Molecular Genetics for Nurses Test Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides nursing students with a comprehensive understanding of the principles and applications of molecular genetics as they relate to patient care and healthcare practice. Emphasizing the structure, function, and regulation of genes at the molecular level, the course explores topics such as DNA replication, transcription, translation, and gene mutations. Students will learn how genetic variations influence health and disease, the role of gene-environment interactions, and the ethical, legal, and social implications of genetic testing and counseling. Integrating theory with clinical practice, the course equips nurses with foundational knowledge to interpret genetic information, advocate for patients, and participate in interdisciplinary teams addressing genetic and genomic healthcare issues.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 2nd Edition by Theresa A. Beery
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20 Chapters
432 Verified Questions
432 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/201
Page 2
Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2914
Sample Questions
Q1) How does the DNA enzyme topoisomerase contribute to DNA replication?
A)Unwinds the double helix and separates the double-stranded DNA
B)Creates a "nick" in the DNA supercoils, allowing them to straighten before replication
C)Initiates DNA synthesis in multiple sites down the strand, making the process more efficient
D)Connects and links the individual pieces of newly synthesized DNA to form a single strand
Answer: B
Q2) What activity occurs during M phase of the cell cycle?
A)The cell undergoes cytokinesis.
B)Activity stops, and the cell "sleeps."
C)All DNA is completely replicated.
D)The cell greatly increases protein synthesis.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2915
Sample Questions
Q1) Which process would be directly inhibited by a lack of conversion of thymine to uracil?
A)Translation
B)Transcription
C)MicroRNA silencing
D)Posttranscriptional modification
Answer: A
Q2) Why are people who have poor DNA repair mechanisms at greater risk for cancer development?
A)Their cancers are usually resistant to chemotherapy.
B)Their somatic mutations are more likely to be permanent.
C)They have greater exposure to environmental carcinogens.
D)They have sustained a mutational event in all cells and tissues.
Answer: B
Q3) How does the process of polyadenylation affect protein synthesis?
A)Binding to the antisense DNA strand to prevent inappropriate transcription
B)Promoting attachment of ribosomes to the correct end of messenger RNA
C)Linking the exons into the mature messenger RNA
D)Signaling the termination of mRNA translation
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Genetic Influence on Cell Division, Differentiation,
and
Gametogenesis
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2916
Sample Questions
Q1) How many mature ovum result from the complete oogenesis of one oogonium?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
Answer: A
Q2) Which stage of cell division is present in mitosis but is missing in meiosis?
A)G<sub>1</sub>
B)S
C)G<sub>2</sub>
D)M
Answer: C
Q3) In which phases of the cell cycle is the normal cell tetraploid (4N)?
A)G<sub>1</sub> and G<sub>2</sub>
B)G<sub>1</sub> and S
C)S and G<sub>2</sub>
D)G<sub>2</sub> and M
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2917
Sample Questions
Q1) Which person is an obligate carrier of an autosomal-recessive single-gene trait or disorder without expressing the trait or disorder?
A)The son of a man with classic hemophilia
B)The daughter of a woman with Marfan syndrome
C)The son of a man who expresses a widow's peak hairline
D)The daughter of a woman who expresses attached earlobes
Q2) Which statement or condition best reflects multifactorial inheritance?
A)A mutation in a single gene results in the expression of problems in a variety of tissues and organs.
B)The susceptibility to a problem is an inherited trait, but development of the problem is related to environmental conditions.
C)A mutated gene is inherited, but the results of expression of that gene are not evident until middle or late adulthood.
D)Several genes are responsible for the mechanism of hearing, and a mutation in any one of them results in hearing impairment.
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6
Chapter 5: Epigenetic Influences on Gene Expression
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) By which mechanism does microRNA "silence" gene expression?
A)Preventing cytoplasm from coming into contact with the gene
B)Surrounding mRNA and preventing attachment of ribosomes
C)Binding to mRNA and keeping it double stranded
D)Substituting a thymine for uracil
Q2) In fragile X syndrome, only noncoding regions within the gene for a protein that directs and maintains brain development are heavily methylated, resulting indecreasedcognitive ability and behavioral problems. What is the most likely mechanism of this abnormal expression?
