Course Introduction
Molecular Genetics
Final Exam Questions
Molecular Genetics explores the structure and function of genes at a molecular level, focusing on the mechanisms of DNA replication, transcription, translation, and gene regulation. This course examines how genetic information is encoded, expressed, and transmitted within and across generations, alongside contemporary techniques such as PCR, DNA sequencing, and gene editing. Students will also study the genetic basis of inheritance, mutations, genetic diseases, and the molecular tools used for genetic analysis in research and medicine.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Biology of the Cell 6th Edition by Bruce Alberts
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
24 Chapters
1211 Verified Questions
1211 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/837
2
Chapter 1: Cells and Genomes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16622
Sample Questions
Q1) In the following paragraph, fill in the blanks (indicated by numbers) with either Archaea (A), Bacteria (B), or Eukaryotes (E). Your answer would be a three-letter string composed of letters A, B, and E only, e.g. ABE.
"Methanococcus jannaschii is an anaerobic thermophilic microbe that belongs to the domain ... (1) and is found in extreme environments such as hydrothermal vents. It lives at temperatures near the boiling point of water and at pressures over 200 times higher than at sea level. Its genome sequence, identified in 1996, revealed that most of its metabolic processes are similar to those in ... (2), while its genetic machinery is more similar to that of ... (3)."
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
3
Chapter 2: Cell Chemistry and Bioenergetics
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16623
Sample Questions
Q1) Despite their overall similarity, NADH and NADPH are not used indiscriminately by the cell. What are the distinctive features of these two carrier molecules?
A) NADPH has an extra phosphate near its nicotinamide ring, giving it distinct electron-transfer properties.
B) In the cell, NADH is usually in excess over NAD , but NADP is usually in excess over NADPH.
C) NADH is normally involved in anabolic reactions, whereas NADPH is normally involved in catabolism.
D) Both NADPH and NADH are recognized by the same enzymes with similar affinities, since the extra phosphate group in NADPH is not involved in such recognition.
E) In the cell, NADH is found mostly in the form that acts as an oxidizing agent, whereas NADPH is found mostly in the form that acts as a reducing agent.
Answer: E
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 3: Proteins
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16624
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the amino acids shown above has the most limited combinations of phi (?) and psi (?) angles in its Ramachandran plot? Write down the one-letter abbreviation for it, e.g. A.
Answer: P
Q2) How do multienzyme complexes in the cell, such as the fatty acid synthase, enhance reaction rates?
A) By increasing the diffusion rate of their substrate in the cell
B) By allowing the channeling of pathway intermediates from one enzyme to the next
C) By limiting the diffusion of the substrates in membrane-bound compartments
D) By increasing the intrinsic rate of catalysis for individual enzymes
E) All of the above
Answer: B
Q3) In an ? helix, each amino acid residue is rotated by about +100° and raised by about 0.15 nm relative to the previous residue. This means that each full turn of the helix rises by nm parallel to the helix's axis.
Answer: 0.54
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: DNA, Chromosomes, and Genomes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16625
Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosome 3 contains nearly 200 million nucleotide pairs of our genome. If this DNA molecule could be laid end to end, how long would it be? The distance between neighboring base pairs in DNA is typically around 0.34 nm.
A) About 7 mm
B) About 7 cm
C) About 70 cm
D) About 7 m
E) None of the above
Q2) Assume two isolated human communities with 500 individuals in each. If the same neutral mutation happens at the same time in two individuals, one from each community, what is the probability that it will be eventually fixed in both of the populations? How would the result change if the two communities fully interbreed? Write down the numbers in scientific notation and separate the two answers with a comma, e.g. 10-?, 3 × 10-².
Answers
Q3) If species A in the distance matrix represents human, indicate which of the other species (B to D) represents chimpanzee, gorilla, and orangutan, respectively. Your answer would be a three-letter string composed of letters B, C, and D only, e.g. DCB.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: DNA Replication, Repair, and Recombination
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16626
Sample Questions
Q1) Upon heavy damage to the cell's DNA, the normal replicative DNA polymerases may stall when encountering damaged DNA, triggering the use of backup translesion polymerases. These backup polymerases
A) lack 3 -to-5 exonucleolytic proofreading activity.
B) are replaced by the replicative polymerases after adding only a few nucleotides.
C) can create mutations even on undamaged DNA.
D) may recognize specific DNA damage and add the appropriate nucleotide to restore the original sequence.
E) All of the above.
Q2) The nuclear DNA polymerases in human cells
A) polymerize about 1000 nucleotides per second during DNA replication in vivo.
B) are incapable of 3 -to-5 exonuclease activity.
