integrate through an RNA intermediate.
C)The level of proteins produced from them is usually very low.
D)The level of proteins produced from them is usually very high.
Q2) Why are conditional knockout animals desirable?
A)genes that are essential for development can be deleted in the adult.
B)animal cell lines with deletions can be created.
C)they are easier to create than standard knockout animals.
D)the mutations they create are more stable than those created by standard knockout techniques.
Q3) To create transgenic mice DNA is injected into
A)a pronucleus of a zygote
B)the cytoplasm of a zygote
C)the nucleus after the pronuclei have fused.
D)a pronucleus of one cell from an embryo.
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Chapter 18: The Genetic Analysis of Development
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Q1) Ligands that circulate throughout the body and signal developmental differentiation are called
A)juxtacrine factors.
B)paracrine factors.
C)endocrine factors.
D)autocrine factors.
Q2) What technique would be used to best study a phenocopy?
A)RNAi
B)transgene
C)isolation of mutations
D)QTL mapping analysis
Q3) An unusual loss-of-function mutation that is not recessive is A)null.
B)hypomorphic.
C)conditional.
D)dominant-negative.
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Chapter 19: The Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) Genetic testing for cancer can
A)identify individuals that are resistant to cancer.
B)indicate increased risk of certain cancers.
C)predict the age of cancer onset in an individual.
D)eliminate the possibility that an individual will develop cancer.
E)do none of the choices.
Q2) What kind of information will be used for personalized cancer treatment?
A)PCR and sequencing of 1-2 oncogenes
B)Whole genome sequencing.
C)PCR analysis of the RB and p53 genes.
D)PCR and sequencing of 6-10 tumor suppressor genes.
Q3) A programmed cell change that results in cell death is referred to as A)apoptosis.
B)contact inhibition.
C)post-translational control.
D)metastasis.
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Chapter 20: Variation and Selection in Populations
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Q1) The loss of allelic variation due to an event that decreases the size of the entire population is called
A)gene flow.
B)genetic drift.
C)founder effect.
D)population bottleneck.
E)selection.
Q2) The Hardy-Weinberg equation is best at predicting short term genotypic frequencies since
A)the equation does not take into consdieration epistatic effects.
B)it is based on inhertiance based on Mendel's second law.
C)the equation is based on Mendelian principles of single gene inheritance.
D)over the long term some of the assumptions of the equation will not be true.
Q3) The proportion of individuals in a population that are of a particular genotype is the A)phenotype frequency.
B)genotype frequency.
C)allele frequency.
D)None of the choices is correct.
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Chapter 21: Genetics of Complex Traits
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Q1) Introgressions are used to
A)fine map QTLs
B)establish linkage disequilibrium.
C)establish linkage equilibrium.
D)rough map QTLs.
Q2) Twins from two individual zygotes (dizygotic twins)
A)are related genetically the same as monozygotic twins.
B)share 0% genetic similarities.
C)are similar in 100% of genetic sequences.
D)are related genetically the same as non-twin siblings.
E)are similar to the parents.
Q3) By definition linkage disequilibrium means that
A)two alleleic variants correlate with the presence of a particular phenotype.
B)two alleleic variants do not correlate with the presence of a particular phenotype.
C)that two alleleic variants are at least 60 mu apart.
D)two alleleic variants are 50 mu apart
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