A)Increased microRNA molecules reducing the synthesis of the gene product
B)Failure of the methylated regions to undergo translation
C)Suppression of the "splicing out" action for introns
D)Suppression of promoter function
Q3) How is alcohol consumption thought to increase methylation in cancer suppressor genes to increase the risk for head and neck cancer?
A)Preventing DNA repair
B)Enhancing cell division
C)Acting as a methyl donor
D)Activating select oncogenes
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Autosomal Inheritance and Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2919
Sample Questions
Q1) Which feature of a 15q deletion is present in both Angelman syndrome and Prader-Willi syndrome?
A)Light skin, eye, and hair coloring
B)Continuous smiling and jerky gait
C)Excessive appetite and weight gain
D)Progressive tremors and seizure activity
Q2) Which cancer type has an increased incidence among children with WAGR syndrome?
A)Acute leukemia
B)Brain tumors
C)Colorectal cancer
D)Nephroblastoma
Q3) For a person who has any type of chromosomal abnormality, what factor(s) has/have the greatest impact on both physical and cognitive potential?
A)Prenatal testing and diagnosis
B)The number of affected family members
C)Personal family environment and social interaction
D)The number of chromosomes involved with the abnormality
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Chapter 7: Sex Chromosome and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2920
Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition or health problem is more common in women who have an FMR1 mutation?
A)Emotional instability with inappropriate expression of anger
B)Patchy areas of decreased skin pigmentation
C)Progressive skeletal muscle weakness
D)Menopause before age 40 years
Q2) Which health screening activity is most important for girls and women with Turner syndrome?
A)Mammography
B)Test for osteoarthritis
C)Blood pressure screening
D)Pulmonary function testing
Q3) What is the most likely mechanism for a 45,X karyotype?
A)Anticipation
B)Nondisjunction
C)Expansion
D)Heteroplasmy
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Family History and Pedigree Construction
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2921
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the significance of a horizontal dashed line drawn between a male and a female?
A)The two siblings are both adopted.
B)The individuals have a casual sexual relationship and are not married.
C)The individuals have a third-degree (or later) blood relationship with each other.
D)Neither of the two individuals is a first- or second-degree relative of the proband.
Q2) What is the significance of a pedigree symbol consisting of a square with a diagonal slash mark through it?
A)Affected female
B)Affected male
C)Deceased female
D)Deceased male
Q3) Which observations in a pedigree indicate a probable autosomal-dominant (AD) trait transmission?
A)Affected males and females appear in every generation.
B)The pedigree shows only one affected individual.
C)The trait appears to "skip" generations.
D)Only males are affected.
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Chapter 9: Congenital Anomalies, Basic Dysmorphology, and
Genetic Assessment
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2922
Sample Questions
Q1) Naomi and her sister have the same allele for the gene of interest; however, Naomi has cleft lip, whereas her sister has only lip pits. What genetic process explains this difference?
A)Genomic imprinting
B)Decreased penetrance
C)Genetic heterogeneity
D)Variable expressivity
Q2) What type of problem is Pierre-Robin, in which micrognathia begins a series of events that can result in an obstructed airway?
A)A syndrome
B)An association
C)A sequence
D)A dysplasia
Q3) Which statement regarding cleft lip (CL) with or without cleft palate (CP) is correct?
A)It is the rarest facial anomaly.
B)These features are not found in isolation.
C)The causes are both genetic and environmental.
D)CL without CP is a minor anomaly, and CL with CP is a major anomaly.
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Chapter 10: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2923
Sample Questions
Q1) Which health problem could be expected as a result of a gene mutation that affects the correct production and function of type 1 collagen?
A)Failure of blood to clot after minor trauma
B)Increased incidence of arterial and venous aneurysms
C)Increased incidence of hearing loss among children and adults
D)Restrictive lung disease from excessive stiffening of alveolar walls
Q2) Why does a person with Hurler syndrome have an enlarged abdomen?
A)The excess mucopolysaccharides accumulate inside the lysosomes within the liver cells.
B)The excess mucopolysaccharides accumulate inside the cells of the liver and the spleen.