C) are capable of 3 -to-5 DNA polymerase activity.
D) have a single active site that is used for both polymerization and editing.
E) are unable to initiate polymerization de novo (i.e. in the absence of a primer).
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: How Cells Read the Genome: From DNA to Protein
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16627
Sample Questions
Q1) To ensure the fidelity of splicing, the spliceosome...
A) hydrolyzes ATP to undergo complex rearrangements.
B) examines the splicing signals on the pre-mRNA several times.
C) assembles on the pre-mRNA co-transcriptionally.
D) takes advantage of "exon definition."
E) All of the above.
Q2) On the ribosome, the mRNA is read from ..., and the polypeptide chain is synthesized from...
A) 5' to 3'; C- to N-terminus.
B) 5' to 3'; N- to C-terminus.
C) 3' to 5'; C- to N-terminus.
D) 3' to 5'; N- to C-terminus.
Q3) How is tRNA splicing different from mRNA splicing in eukaryotic cells?
A) tRNA splicing does not proceed via transesterification reactions.
B) tRNA splicing is carried out by proteins only.
C) tRNA splicing does not create a lariat intermediate.
D) tRNA splicing involves RNA endonuclease and RNA ligase activities.
E) All of the above.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Control of Gene Expression
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16628
Sample Questions
Q1) Indicate true (T) and false (F) statements below regarding riboswitches. Your answer would be a four-letter string composed of letters T and F only, e.g. TTTF.
( ) A riboswitch permits transcription elongation only when bound to its small-molecule ligand.
( ) Riboswitches appear to be a modern evolutionary invention.
( ) Riboswitches are often located near the 3? end of mRNAs, and therefore fold after the rest of the mRNA.
( ) Riboswitches are exclusively found in prokaryotes.
Q2) In analysis using two-dimensional gel electrophoresis of the proteins expressed in different cell types, the number of spots that are different in different cells usually exceeds the number of common spots, and even the common spots can still have different intensities. The spots representing which of the following proteins would you expect to be among the common spots when compared across several cell types?
A) RPL10 (a ribosomal protein)
B) HBA1 (a hemoglobin subunit)
C) Insulin (a hormone)
D) Tyrosine aminotransferase (a metabolic enzyme)
E) All of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Analyzing Cells, Molecules, and Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
95 Verified Questions
95 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16629
Sample Questions
Q1) Loss-of-function mutations in either imp or yfgL genes in Escherichia coli result in an increased permeability of the outer membrane to small molecules and therefore confer antibiotic sensitivity, as the antibiotics can enter the cell more readily. Interestingly, double mutants, in which both genes are defective, are resistant to antibiotics. Similar to the wild-type strain, but unlike the single mutants, they can grow on media containing antibiotics. This is an example of A) synthetic lethality.
B) complementation.
C) synergy.
D) a recessive mutation.
E) None of the above.
Q2) How are antibody-producing hybridoma cell lines immortalized to provide an unlimited source of monoclonal antibodies?
A) By ectopic expression of telomerase
B) By transformation with a retrovirus
C) By cell fusion
D) By overproduction of introduced oncogenes
E) By irradiation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Visualizing Cells
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16630
Sample Questions
Q1) Electron microscopy samples are often chemically fixed before dehydration, resin-embedding, and sectioning. But they can also be "fixed" by rapid freezing, in a way that precludes ice-crystal formation, to ensure minimal damage to the original cell structures. How can this be done?
A) High-pressure cooling
B) Plunging into liquid nitrogen
C) Spraying with a jet of liquid propane
D) Contact with a copper block cooled by liquid helium
E) All of the above
Q2) According to the force-extension graph, how many immunoglobulin domains are unfolded in each of these experiments? Write down the number as your answer, e.g. 9.
Q3) Indicate whether each of the following descriptions better applies to the scanning (S) or transmission (T) electron microscopy techniques. Your answer would be a four-letter string composed of letters S and T only, e.g. TSTS.
( ) It generally has a greater depth of field.
( ) It is usually smaller, cheaper, and simpler.
( ) It detects electrons that are scattered or emitted from the specimen.
( ) It is used to create electron-microscope tomograms.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Membrane Structure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16631
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following changes is more likely to further confine a membrane protein within a corral established by the cortical cytoskeletal network?
A) Increased temperature
B) Protease cleavage of the extracellular domain of the protein
C) Binding to an extracellular ligand
D) Protease cleavage of the cytosolic domain of the protein
E) Binding of the protein to other transmembrane proteins
Q2) Why do liposomes not fuse with one another spontaneously when suspended in an aqueous environment?
A) Because fusion requires a large number of flip-flops, which are very rare.
B) Because the hydration shell of the polar head groups of the lipids needs to be removed.
C) Because fusion requires micelle formation.
D) Because of the rapid lateral diffusion and rotation of the lipid molecules.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
12
Chapter 11: Membrane Transport of Small Molecules and the Electrical Properties of Membranes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16632
Sample Questions
Q1) Sort the following events in a sequence that would lead to long-term potentiation (LTP). Your answer would be a five-digit number composed of numbers 1 to 5 only, e.g. 13245.
(A) Activation of AMPA receptors
(B) Glutamate release into the synaptic clefts
(C) Activation of calcium-dependent protein kinases in the postsynaptic cell
(D) Postsynaptic membrane depolarization
(E) Activation of NMDA receptors
Q2) This family of ATPases is structurally related to the turbine-like pumps that acidify lysosomes and vesicles; however, they usually function in reverse, generating ATP from ADP and P using proton gradients across membranes. What are they called?
A) P-type pumps
B) ABC transporters
C) V-type pumps
D) F-type pumps
E) Permeases
Q3) Each single neuron acts as a computational device. Typically, the magnitude of the combined postsynaptic potential is encoded in the ... of firing of action potentials in the postsynaptic neuron.
Page 13
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 12: Intracellular Compartments and Protein Sorting
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16633
Sample Questions
Q1) Indicate true (T) and false (F) statements below regarding N-linked glycosylation of proteins. Your answer would be a four-letter string composed of letters T and F only, e.g. TTTF.
( ) N-linked glycosylation can be carried out co-translationally, possibly at multiple asparagine residues on the same protein molecule.
( ) N-linked glycosylation is a gradual process, with step-by-step addition and trimming events that commence with the addition of N-acetylglucosamine to an asparagine side chain.
( ) Most proteins synthesized in the rough ER are N-glycosylated, and some of them require this modification for their correct folding.
( ) Once a protein is properly folded in the ER, its attached oligosaccharides are quickly removed by an N-glycanase, although it may be glycosylated again later.
Q2) Fill in the blank in the following paragraph. DO NOT use abbreviations.
"A significant fraction of total membrane area in a eukaryotic cell encloses the lumen of the ..., which forms an extended netlike labyrinth of tubules and sacs. Secretory proteins are normally synthesized by ribosomes bound to a special type of this compartment."
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
14
Chapter 13: Intracellular Membrane Traffic
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16634
Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin is a secretory protein made by the cells in the pancreas. This protein
A) is released by the cells in response to increased intracellular Ca² concentration.
B) is first synthesized as preproinsulin.
C) is stored as aggregates inside secretory vesicles in the cells.
D) undergoes proteolytic cleavage before secretion.
E) All of the above.
Q2) Aspartic acid residues resemble phosphorylated serine residues in proteins and also carry a similar negative charge. As a result, a protein in which serine residues are mutated to aspartic acid residues may mimic the function of the corresponding wild-type protein when those serines are phosphorylated. Given that phosphorylation on serine residues in a number of Golgi matrix proteins occurs during mitosis, would you expect that mutation of these serines to aspartic acids would prevent Golgi stack formation in interphase (1) or prevent Golgi dispersion in mitosis (2)? Write down 1 or 2 as your answer.
Q3) Consider a perfectly assembled clathrin cage that is composed of 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons and therefore resembles a soccer ball. How many clathrin heavy chains are there in this cage? Write down the number as your answer, e.g. 24.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Energy Conversion: Mitochondria and Chloroplasts
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16635
Sample Questions
Q1) Indicate true (T) and false (F) statements below regarding carbon fixation in plant cells. Your answer would be a five-letter string composed of letters T and F only, e.g. TTFTF.
( ) Carbon fixation in photosynthetic cells eventually generates glucose, the major form of sugar that is transported to other plant tissues.
( ) Plant cells can generate fat droplets in their chloroplasts using glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
( ) ATP generated in the light cycle is the major source of ATP used by the plant cell to power all of its biochemical reactions.
( ) Plant cells can generate starch granules in their chloroplasts using glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate.
( ) Pyruvate is generated in the chloroplast by the glycolytic pathway.
Q2) In mammals, mitochondria are inherited
A) in a non-Mendelian fashion.
B) maternally.
C) cytoplasmically.
D) uniparentally.
E) All of the above
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Cell Signaling
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16636
Sample Questions
Q1) How is the activation of epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) different from that of insulin receptor (IR)?
A) EGFR is a dimer in its inactive and active forms, whereas IR dimerizes only when active.
B) EGFR activation requires dimerization, whereas IR can become activated as a monomer.