C)The excess glycosaminoglycans weaken the muscles of the abdomen, and all contents move forward.
D)The excess glycosaminoglycans cause the person to develop type 2 diabetes, with greatly increased abdominal fat.
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Chapter 11: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2924
Sample Questions
Q1) Which result of genetic/genomic variation has the most support as a cause of asthma?
A)Decreased resistance to infectious microorganisms
B)Early childhood exposures to inhalation irritants (air pollution)
C)Increased inflammatory responses to environmental triggers
D)Mutations in frontal-lobe genes controlling attention-getting behavior
Q2) A 21-year-old woman who has two brothers with Duchenne muscular dystrophy asks whether carrier status testing is appropriate for her. What is the best response?
A)"Testing could be beneficial because your risk for being a carrier is nearly 100%."
B)"Testing could be beneficial because your risk for being a carrier is approximately 50%.
C)"Testing is not necessary because you would have expressed some symptoms of the disease by this time if you were a carrier."
D)"Testing is not necessary because the spontaneous mutation rate for this genetic problem is high and likely to be why your brothers have the disease."
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Chapter 12: Common Adult-Onset Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2925
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the inheritance pattern for -1 antitrypsin (ATT) deficiency?
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)Autosomal codominant
D)Sex-linked recessive
Q2) Why is predictive testing for Huntington disease avoided for a 4-year-old child who has one grandparent with the disorder?
A)Unless one of the parents is positive for the gene mutation, a negative finding would be noninformative.
B)The Huntington disease mutation is poorly penetrant and may never be expressed even when inherited.
C)A 4-year-old child cannot understand or participate in the genetic counseling process.
D)There are no effective primary or secondary prevention strategies for this disorder.
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14
Chapter 13: Cardiovascular Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2926
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is factor V Leiden disorder considered a form of thrombophilia?
A)Platelet activity is impaired.
B)Blood clots form more easily.
C)Atherosclerosis development is accelerated.
D)Excessive bleeding episodes occur in response to minor trauma.
Q2) Why is determining the genetic contribution to the onset of stroke difficult?
A)Stroke classification and phenotype remain heterogeneous.
B)Comorbidities mask the symptoms and delay the diagnosis.
C)Environmental risk factors have equal contribution to the problem.
D)Often the person with a stroke cannot provide accurate family information.
Q3) What is true about the gene variants that cause hypertension?
A)A few genes with major contributions have been identified.
B)Genes that code for proteins in the RAAS pathways are often involved.
C)Hypertension is always secondary to another genetic disease.
D)Polymorphisms have little or no impact on the hypertensive phenotype.
Q4) Which lethal cardiac arrhythmia can occur as a complication of long QT syndrome?
A)Atrial node reentry tachycardia
B)Prolonged atrial fibrillation
C)Mitral valve prolapse
D)Torsade de pointes
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Genetics of Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2927
Sample Questions
Q1) Juliet tells a nurse that she has three aunts (two on her father's side, ages 42 and 56, and one on her mother's side, age 62) who were diagnosed with breastcancer. She asks if she should have genetic testing. What should the nurse tell her?
A)"Your family history indicates a high risk, and you should definitely have genetic testing."
B)"Because no men in your family are affected, it is not inherited cancer, so you don't need mammograms or any special screening practices."
C)"Because your aunts were older when they got breast cancer, it was probably sporadic, and you should just have regular mammograms like everyone else."
D)"Your family history may indicate an increased risk for breast cancer, and a genetic counselor could help determine whether you could benefit from genetic testing."
Q2) Which statement regarding general cancer development is true?
A)The risk for cancer development increases with age.
B)Cancers usually develop in tissues that are missing a nucleus.
C)Children of older mothers have a greater risk for cancer development.
D)Most mutations leading to cancer development occur in structural genes.
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Chapter 15: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2928
Sample Questions
Q1) Why are single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), which have been associated with schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, currently not used to diagnose either of these disorders?
A)The changes in gene activity caused by the SNPs is not sufficient to cause disease expression.
B)SNPs are associated with nicotine dependence but not with schizophrenia or bipolar disorder.
C)The SNPs are too small to result in either a frameshift mutation or a point mutation.
D)These SNP-induced gene changes cannot be altered by pharmacologic therapy.
Q2) Schizophrenia is reported to have a heritability estimate as high as 80%. What does this mean?
A)If a parent has schizophrenia, each child has an 80% risk of getting schizophrenia.
B)If we look at a population, 80% of the risk for schizophrenia comes from genetics.
C)If your patient's sibling has schizophrenia, her risk of getting schizophrenia is 80%.
D)Genetics contributes 20% to the risk of schizophrenia.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Genetic and Genomic Testing
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2929
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is 34 years old and concerned about possibly being a carrier for HNPCC because his father died of colon cancer at 39, his father's sister died of colon cancer at age 41, and his brother (aged 37) now has colon cancer. The brother's testing is negative for all the known mutations associated with inherited forms of colon cancer. How should this patient be counseled about his risk for colon cancer?
A)Explain that because the brother with cancer is negative for these gene mutations, this cancer is most likely sporadic, and his risk is the same as that for the general population.
B)Explain that he could benefit from testing even though his brother is negative for these mutations because reduced penetrance might account for his negative status.
C)Explain that testing for him would be of no benefit because of the current test limitations but that his family history does place him at high risk.
D)Explain that his risk is not related to his brother's diagnosis because he did not inherit any genes from him, but because his father is a first-degree relative, testing should be considered.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2930
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the expected heart-rate response when a patient is taking a drug that is an adrenaline antagonist?
A)Heart rate is unchanged.
B)Heart rate decreases.
C)Heart rate increases.
D)Heart rate is irregular.
Q2) Which of the following is a goal of pharmacogenetics?
A)Producing "blockbuster drugs" that will work equally well for everyone
B)Bringing down the cost of pharmaceutical manufacturing
C)Developing drugs that will treat very rare diseases
D)Reducing adverse reactions
Q3) Which organ has the greatest concentration of cytochrome P (CYP) 450 enzymes?
A)Stomach
B)Kidney
C)Brain
D)Liver
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19
Chapter 18: Health Professionals and Genomic Care
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2931
Sample Questions
Q1) Why are general physicians and surgeons not considered to be genetics professionals?
A)The typical patients seen by these health-care providers have acute conditions rather than chronic conditions, and thus genetic influence is irrelevant.
B)Most of today's physicians and surgeons were educated before completion of the human genome research project.
C)These health-care professionals have minimal experience with genetics laboratory techniques.
D)The focus of their professional education is the study of medicine rather than genetics.
Q2) The patient who has been found to have a mutation in a gene allele that greatly increases her risk for a serious health problem has asked a generalist nurse tobe present when she discloses this information to her family. What is the nurse's role in this situation?
A)Primary health-care provider
B)Genetic counselor
C)Patient advocate
D)Patient support
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Chapter
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sometimes health-care providers with information about family members' genetic risk are confronted by conflicting ethical principles. Which principle is leastlikelytoconflict with the health-care provider's "duty to warn"?
A)Autonomy
B)Beneficence
C)Right to privacy
D)Genetic discrimination
Q2) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis provides parents with which options?
A)The ability to screen normally fertilized embryos for genetic traits after the first trimester
B)The ability to select embryos for implantation that test negative for a familial disease mutation
C)The opportunity to determine how many children they will conceive
D)The ability to guarantee that they will have a healthy baby
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21
Chapter 20: Genetic and Genomic Variation
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2933
Sample Questions
Q1) Which practice is most likely to result in a change in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium of a population or geographic area?
A)Random mating from within the established population
B)Geographic isolation of the established population
C)Assimilation of immigrants into the existing population
D)Preponderance of autosomal-dominant traits in the existing population
Q2) What factors could increase genetic diversity in a particular population?
A)Genetic drift
B)The population effect
C)The bottleneck effect
D)Increased number of haplotypes
Q3) What is the main purpose of population genetics?
A)Determining the factors that allow allelic frequencies to change over time
B)Determining the geographic origins of specific genetic-based disorders
C)Assessing the effects of assortive mating on natural selection and evolution
D)Assessing the differences between race and ethnicity for susceptibility and resistance to infectious diseases
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