C) EGFR is activated by transautophosphorylation, whereas IR activation is phosphorylation-independent and is a simple consequence of receptor dimerization.
D) Unlike IR activation, EGFR activation involves an asymmetric arrangement of the intracellular kinase domains.
E) Both C and D above.
Q2) Which of the following events normally activates a GTP-binding protein?
A) GTP hydrolysis by the protein
B) Activation of an upstream GTPase-activating protein
C) Activation of an upstream guanine nucleotide exchange factor
D) Phosphorylation of a bound GDP molecule by an upstream phosphorylase
E) P release after GTP hydrolysis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: The Cytoskeleton
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16637
Sample Questions
Q1) Sort the following events to reflect the sequence during smooth muscle contraction upon delivery of muscle stimulation. Your answer would be a five-digit number composed of digits 1 to 5 only, e.g. 13452.
(A) Activation of the myosin light-chain kinase
(B) Interaction of myosin head with actin
(C) Phosphorylation of myosin
(D) Calcium release into the cytoplasm
(E) Activation of calmodulin
Q2) You have used "optical tweezers" to study the mechanics of myosin movement in a newly discovered member of the myosin II subfamily. Your results indicate that each myosin exerts a force of about 3 pN along the length of the actin filament, and displaces the filament by about 10 nm in each cycle of ATP hydrolysis. Assuming that the free-energy change for ATP hydrolysis is -50 kJ/mol under your experimental conditions, what is the efficiency of the myosin motor in converting the free energy to mechanical work? Remember that under a constant force F (in newtons), work (W; in joules) is calculated as W = F × d, where d is displacement (in meters) in the direction of the force. Avogadro's number is approximately 6 × 10²³ molecules/mole. Write down your answer as a percentage with no decimals, e.g. 99%.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 17: The Cell Cycle
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16638
Sample Questions
Q1) Indicate whether each of the following phosphorylation events typically activates (A) or inactivates (I) the protein that is being phosphorylated. Your answer would be a four-letter string composed of letters A and I only, e.g. IIIA.
( ) Phosphorylation of Cdc25 by M-Cdk
( ) Phosphorylation of condensin subunits by M-Cdk
( ) Phosphorylation of kinesin-5 by Aurora-A
( ) Phosphorylation of Ndc80 subunits by Aurora-B
Q2) Indicate whether each of the following occurs mainly in G<sub>1</sub> phase (G), S phase (S), or G<sub>2</sub> phase (H) of the cell cycle. Your answer would be a four-letter string composed of letters G, S, and H only, e.g. HGSS.
( ) DNA helicase activation
( ) DNA helicase deposition on DNA at the replication origins
( ) ORC phosphorylation
( ) Licensing of replication origins
Q3) Based on the results from your experiment, which force is dominant in chromosome movement in this cell: polar ejection force (E), microtubule flux (F), or kinetochore microtubule plus-end depolymerization (P)? Write down E, F, or P as your answer.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Cell Death
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16639
Sample Questions
Q1) Fill in the blank: In the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis, a protein called ... is released from the mitochondria into the cytosol and binds to the adaptor protein Apaf1, causing it to oligomerize into a wheel-like assembly called an apoptosome, which then recruits initiator caspase-9 proteins.
Q2) Which of the following proteins activates the mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis?
A) The tumor suppressor protein p53, when activated in response to extensive DNA damage.
B) The BH3-only protein Bid, when cleaved by the initiator caspase-8 (from the extrinsic pathway).
C) The anti-IAP protein Omi, when activated by dephosphorylation.
D) The BH3-only protein Bad, when activated by dephosphorylation.
E) All of the above.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
20
Chapter 19: Cell Junctions and the Extracellular Matrix
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16640
Sample Questions
Q1) Collagens are extremely rich in
A) alanine and valine.
B) glycine and proline.
C) lysine and arginine.
D) serine and threonine.
E) tyrosine and phenylalanine.
Q2) Indicate whether each of the following descriptions better applies to the intracellular (I) or extracellular (E) domain of integrins. Your answer would be a four-letter string composed of letters I and E only, e.g. EEEE.
( ) It binds to talin.
( ) It binds to the RGD tripeptide motif.
( ) It is bulkier.
( ) It contains divalent cation-binding domains.
Q3) Fill in the blank in the following paragraph regarding the extracellular matrix. Do not use abbreviations.
"The extracellular matrix of connective tissues in animals is primarily made and secreted by the family of cells, although they may have more specific names in certain tissues. Being common in connective tissues, these cells can also migrate and proliferate if need be."
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 21
Chapter 20: Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16641
Sample Questions
Q1) Indicate whether each of the following descriptions better applies to trastuzumab (T) which targets Her2, imatinib (I) which targets Bcr-Abl, or ipilimumab (P) which targets the CTLA4 protein. Your answer would be a three-letter string composed of letters T, I, and P only, e.g. TTP.
( ) It is NOT an antibody.
( ) It counters the immunosuppressive microenvironment of tumors.
( ) It does not bind to a cancer cell component.
Q2) Indicate true (T) and false (F) statements below regarding colorectal cancers. Your answer would be a four-letter string composed of letters T and F only, e.g. TFFF.
( ) Observation of polyps in the colon epithelium of a patient is an indication of a malignant carcinoma.
( ) Progression of colorectal cancer is very slow and normally takes over 10 years to turn into malignancy.
( ) Colorectal cancers are usually diagnosed later in life.
( ) Invasive colorectal cancer cells usually metastasize to lymph nodes via lymphatic vessels and then into the bloodstream.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Development of Multicellular Organisms
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16642
Sample Questions
Q1) An axonal growth cone has reached a muscle fiber and is forming a neuromuscular junction. Which of the following events does NOT normally occur in this process?
A) Agrin secreted from the growth cone serves as a signaling molecule affecting the muscle cell.
B) LRP4 on the surface of the growth cone serves as a signaling molecule affecting the muscle cell.
C) Synaptic vesicles containing the neurotransmitter acetylcholine appear in the growth cone.
D) Acetylcholine receptors cluster on the muscle cell plasma membrane at the junction.
E) A thin layer of basal lamina forms at the cleft between the two cell membranes at the junction.
Q2) The gene clusters known as the Bithorax complex and the Antennapedia complex contain
A) a subset of segment-polarity genes.
B) segmentation genes.
C) homeobox-containing genes.
D) genes encoding chromatin repressors.
E) genes encoding chromatin remodelers.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Stem Cells and Tissue Renewal
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16643
Sample Questions
Q1) In each of the following examples of contact signaling between adjacent cells in the mammalian gut epithelia, indicate whether the signaling is mainly mediated by Delta (D) or Ephrin (E) signals. Your answer would be a three-letter string composed of letters D and E only, e.g. EDE.
( ) Separation of crypt cell types from villus cell types
( ) Regulation of stem-cell differentiation by Paneth cells
( ) Differentiation of transit amplifying cells into either secretory cells or absorptive cells
Q2) Which of the following cell types in our body are typically renewed independently of stem cells? Your answer would be a string composed of a subset of the letters A to E in alphabetical order, e.g. BDE.
(A) Red blood cells
(B) ? Cells of pancreatic islets
(C) Hepatocytes of the liver
(D) Epithelial cells of the epidermis
(E) Neutrophils of the blood
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
24
Chapter 23: Pathogens and Infection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16644
Sample Questions
Q1) Indicate true (T) and false (F) statements below regarding the human microbiota. Your answer would be a four-letter string composed of letters T and F only, e.g. TFTT.
( ) The number of human cells in our body is greater than the number of bacterial, fungal, and protozoan cells of our normal flora.
( ) There are far more genes in our microbiome than in our own genome.
( ) Infectious diseases currently cause more human deaths than cardiovascular diseases and cancers combined.
( ) All of the microorganisms that constitute the normal flora are nonpathogens.
Q2) In which of the following groups of viruses is an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase packaged as a structural protein in each newly made viral particle?
A) DNA viruses
B) Viruses with a positive [+] strand RNA genome
C) Viruses with a negative [-] strand RNA genome
D) Retroviruses
E) Viruses with a part single- and part double-stranded DNA genome
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
25
Chapter 24: The Innate and Adaptive Immune Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/16645
Sample Questions
Q1) Indicate whether each of the following statements is true (T) or false (F) regarding all the cell-surface immunoglobulin molecules produced by a single, mature, naïve B cell. ( ) They all have the same heavy chain.
( ) They all have the same light chain.
( ) They all have the same antigen-binding site.
Q2) Indicate whether each of the following descriptions better applies to B cell receptors (B) or T cell receptors (T). Your answer would be a four-letter string composed of letters B and T only, e.g. BTTT.
( ) They can also be produced as secreted antibodies with the same antigen specificity. ( ) They diversify by class switching and somatic hypermutation.
( ) They often exist as heterodimers.
( ) They have a relatively low antigen-binding affinity.
Q3) From an evolutionary perspective, which mating pattern confers a higher fitness to a mammalian population: preferred mating between pairs whose MHC genes are most similar (S) or between those whose MHC genes are most dissimilar (D)? Write down D or S as your answer.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.